Unit 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Chromosome
A
A threadlike structure of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes
2
Q
Autosome
A
Any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
3
Q
Sex chromosome
A
Chromosome involved in sex determination
4
Q
Locus
A
Location of a gene on a chromosome
5
Q
Allele
A
One of two or more different genes that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome
6
Q
Heterozygosity
A
Different alleles at a genes locus
7
Q
Homozygosity
A
Identical alleles at a genes locus
8
Q
genotype
A
genetic make-up of a person
9
Q
Phenotype
A
Physical expression of genotype
10
Q
Single dose
A
will show fewer antigens, heterozygosity
11
Q
Double dose
A
shows more antigens, tend to be homozygous
12
Q
How are the terms single dose and double dose related to heterozygosity and homozygosity?
A
the genotype for a single will have one of each gene expression (JKA/JKB) which is heterozygous. A double dose will have two of the same gene expression (JKB/JKB) making it homozygous
13
Q
Most likely genotype for: Jk(a+ b+)
A
JKA/JKB
14
Q
Most likely genotype for: Jk( a- b-)
A
JK/JK
15
Q
Most likely genotype for: Fy (a- b+)
A
FyB/FyB
16
Q
In x-linked disorders, males are hemizygous, Why?
A
Hemizygous refers to having the XY chromosome. if a trait is carried on the X chromosome it will be expressed but males give one X to daughters and the Y to there sons.
17
Q
X-linked Dominant
A
A trait carried on the X chromosome will be expressed
18
Q
X-linked recessive
A
Two recessive genes are needed in order to express
19
Q
What are some examples of an X-linked recessive disorder in immunohematology?
A
hemophilia A and McLeod phenotype
20
Q
Examples of X-linked dominant trait
A
XG
21
Q
ABO is on chromosome
A
9
22
Q
Give ISBT and chromosome for RHD
A
ISBT: RHD
Chromosome: 1
23
Q
Give ISBT and chromosome for RHCE
A
ISBT: RHCE
Chromosome: 1
24
Q
RHAG name and chromosome
A
Rh associated glycoprotein
Chromosome: 6
25
H ISBT gene name and chromosome
ISBT: FUT1;FUT2
Chromosome: 19
26
FUT2 name and chromosome
Secretor
chromosome 19
27
Mutation
a change in a gene that is potentially capable of being transmitted to the off spring
28
What is the current number of blood groups systems is_____
43
29
Mendel's law of independent segregation
you inherit one allele from mom and one from dad
30
law of independent assortment
genes for different traits are inherited separately form each other
31
how many alleles exist at the ABO locus
3
32
If plants with the genes R/R and r/r are crossbred, the first-filial (F1) generations will all have the genotype ________. If the F1 generation plants are crossbred, what will the genotype of the second-filial (F2) generation be?
Rr; RR, Rr and rr
33
1,000 people are phenotyped for the "Y" antigen. 55% of these individuals are Y-positive. 45% of these individuals are Y-negative.
Y/Y: 11%
Y/y: 44%
y/y: 45%
34
in the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what does the 2pq represent?
the 2pq represents heterozygous
35
Quality Management
the organizational structure and process and procedures necessary to ensure that the overall intentions and directions of an organization's quality program are met and that the quality of the product or service in ensured.
36
Quality assurance
includes activities involving quality planning, control, assessment, reporting and improvement necessary to ensure that product or service meets defined quality standards and requirements.
37
Quality control
defined by operational techniques and activities used to monitor and eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance at any stage of a process.
38
A clerical check of infectious disease testing results in an example if _____
quality control
39
A process developed to ensure that none of the blood products that test positive for n infectious disease are released for transfusion is an example of
Quality assurance
40
the planning, development, and oversight of the above mentioned process is an example of ______.
Quality Management
41
FD&C Act
passed in 1938, manufacturers of drugs must demonstrate to the FDA the safety and efficacy of a product.
42
cGMP
Current good manufacturing practice; requirement under the FD&C act that requires blood product manufacturers to register with the FDA, obtain biologics license and follow the regulations by cGMP.
43
CBER
center for biologics evaluation and research; regulates blood products and most other biological therapies
44
CFR
code of federal regulations; intended to ensure he donor safety and the safety, purity and potency of blood and blood components
45
The regulation for blood products are found in parts
parts 210, 211, and 600-680 of CFR title 21
46
CMS
Center for Medicare and Medicaid services; another primary regulatory body provides federal oversight over blood transfusion.
