Understanding Arrythmias & Action of Drugs on CVS Flashcards

1
Q

What are arrhythmias? List the different types.

A

Arrhythmias/dysrhythmias are disturbances of cardiac rhythms. Abnormalities of heart rate/rhythm include: bradycardia (in context), atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, tachycardia - ventricular or supra-ventricular, ventricular fibrillation.

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2
Q

What can be the cause of arrhythmias that count as tachycardic?

A

Ectopic pacemaker activity (dominates over the SAN), with damaged myocardium becoming depolarised and spontaneously active or latent pacemaker activity activated due to ischaemia. Or afterdepolarisations (triggered activity), atrial flutter / fibrillation, or a re-entry loop, with a conduction delay, perhaps with an accessory pathway.

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3
Q

What can be the cause of arrhythmias that count as bradycardic?

A

Sinus bradycardia from sick sinus syndrome (intrinsic dysfunction) or extrinsic factors (e.g. Drugs). Alternatively, conduction block problems at the AVN or BoH - at the AVN, it could be due to extrinsic factors.

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4
Q

Delayed afterdepolarisations (triggered activity), are more likely to happen if there’s a high intracellular ___________ concentration. Early afterdepolarisations can lead to ______________ and are more likely if the ________ _________ is prolonged - shown on an ECG by a longer QT interval.

A

Calcium
Oscillations
Action potentials

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5
Q

With normal excitation spread, impulses cancel when they meet, because the cell’s refractory period maintains direction; explain the idea of re-enterant mechanisms in the heart and how it can cause tachycardia.

A

There may be a block of conduction through a damaged area region, but in this case there’s incomplete conduction damage (unidirectional block), meaning that excitation can take the long route to spread the wrong way through the damaged area, setting up a circus of excitation.

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6
Q

How can mitral stenosis lead to atrial fibrillation (what’s the step in the middle)? Also, how would this be shown on an ECG?

A

The muscle could be overstretched and damaged over time, leading to several small entry loops in the left atria, which can lead to atrial fibrillation.
Wavy baseline, no discernible p waves and an irregular rhythm (at a higher rate).

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7
Q

How is an AVN RE-entry loop different from the mechanism of Ventricular pre-excitation?

A

Fast and slow pathways in the node create the AVN RE-entry loop, whereas Ventricular pre-excitation is from an accessory pathway between the atria and the ventricles, which creates a re-entry loop (e.g. In Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, where it corrects itself).

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8
Q

What are the 4 basic classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

I - block voltage sensitive sodium channels,
II - beta-adrenergic antagonists,
III - block potassium channels,
IV - block calcium channels.

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9
Q

Lidocaine is a class I anti-arrhythmic drug, used as a local anaesthetic, which exhibits use-dependent block, what does this mean and why is this the case?

A

It only blocks voltage-gated sodium channels in open/inactive state, so it preferentially blocks damaged depolarised tissue - blocks during depolarisation, but dissociates in time for the next AP, so little effect in normal cardiac tissue.

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10
Q

When might Lidocaine, a anti-arrhythmic Na+ channel blocker be used?

A

Intravenously post-MI if signs of ventricular tachycardia, as damaged areas of myocardium become depolarised and may fire automatically - more Na channels open in depolarised tissue. Not used prophylactically after an MI.

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11
Q

What is the effect on the Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs (e.g. Propranolol, atenolol etc), that are beta-blockers?

A

At beta-1 receptors in the heart, they b,of, sympathetic action, which decreases the pacemaker potential in the SAN and slows conduction at the AVN.

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12
Q

When is the use of anti-arrhythmic beta-adrenoreceptors most effective?

A

When there is more sympathetic drive as it can reduce the oxygen demand and so myocardial ischaemia. It’s beneficial following a MI, because they usually increase sympathetic activity - prevent ventricular arrhythmias.

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13
Q

What feature of beta-blocker action on the heart means that they can prevent supra-ventricular tachycardias and slow the ventricular rate in Atrial Fibrillation patients?

A

They slow conduction at the atrioventricular node.

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14
Q

Why do Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs, which block K+ channels, work more in theory than in practice?

A

They prolong the action potential, which is supposed to lengthen the absolute refractory period and stop the next action potential coming too soon, but they can be pro-arrhythmic as prolonged APs can cause early afterdepolarisations.

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15
Q

Although Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs, which block K+ channels aren’t generally used, there is the exception of Amiodarone, because it has other functions, what are these?

A

It slows the rise of the action potential, blocks calcium channels and is a beta blocker, so it can treat tachycardias associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome and is effective for suppressing ventricular arrhythmias post-MI.

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16
Q

An example of a Class IV, calcium channel blocking anti-arrhythmic drug is Verapamil. What effect does this have on the cells of the heart?

A

Decreased slope of action potential at the SAN, decreased AVN conduction and negative ionotropy (some coronary and peripheral vasodilation).

17
Q

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers are not effective in preventing arrhythmias, but what can they do?

