Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small Animal Emergency and Critical Care > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Royal College: Emergency Medicine flashcards
1
Q

What is the Packed Cell Volume (PCV) (a.k.a. Hematocrit)

A

The percentage of blood volume that is composed of red blood cells rather than plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are red blood cells produced

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Total Protein (TP)

A

The quantity of protein contained in plasma. Under normal circumstances, protein is maintained in the bloodstream because protein molecules are larger than openings in blood vessel walls. If vessels are abnormal, protein can leak out of vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main function of the protein in the plasma?

A

is to influence fluid movement to maintain plasma volume within the vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is normal PCV and TP in adult dogs and cats

A 
Adult Dogs:
PCV: 35-55%, TP: 5- 7 g/dl
Adult Cats:
PCV: 27-47%, TP: 5-7 g/dl
(numbers can vary slightly depending on the population and laboratory, and will be lower in neonates and pediatrics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When should you perform a PCV and TP test?

A

Any animal presenting for emergency care that is not completely healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are causes of low PVC?

A
  • Anemia (blood loss, red cell destruction, poor bone marrow production)
  • Fluid overload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the causes of high PVC?

A
  • Dehydration/ Plasma fluid loss
  • Abnormal red blood cell production (a rare condition called polycythemia)
  • Splenic contraction (The spleen stores RBC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are causes of high TP?

A
  • Dehydration (fluid lost from plasma while protein remains)
  • Excessive production of globulin protein (an immune protein)(Example: feline infectious peritonitis, chronic inflammatory disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of High PCV with normal TP

A
  • Normal for breed

- Splenic contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causes of High PCV with low TP

A

Splenic contraction and/or dehydration with protein loss (this pattern characteristic for hemorrhagic gastroenteritis – a severe, acute GI bleeding disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of high PVC and high TP

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes of low PCV with normal TP

A

Anemia from red blood cell destruction (example: Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of low PVC with low TP

A

Anemia from blood loss, or excessive fluid administration and overhydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of low PCV with high TP

A

Anemia and protein overproduction (example: feline infectious peritonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are white blood cells (WBC)

A

Blood cells vital to immune function in the body. There are various types of white blood cells with different functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where are WBC made?

A

Most WBC are made in the bone marrow; however, lymphocytes are made in lymphoid tissue such as lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the types of WBC

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes, eosinophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Neutrophils

A

Sudden response to acute infection. Short (4-6 hour) life span. Largest proportion of WBC

  • “Segmented”: Mature adult neutrophils
  • “Band”: Immature or young neutrophils – increase occurs with active or sudden infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Provides “memory” to the immune system to respond rapidly to repeat invaders. Present in low numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Eosinophils

A

Important in allergic or parasitic disease. Very low or absent normally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Basophils

A

Similar to eosinophils, function in allergic or parasitic response. Very low or absent normally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are normal WBC and platelet counts in dogs and cats?

A 
Dogs:
WBC: 6,000-11,000/uL
Platelets: 200,000-500,000/uL
Cats
WBC: 5,000-11,000/uL
Platelets: 200,000-500,000/ul
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What part of the spun blood in the hematocrit tube contains WBC and platelets?

A

The “Buffy coat”, which is the thin white band between the red blood cell and plasma layers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are WBC estimated on an emergency blood smear?

A

On 40X magnification on an area of the slide with a single layer of cells, count the number of WBC seen and multiply by 1600 to estimate total WBC count.
*Note: The WBC count will naturally be higher at the far edge of the smear, so counts at the far edge of the slide may be higher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are platelets estimated on an emergency blood smear?

A

On 100X magnification on an area of the slide with a single layer of cells, count the number of platelets seen in one high-powered field and multiply by 15,000-20,000 to identify a platelet estimate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Causes of low WBC

A
  • Rapid onset or early active infection consuming WBC (sepsis, pneumonia, pyometra)
  • Reduced bone marrow production (parvovirus, bone marrow injury or toxicity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes of high WBC

A

Active or chronic infection or inflammation, beyond the acute phase of rapid WBC use.
Excessive bone marrow production (bone marrow cancer)
*Note: Elevated WBC count does not always mean “infection”, and antibiotic therapy is not always indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Causes of low platelets

A
  • Consumption (active bleeding)
  • Poor production (bone marrow disease)
  • Destruction (immune-mediated thrombocytopenia, drugs)
  • Sequestration (platelets hang out in peripheral vessels)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Causes of high platelets

A

Many diseases, and not usually a primary problem that needs to be addressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are Blood Chemistries

A

Measurements of parameters in a plasma or serum sample that provide information on function of various organ systems (kidneys, liver, gastrointestinal tract), proteins, and electrolyte values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which parameters are commonly measured cage-side for emergency management of dogs and cats?