47
CLIA'88
QC and QA ae based on test complexity and potential harm to a patient
48
IQCP
individual quality control plan; applies to entire testing process
49
what are three parts of IQCP
Risk assessment
Quality control plan
Quality assessment
50
IQCP: (RA) what five areas must be evaluated for potential errors
Specimen, test system, reagent, environment, testing personnel
51
ISO
International organization for standardization; has established international standards in most fields which represents minimal requirements.
52
ANSI
American national standards institute
53
what are some differences between accreditation by AABB, CAP, The joint commission and compliance with FDA regulations?
all are voluntary accreditation
AABB: minimum requirements (cGMP)
CAP: must follow a QA and QC programs
The joint commission: they have a vision statement
54
what are the 7 quality management principles ISO 9000 is based upon?
costumer focus, leadership, engagement of people, process approach, improvement, evidence-based decision making and relationship management.
55
Draw out the classical complement pathway
(C1)-----------> r2 and s2 with Ca++
C4------------> {C4a} + C4b
C2------------> C2a + {C2b}
C4b2a = C3 convertase
C3------------> {C3a} + C3b
C4b2a3b = C5 convertase
C5 ----------> {C5a}---------> C5b, 6, 7, 8, 9
56
Cytokines
effector proteins that cells use to communicate with each other
57
B cells
Antibody-secreting lymphocytes
(naïve cells, plasma cell and memory cells)
58
T cells
lymphocytes that regulate and control the immune response
59
Antibodies
Proteins globulins that bind to antigens
60
Complement
Complex cascade of proteins that complement the lytic function of antibodies
61
Describe IgG class antibodies according to function, structure and interaction in blood group
monomer
can cross the placenta
clinically significant
62
Describe IgM class antibodies according to function, structure and interaction in blood group
Pentamer
best at agglutinating
most efficient Ab at activating complement
63
Describe IgA class antibodies according to function, structure and interaction in blood group
can be found as monomer, dimer or trimer
present in secretion like breast milk
64
Describe the role of calcium in the classical complement pathway
stabilization of C1q, S and R subunits
65
what does opsonization refer to
Coating and enhancing phagocytosis
66
what is the best opsonin in the complement system
C3b is the best opsonin
67
What is C3d and why does the FDA require reagents containing anti-C' to include anti-C3d?
C3b further degrades into C3c and C3d, C3c dissociates but C3d remains covalently bound
68
Why is a clotted specimen in a red top tube an inappropriate specimen for a DAT?
because in a red top tube complement is being activated in vitro and we are testing for in vivo complement
69
Why is an EDTA tube optimal for a DAT
Ca++ are chelated and complement functions are arrested and any complement detected in the EDTA was previously activated in vivo
70
List the following in the correct order of ability to activate the classical complement pathway from greatest to least: IgM, IgG1, IgG2, IgG3
IgM> IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2
71
Explain why IgG3 and IgG1 are the most efficient IgG subclasses at fixing complement?
IgG3: the Fabs rotate and have a long Fc region
IgG1: the Fc region is not as long as IgG3 but is still long
72
why are IgG2 less efficient at fixing complement and why IgG4 cannot
IgG2 does not rotate and has is shorter
IgG4 has no space for attachment
73
How is maternal immunity passed to the fetus?
Maternal immunity is passed by IgG
74
List the most efficient and least efficient IgG subclasses that can cross the placenta
Most efficient: IgG1 and IgG4 smallest
Least efficient: IgG2 and IgG3 largest
75
Why are ABO incompatible blood transfusion associated with immediate intravascular hemolysis?
Effectively activate complement because most anti-A and anti-B antibodies are high titer IgM and IgM is good at activating hemolysis
76
Although Rh antibodies are clinically insignificant, why are Rh-incompatible transfusion reaction extravascular rather than intravascular
Rh antibodies are IgG and they are so far apart that C1q can't be stimulated ---> red cells are destroyed as they filter through the spleen hence extravascular
77
Provide one example of a weekly reactive antibody that may only de detected by the complement it fixes to the RBC
Kidd antibodies are detected only by the complement they bind, which is why we test serum rather than plasma
78
describe hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborns
An Rh negative mother did not receives an injection of RhIg and forms anti-d antibodies after the exposure to the Rh positive fetus
79
describe transfusion reactions
A pt received a unit of JKa positive blood but the pt has formed anti-Jka antibodies resulting in a transfusion reaction
80
describe Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Autoantibodies to a persons own RBCs are formed during a disease process
81
List two common examples of type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
Rheumatoid arthritis
systemic lupus erythematosus
82
what is the average time of onset of TA-GvHD
2-6 weeks
83
what are some prevention strategies of TA-GvHD
irradiation
84
what is the prognosis for TA-GvHD
90% mortality rate
85
Describe what TA-GvHD is?
T-cells in the donor unit recognize the recipients cells as foreign and mount an attack