A

Act on vascular smooth muscles.

18
Q

Give an example of an anti-arrhythmic drug that does not fall into one of the 4 classes and explain how it works.

A

Adenosine, produced endogenously and administered intravenously, acts on alpha-1 receptors at the AVN, but has a tiny half life. It enhances potassium conductance (hyperpolarised) and is useful in terminating re-entrant supra-ventricular tachycardia and so is anti-arrhythmic.

19
Q

What is heart failure?

A

Chronic failure of the heart to provide sufficient output to meet the body’s requirements. Reduced force of contraction or reduced filling, reduces the cardiac output and so tissue perfusion, which can lead to oedema (high venous pressure).

20
Q

Positive ionotropes increase CO, but are not routinely used to treat heart failure, with drugs that reduce the workload of the heart being favoured (lowered afterload and preload). Give two examples of types of drugs that are positive ionotropes.

A

Cardiac glycosides and beta-adrenergic agonists.

21
Q

Digoxin is a prototype cardiac glycoside, that blocks NaKATPase and can improve the symptoms of heart failure (not long term), how does it work?

A

Leads to a rise in intracellular Na, so decreasing activity of NCX, increasing intracellular Ca - more is stored in the SR and available for increased force of attraction.

22
Q

Apart from increasing contractility of the heart muscle, what can the cardiac glycoside Digoxin do and when is it used?

A

It can cause increased vagal activity (act via CNS), slow AV conduction and HR - used in heart failure when there’s an arrhythmia e.g. Atrial fibrillation.

23
Q

Beta-1 agonists increase contractility, when are they used?

A

In cardiogenic shock and acute but reversible heart failure (post-operative).

24
Q

With heart failure, it’s best not to flog a dying horse, so what type of drug is used that can reduced the workload by decreasing sodium and water retention and reduce vasoconstriction and how do these help?

A

ACE-inhibitors, stop the conversion of the active AngII. Decrease vasomotor tone, so blood pressure, reducing afterload and decreasing fluid retention, so blood volume and reducing preload.

25
Q

If ACE-inhibitors are not tolerated, what else can be used with a similar outcome?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers.

26
Q

Which types of drugs outside of the RAAS system, can be used to reduce the workload in heart failure?

A

Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists and diuretics.

27
Q

What is angina?

A

(Myocardial ischaemia), when the oxygen in the heart doesn’t meet its needs, leading to ischaemia and chest pain (usually with exertion). It is due to narrowing of the coronary arteries - atherosclerotic plaque formation.

28
Q

Drugs used to treat angina involve reducing the work of the heart (give 3 types) and improving the blood supply to the heart (give 2 types).

A

Beta-adrenoreceptor blockers, calcium channel antagonists and organic nitrates reduce the workload of the heart.
Organic nitrates and calcium channel antagonists increase its blood supply.

29
Q

How do organic nitrates act on the vasculature and which vessels in particular?

A

Organic nitrates act with thiols (-SH) in vascular smooth muscle causing NO2- to be released, which is reduced to NO, a powerful dilator. NO activates guanylate cyclase-cGMP-PKG, lowers intracellular calcium - relaxation. Acts primarily on the venous system, so lowers preload (Starling’s Law - less oxygen demand).

30
Q

Why do organic nitrates act preferentially on the veins?

A

Probably because they produce less endogenous NO (there is little effect on arterioles).

31
Q

Describe the secondary action of organic nitrates, separate the venous vasodilation.

A

Act on coronary collateral arteries (few, as most are end arteries) to improve perfusion to ischaemic myocardium. Arterioles are fully dilated in the ischaemic region already.
(Main action - venodilation, educing venous pressure and return of blood to the heart)

32
Q

When might anti-thrombotic drugs be given?

A

Atrial fibrillation (auricle are muscular pouches), following an acute MI and when patients have mechanical prosthetic heart valves, all carry an increased risk of thrombus formation.

33
Q

List some anti-coagulants.

A

Heparin (IV) inhibits thrombin and is used acutely (short term action), Fractionated heparin given subcutaneously, Warfarin (oral) antagonises vitamin K action, Thrombin inhibitors and Anti-platelet drugs: Aspirin (following acute MI or high risk).

34
Q

Hypertension is associated with increased blood volume or total peripheral resistance. Pressure= flow x resistance so BP = CO X TPR. What might be targeted for hypertension therapeutics?

A

Lower blood volume (CO by Starling’s law), lower CO, lower TPR.

35
Q

ACE inhibitors are useful in treating hypertension, as the decrease sodium and water retention and vasodilate (work on CO and TPR), what about calcium channel blockers, B-blockers and alpha-1 antagonists?

A

Calcium channel blockers can be selective to vasodilate vascular smooth muscle (decrease preload, so CO), diuretics decrease retention so volume, B-blockers decrease CO, but aren’t routinely used and alpha-1 antagonists are also not routinely used, but vasodilate.