A 
Sodium (+/- Chloride)
Potassium
Calcium
Glucose
Urea nitrogen (BUN), +/-creatinine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At admission, when should you perform chemistry tests?

A

Any animal that is not completely healthy (although costs of testing should be discussed with the owner). Depending on severity of illness, tests are sometimes done as cage-side tests with immediate results, and at other times are performed by submitting blood to the laboratory for more complete results but without immediate availability of results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

With inpatient testing, when should you perform chemistry tests?

A

For monitoring of response to therapy or deterioration of condition. Certain medical conditions, such as diabetic ketoacidosis or Addison’s disease, may require tests to be performed multiple times a day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Normal blood chemistry values, dogs and cats

A 
-Dogs:
Sodium (Na): 142-155 mEq/l 
Chloride (Cl): 112-120 mEq/l
-Cats: 
Na: 145-158 mEq/l 
Cl: 115-123 mEq/l
-Both: 
Potassium (K): 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
Calcium (Ca): 9-11 mEq/dl (Ionized Ca 1.0-1.25 mmol/L)
Glucose: 80-120 mg/dl
BUN: 8-28 mg/dl
Creatinine: 0.8-1.6 mg/dl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When does high potassium happen?

A 
Urinary obstruction
Bladder rupture and urine in the abdomen
Acute kidney failure
Accidental overdose
Severe tissue damage (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does high potassium cause?

A

Irregular heart rhythm and slow heart rate, leading to heart standstill and cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When does low potassium happen?

A

Chronic kidney failure (cats)
Excessive fluid administration
Diabetic ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does low potassium cause?

A

Muscle weakness leading to inability to lift head (cervical ventroflexion) and respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When does high glucose happen?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus/ diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Stress (cats)
  • Excessive intravenous dextrose administration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does high glucose cause?

A

Increased urine output and drinking (PU/PD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When does low glucose happen?

A 
Puppies and kittens with poor food intake (especially toy breeds)
Severe systemic infection (Sepsis)
Addison’s disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
Insulin overdose
Liver failure (uncommon)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does low glucose cause?

A

Seizures, coma, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When does high BUN or creatine happen?

A

Kidney failure
Urinary obstruction or bladder rupture
Severe dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does high BUN or creatine cause?

A

Nausea, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, respiratory and brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When does low calcium happen?

A

Dogs with poor nutrition that are nursing puppies
Parathyroid disorders
Antifreeze toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does low calcium cause?

A

Tetany (Muscle twitching)
Seizures
Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When does high sodium and chloride happen?

A

Severe dehydration

Poor water intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does high sodium and chloride cause?

A

Excessive thirst (PD)
Dementia/ behavior change
Seizures
Coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When does low sodium and chloride happen?

A

Excessive water intake

Excessive fluid loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does low sodium and chloride cause?

A

Dementia/ behavior change
Seizures
Coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is urine obtained?

A

For a sterile urine sample, urine must be collected by cystocentesis (needle inserted in the bladder) However, with a critical animal, voided or catheter –collected urine should be saved, ideally prior to any fluid being administered. Fluid therapy can change urine results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What parameters can be determined from urine?

A

Pre-treatment urine specific gravity is important to understanding how to interpret kidney test results. For dogs, appropriate concentration in the face of azotemia is >1.025 USG, while for cats, appropriate USG when azotemic is >1.035-1.040. Urine dipstick testing can also be performed cage-side for emergency patients to identify glucose and/ or ketones (diabetes mellitus), blood, pH, and protein. Urine sediment evaluation can reveal crystals (for example, calcium oxalate crystals for antifreeze toxicity), or tubular casts that indicate tubular damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How are blood clots formed?

A

Following tissue injury, blood platelets in circulation travel to the site of injury, adhere to the injury, and recruit other platelets to join the fight by aggregating on the initial platelets. This forms a “platelet plug”. Once the platelet plug is formed, blood-clotting factors that are made in the liver travel to the site of the platelet plug and form a solid clot. When the injury has healed, the body dissolves the clot in a process called fibrinolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How do we measure platelet numbers?

A

Platelet count (either in a laboratory as a part of a complete blood count (CBC) test or by performing a blood smear and counting platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How is platelet function measured?

A

By creating a tissue injury and timing how long it takes until a blood clot forms on the surface. Blood clotting should occur within 5 minutes of injury. Tests to measure platelet function include buccal mucosal bleeding time (performed on the inside of the lip) or toenail bleeding time. The risk of either test is that if the platelets are not working, bleeding might not stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How are blood-clotting factors measured?

A

Factors are measured in the laboratory by performing a prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). These are timed tests, and prolonged results indicate an absence of certain factors. Each of these tests provides somewhat different information about the 12 clotting factors produced by the liver.
For cage-side testing, activated clotting time (ACT) can be performed. The test is performed by filling an activated clotting time tube with whole blood immediately after sample collection. The tube must be pre-warmed, and maintained at body temperature. The tube is gently agitated and formation of a solid clot is the end point. A clot should normally form within 5 minutes. Low blood platelets will cause the test to be falsely prolonged even if clotting factors are normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are clinical signs of low platelets or dysfunctional platelets?

A

Surface pinpoint bleeding (petechia) or paintbrush bleeding (ecchymoses)
Urinary system bleeding (blood seen in urine)
Gastrointestinal system bleeding (causes melena, or dark, tarry stool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are clinical signs of low clotting factors

A

Bleeding into body cavities (thorax, abdomen) or tissue bleeding. Sometimes this is seen by excessive bleeding following obtaining a blood sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What causes poor platelet function?

A

Aspirin therapy
Tick-borne infections
Severe kidney failure

61
Q

What causes poor clotting factor function?

A

-Acquired disorders:
Warfarin-type rodent bait intoxication (common)
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC – can occur with any severe illness or injury)
End-stage liver failure (rare)
-Inherited disorders:
Hemophilia (rare)

62
Q

What is Colloid Osmotic Pressure (COP)

A

This is a measure of the osmotic force exerted by blood components (primarily albumin) in circulation.

63
Q

What does measuring COP in critically ill patients provide?

A

Measuring this value in critically ill patients provides guidance to the clinician about prescribing intravenous colloid therapy such as Hetastarch or albumin

64
Q

How is COP performed?

A

COP is performed either on whole blood or plasma using a device called a colloid osmometer. The only commercially produced device of this type for cage-side testing is made by Wescor (the Wescor 4420). Blood is introduced into a testing chamber that contains a semipermeable membrane. This membrane is bathed in normal saline, and the device measures the osmotic pull generated from the blood sample across the semipermeable membrane.

65
Q

What are normal COP levels?

A

Normal COP is around 20 mmHg in dogs and 24 in cats.

66
Q

What conditions cause low COP?

A

Any condition that causes low proteins cause low COP. Proteins can be low when they are lost through leaky blood vessels, or not produced well.

67
Q

What is lactate?

A

Lactate is a breakdown product of glucose which is produced when tissue oxygenation is poor.

68
Q

What are common conditions in which lactate is high?

A

Common conditions in which lactate is high include any cause of shock, heart failure, gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV), thrombosis, and trauma

69
Q

Why do we measure lactate?

A

If lactate remains elevated when animals are treated for conditions that cause high lactate, persistent elevation can indicate persistent tissue injury and a failure to correct the underlying disorder. Studies have been performed to link persistent lactate elevations with poor prognosis which can aid in owner discussion about severity of disease.

70
Q

How is lactate measured?

A

Most commonly, practices use a small hand-held lactate meter that requires a drop of blood for measurement. Certain blood gas and chemistry analyzers can also assess for lactate.

71
Q

Whats normal lactate levels?

A

Normal lactate is generally < 2.5 mmol/L

72
Q

What is Pulse Oximetry (SpO2)

A

A noninvasive method of measuring oxygen content of

arterial blood that is attached to hemoglobin.

73
Q

What two forms of hemoglobin do pulse oximeters measure?

A

oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin

74
Q

How do pulse oximeters work and what do they calculate?

A

Pulse oximeters use red and infrared light emitted from a probe to measure two forms of hemoglobin and calculates the difference of these to determine oxygen content.

75
Q

What must the probe in the pulse oximeter be able to calculate to be able to read a value?

A

Pulsate flow

76
Q

When is pulse oximetry indicated?

A

Pulse oximetry is indicated in any patient at risk of hypoxia, including those with fast or slow respiratory rate, under anesthesia, receiving oxygen therapy, or critically ill.

77
Q

What are the two types of probes on a pulse oximeter?

A

Transmittance probe and Reflectance probe

78
Q

What is a transmittance probe?

A

Light shines from one side of the probe and is received by the photodetector on opposite side.

79
Q

Where are transmittance probes usually attatched?

A

Probes are typically attached to non-haired, non-pigmented areas, to include the tongue, lip, ear, prepuce or vulva, toe web, or skin fold.

80
Q

What is a reflectance probe?

A

Light shines from the probe, and is reflected off of a hard tissue back to the photoreceptor on the probe.

81
Q

Where can a reflectance probe be attached?

A

This probe can be used on the ventral tail surface.

82
Q

How can you tell if the pulse oximeter is accurately detecting pulsatile flow?

A

The signal strength is displayed as a bar or wave form, and the device also displays a heart rate. The signal strength must remain strong and pulse rate match a manual pulse rate or heart rate of the patient. If either the signal is weak or the heart rate value is inaccurate, the results cannot be trusted.

83
Q

What is a normal SpO2 reading?

A

For a patient breathing room air, normal SpO2 should be 97% - 100%.

84
Q

What does an SpO2 level below 94% indicate?

A

insufficient oxygenation

85
Q

What does an SpO2 below 90% indicate?

A

severe hypoxemia

86
Q

What interferes with obtaining a pulse oximetry reading?

A 
Patient motion
Poor perfusion causing poor pulse quality
Severe anemia
Light interference with probe
Pigmented or haired skin
87
Q

When is pulse oximetry falsely elevated?

A

In situations of abnormal hemoglobin. SpO2 will be falsely elevated when there is excessive carboxyhemoglobin or methemoglobin.

88
Q

What is carboxyhemoglobin?

A

carbon monoxide toxicity

89
Q

What is methemoglobin?

A

acetaminophen toxicity in cats.

90
Q

What is End-Tidal CO2 (ETCO2)

(also called capnometry)?

A

A noninvasive measurement that estimates partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2). Carbon dioxide is the primary monitoring tool for ventilation, making ETCO2 valuable in patients under general anesthesia or receiving mechanical ventilation.

91
Q

When is ETCO2 indicated?

A
  • Monitoring ventilation in anesthetized or sedated, intubated animals (general anesthesia or mechanical ventilation
  • Confirmation of endotracheal and feeding tube placement
  • Monitoring during cardiopulmonary resuscitation
92
Q

What is a capnometer?

A

ETCO2 monitor

93
Q

What are the two types of capnometers?

A

Side-stream monitor and Mainstream monitor

94
Q

What is a side-stream monitor?

A

a small tube is inserted into the endotracheal tube to sample exhaled respiratory gas

95
Q

What is a mainstream monitor?

A

a heated sensor attachment fits between the endotracheal tube and anesthetic circuit

96
Q

What problems are present with a side-stream monitor?

A

Sampling tube can occlude with respiratory secretions. Since they draw off a portion of gas, oxygen flow rates might need to be increased.

97
Q

What problems are present with a mainstream monitor?

A

The heating device could cause thermal burns to respiratory mucosa with long-term use. Require time to come to appropriate temperature, and more frequent calibration. Can increase dead space in the ventilation circuit.

98
Q

What is a normal ETCO2 level?

A

35-45 mmHg

99
Q

What should the capnometer value for ETCO2 be compared to?

A

The capnometer value should be compared to an arterial blood gas value for PaCO2 – if the capnometer is accurate, the ETCO2 should be 2-5 mmHg lower than PaCO2.

100
Q

What does an elevated ETCO2 indicate?

A

hypoventilation (common) or increased metabolic activity and CO2 production (rare)

101
Q

What does a low ETCO2 indicate?

A

hyperventilation (common), or reduced metabolic activity (rare).

102
Q

What can a sudden decrease towards zero in ETCO2 levels indicate?

A

disconnection of respiratory circuit, airway obstruction, or death.

103
Q

What information does a blood gas analysis provide?

A

valuable information about the metabolic and respiratory status of patients presenting to the veterinary emergency room.

104
Q

What is a normal pH range in the body?

A

7.35-7.45

105
Q

How does the body maintain pH?

A

a combination of kidney function, buffers in the blood, and respiratory function

106
Q

What is it called when pH decreases?

A

academia (too much hydrogen)

107
Q

What is it called when pH increases?

A

alkalemia (not enough hydrogen)

108
Q

What is the only way that a blood oxygen level is obtained?

A

an arterial sample

109
Q

What are some common sites for arterial blood gas sampling?

A

dorsal pedal artery or the femoral artery

110
Q

What must happen to blood before being introduced into the blood gas machine.

A

Blood must be anti-coagulated, typically with heparin, since blood clots will cause malfunction of the device.

111
Q

What values are important for the blood gas analysis?

A

pH, bicarbonate (HCO3-), partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), and partial pressure of oxygen (PO2)

112
Q

Normal HCO3- levels?

A

18-24

113
Q

What are normal PaCO2 or PvCO2 levels?

A

35-45

114
Q

Normal PaO2 in room air (21% oxygen)

A

80-100

115
Q

What are bicarbonate (HCO3) abnormalities consistent with?

A

a metabolic origin of a blood gas disorder or attempt to correct a primary respiratory disorder

116
Q

What are PCO2 abnormalities consistent with?

A

with a respiratory origin of a blood gas disorder or attempt to correct a primary metabolic disorder.

117
Q

If pH is low and there is a concurrent low HCO3-…

A

Metabolic acidosis

118
Q

If pH is low and concurrent PCO2 is high…

A

Respiratory acidosis

119
Q

If pH is high and concurrent HCO3- is high…

A

Metabolic alkalosis

120
Q

If pH is high and concurrent PCO2 is low…

A

Respiratory alkalosis

121
Q

Causes of metabolic acidosis?

A
  • Shock, dehydration (Lactic acidosis)
  • Renal failure
  • Antifreeze toxicity (Ethylene glycol)
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Renal tubular acidosis (rare)
  • Severe diarrhea (rare)
  • Compensation for respiratory alkalosis (rare)
122
Q

Corrections for metabolic acidosis?

A
  • Correct underlying disorder

- Consider intravenous sodium bicarbonate if severe and animal is breathing

123
Q

Causes for metabolic alkalosis

A
  • Severe vomiting and dehydration
  • Excessive administration of bicarbonate
  • Compensation for respiratory acidosis (rare)
124
Q

Corrections for metabolic alkalosis?

A

-Correct underlying disorder
-Fluid therapy with IV 0.9% NaCl.
Administration of gastric acid reducers

125
Q

Causes of respiratory acidosis?

A
  • Hypoventilation
  • Deep anesthesia
  • Muscle weakness
  • Airway obstruction
  • Brain disease
  • Cervical spinal cord disease
  • Inadequate mechanical ventilation
  • Compensation for metabolic alkalosis (uncommon)
126
Q

Corrections for respiratory acidosis?

A
  • Reduce depth of anesthesia
  • Correct airway obstruction
  • Alter mechanical ventilation parameters
  • Correct neurologic disease if possible
127
Q

Causes of respiratory alkalosis?

A
  • Hyperventilation
  • Stress, anxiety, fear, pain, excitement, brain disease
  • Compensation for metabolic acidosis (common)
128
Q

Corrections of respiratory alkalosis?

A

Administer analgesia, reduce anxiety

129
Q

How should urine be collected?

A

cystocentesis

130
Q

What is cystocentesis?

A

needle in the bladder

131
Q

What are the ways that a urinalysis can be done?

A

urine that is voided, collected by catheter, or by cystocentesis

132
Q

What is the normal urine specific gravity (USG)?

A

1.000 – 1.080 depending on fluid balance in the body

133
Q

In a dehydrated dog, what is an adequate concentration in the urine?

A

~1.025

134
Q

In a dehydrated cat, what is an adequate concentration in the urine?

A

~1.035-1.040

135
Q

What is a foley catheter used for?

A
  • Female dogs
  • +/- male dogs (catheter diameter / length limit use)
  • Cat urethra generally too small for this catheter
136
Q

How does a foley catheter work?

A
  • Place catheter through urethra into bladder and inflate balloon (valve prevents deflation when insufflation syringe removed)
  • Balloon keeps catheter in the bladder
137
Q

What is the red rubber catheter used for?

A
  • Male dogs (must use correct length)
  • Can use in female dogs – Foley is preferred
  • Male cats (3.5 Fr) for indwelling
138
Q

How do you suture the red rubber catheter to the skin for indwelling?

A

Place tape “butterfly” around catheter and suture that to skin

139
Q

What are the two types of feline catheters?

A

Tomcat and slippery sam

140
Q

What is a feline catheter?

A
  • 3.5 French diameter
  • Male cats and female cats
  • Useful for unblocking
141
Q

Is a tomcat catheter meant for indwelling?

A

No

142
Q

What is a closed system urine collection?

A
  • One-way flow

* More costly

143
Q

What is an open system urine collection?

A
  • 10 mL drip set and empty fluid bag • Widely used in vet med
  • Important to maintain sterility
144
Q

What is an indwelling catheter?

A

A catheter that stays in. Clean exposed parts of indwelling catheters 3-4 times a day with chlorohexidine.

145
Q

How should you measure urine output volume?

A

with gram scale rather than volumetric (1gram=1mL)

146
Q

Anuria

A

No urine output measurable

147
Q

Oliguria

A

Insufficient urine quantity = ~ 0.25 mL-0.5

mL/kg/hour

148
Q

What is a normal urine output?

A

~1-2 mL/kg/hour

149
Q

Polyuria

A

> 2 mL/kg/hr

Small Animal Emergency and Critical Care (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions