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NBDE II > Ultimate Review (IU) Questions > Flashcards

Ultimate Review (IU) Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Curing light wave length

A

400-500nm (475nm I think)

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2
Q

MC GA complication within first 24 hours that can lead to pneumonia

A

Atelectasis (Collapsed lung)

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3
Q

Curing light damages ____ the most

A

Retina

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4
Q

Implants should be placed ___mm. apart and ___mm from adjacent teeth

A

3mm

1mm

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5
Q

Implant distance from mental foramen

A

5mm

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6
Q

Chin tilted too far upward on PAN will show

A

Reverse Occlusal Plane

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7
Q

Chin tilted too far down on PAN will show

A

Big smile, Anterior tooth distortion

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8
Q

Inverted Y on PAN due to superimposition of the

A

Floor of nasal cavity (straight radiopaque line) and border of maxillary sinus (curved radiopaque line)

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9
Q

Bone necrosis occurs at

A

56 degrees celsius

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10
Q

Procedure to correct mandibular retrognathia

A

Bilateral sagittal split

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11
Q

Infections from mandibular premolars and molars drain to ____

A

Submandibular space because apices are below mylohyoid mm. attachment

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12
Q

Infections from mandibular incisors and canines drain to ___

A

Submental Space

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13
Q

Same species graft:

A

Allograft or Isogenic graft

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14
Q

Dyspnea & Wheezing on Expiration

A

Asthma

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15
Q

Tx for asthma attack

A

Albuterol, can give epi (.3mL of a 1:100,000 dilution) if albuterol doesn’t work)

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16
Q

Meds to avoid in asthma patients:

A
  • NSAIDS
  • Barb’s
  • Narcotics
  • Erythromycin
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17
Q

Stones are MC found in ____ obstructing what duct

A

Submandibular gland; Wharton’s duct

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18
Q

Where is recurrent herpes mostly found

A
  • Lips*
  • Hard palate
  • Attached gingiva
  • Alveolar ridge
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19
Q

Apthous ulcers are associated with Stress such as:

A
  • bacterial infections
  • trauma
  • endocrine condition
  • allergic factor
  • immunological abnormalities in iron, vitamin B or Folic acid
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20
Q

What type of syphilis is NOT contagious

A

Tertiary syphilis

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21
Q

Patients with what disease are more sensitive to EPI, which could result in a hypertensive crisis

A

Graves disease

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22
Q

Xerostomia can be caused by

A
  • Antihypertensives
  • Antidepressants
  • Cancer therapy
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Endocrine disorders
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23
Q

Patients with Muscular dystrophy tend to show what two symptoms

A
  • Mouth-breathing

- Tendency for Open-Bite

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24
Q

How much bone necessary B & L around implant

A

B:0.5mm
L:1mm

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25
Q

Pemphigoid is found in

A

between epithelium and CT

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26
Q

Pemphigus (worst one) found

A

solely in epithelia tissue (intraepithelial bullae)

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27
Q

Which amine LA is also metabolized by esterase’s in plasma

A

Septocaine/Articaine

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28
Q

Strongest anti-inflammatory steroid drugs

A

Dexamethasone

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29
Q

What drug has a high concentration in gingival/crevicular fluid

A

Tetracycline

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30
Q

What drug has a high concentration in bone

A

Clindamycin

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31
Q

Drug that can cause severe liver damage

A

Tetracycline

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32
Q

Drug known to cause nephrotoxicity & hypokalemia

A

Amphotericin B

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33
Q

Allergic cholestatic hepatitis is associated with

A

Erythromycin estolate

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34
Q

Drug that causes GI upset

A

Clindamycin & Erythromycin

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35
Q

Drug with SE: Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin & Cephalexin

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36
Q

Drug that can cause Aplastic Anemia

A

Chloramphenicol (bacteriostatic)

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37
Q

Tetracycline can be inactivated by

A

Milk & Antacids

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38
Q

Drug known to cause photosensitivity

A

Tetracycline

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39
Q

Drug effective against Gram + and Gram - bacteria

A

1st generation Cephalosporins

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40
Q

Drug that commonly interacts with Lidocaine and causes lidocaine to remain in circulation

A

Propranolol–compete for same enzyme in liver thus metabolism of lidocaine can be reduced

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41
Q

When broad spec. AB’s are given with _____ anticoagulant action increases due to reduction in vitamin K sources

A

Coumadin

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42
Q

Decreases the metabolism of Digoxin

A

Erythromycin

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43
Q

Blocks metabolism of Seldane (Terfenadine)(antihistamine) & can cause arrhythmia and death

A

Erythromycin

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44
Q

Prolongs effects of Penicillin

A

Probenecid

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45
Q

Tx of Trigeminal neuralgia (2)

A
  • Cabamazepine (anticonvulsant_

- Phenytoin

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46
Q

Oral contraceptives can cause

A

Thromboembolisms

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47
Q

Alcohol inhibits activity of

A

Cortex

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48
Q

Drugs that directly stimulate pancreatic Beta cells to secrete insulin

A

Sulfonyl ureas

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49
Q

Tx for Status Epilepticus

A

Diazepam

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50
Q

PT test evaluates

A

Warfarin (anticoagulant)
Liver Damage
Vitamin K

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51
Q

PTT is used to evaluate

A

Heparin (anticoagulant)

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52
Q

INR that is OK for surgery

A

1-1.5

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53
Q

Methotrexate is a

A

Antimetabolite

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54
Q

Longest acting Benzo

A

Oxazepam

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55
Q

LA’s antagonize acetylcholinesterase inhibitor’s in patients with

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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56
Q

Contraindicated in patients with Glaucoma

A

Atropine–may cause blurred vision due to mydriasis effect

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57
Q

Causes LEAST CNS depression and impairment of psychomotor skills of the anti anxiety drugs

A

Buspirone

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58
Q

Can cause auditory nerve deafness

A

Gentamycin

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59
Q

Less likely to cause xerostomia

A

Opioids

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60
Q

Drugs that may cause Hypokalemia

A

Thiazides

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61
Q

Sudden onset of impending doom is referred to as

A

Panic attack

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62
Q

Potent anti-TB drug

A

Isoniazid

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63
Q

Ethambutol is a

A

anti-TB drug

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64
Q

What drug can cause a neuromuscular junction blockade which can cause RESPIRATORY difficulty

A

Streptomycin

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65
Q

Penicillin derivative that cannot be given orally

A

Methicillin

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66
Q
  1. Effective against Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

2. Also used for Pseudomonas infection

A
  1. Cipro

2. Ticarcillin & Carbenicillin

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67
Q

Effective against most ANAEROBES

A

Clindamycin

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68
Q

If it has a quaternary ammonium group it is a:

A

Direct nicotinic stiumlator

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69
Q

Penicillin derivative that displays RENAL TUBULAR secretion

A

Benzylpenicillin (Pen VK)

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70
Q

AB for UTI

A

Nalidixic acid

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71
Q

Can cause kidney stones

A

Sulfa (Sulfamethoxaszole)

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72
Q

Good against penicillinase producing staph

A

Oxacillin

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73
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin

A

Moxalactam

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74
Q

Longest Half-life of Tetracycline drugs

A

Doxycycline

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75
Q

If Lidocaine caused seizure, use ____

A

Diazepam

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76
Q

Drug that helps acute leukemia in kids

A

Aminopterin

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77
Q

____ and MAO’s are Contraindicated

A

Demerol

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78
Q

Calcium counteracts ____

A

Fluoride

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79
Q

Vital tooth with open apex, what procedure

A

Apexogenesis

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80
Q

Non-vital tooth with open apex, what procedure

A

Apexification

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81
Q

Better prognosis: internal root resorption or external

A

Internal

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82
Q

Enamel rods at cervical of primary teeth are pointed ____

A

Occlusally

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83
Q

Zyban (for tobacco cessation) should NOT be taken with

A

Antidepressants

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84
Q

Brush biopsies are done for ____ diagnoses

A

Fungal

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85
Q

Tx for early hypothyroidism

A

ADH

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86
Q

Cancer of plasma cells

A

Multiple Myeloma

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87
Q

No Epi with MAO or

A

TCA antidepressants

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88
Q

Reduced # of ___ cells are seen in apthous ulcers

A

T-cells

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89
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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90
Q

Large tongue & delayed eruption are signs of

A

Hypothyroidism

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91
Q

Apthous ulcers are commonly seen in what syndrome

A

Bechet’s syndrome

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92
Q

Signs of Lichen Planus

A
  • 4 P’s: Purple, Polyhonal, Pruritic, Papules (all on skin)
  • Wickham striae
  • Does NOT wipe off
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93
Q
  1. Interproximal necrosis and pseudomembranous formation
  2. Sore bleeding gums
    - No loss of attachment
    - Odor, low grade fever, lymphadenopathy, malaise
A

ANUG

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94
Q
  1. Generalized around most teeth (systemic) with no plaque

2. Localized–severe destruction around mand/max 1st molars or mand/max anterior teeth with no plaque

A

Juvenile Periodontitis

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95
Q
  • Vital tooth
  • Acute pain
  • Thermal doesn’t usually affect it
  • Lateral percussion
A

Periodontal abscess

96
Q
  1. Localized–<30% of sites involved
  2. Generalized >30% of sites involved
    - Slight 1-2mm CAL
    - Moderate 3-4mm CAL
    - Severe > or = 5mm of CAL
A

Chronic Periodontitis

97
Q
  • Rapid
  • Otherwise healthy
  • Local–around puberty
  • Generalized–<30y.o.
A

Aggressive Periodontitis

98
Q

Fixed monthly payment paid by a carrier to a dentist based on number of patients assigned. Doesn’t matter how much care is delivered. What is this a part of?

A

D-HMO plan

99
Q

Test that measures the association between two categorical variables; used for the comparison of groups when the data are expressed as counts or proportions

A

Chi-square

100
Q

Relative Risk study

A

Cohort

101
Q

A general population is followed through time to see who develops the disease, and then the various exposure factors that affected the group are evaluated

A

Prospective Cohort Study

102
Q

Study used to evaluate the effect that a specific exposure has had on a population

A

Retrospective Cohort Study

103
Q

A study in which the health conditions in a group of people who are, or are assumed to be, a sample of a particular population (a cross-section) is assessed at “ONE TIME”

A

Cross-sectional study

104
Q

Odds ratio study

A

Case Control Study

105
Q

Clinical attachment level is measured from

A

CEJ to the BASE of the pocket

106
Q

Pocket depth is measured from

A

Gingival margin to base of pocket

107
Q

MC place to get hematoma from injection

A

PSA. Tx by digital pressure in mucobuccal fold, posterior and superiorly and apply ice extraorally

108
Q

MC to inject into artery or vein:

A

PSA

109
Q

Causes blurred vision, can kill you, use broad spectrum AB to beat it, caused usually by staph, can be from infra bony abscess in maxillary anterior region. Usually occurs in OPHTHALMIC VEIN

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

110
Q

Maxillary denture should extend to

A

Vibrating line

111
Q

Irrigation during implant placement is for

A

Cooling of the bone

112
Q

Preg. woman passes out in char, what do you do?

A

Roll her onto her left side

113
Q

Dens in dente MC

A

Max. Lateral

114
Q

Inhibits metabolism of folic acid, used for cancer tx

A

methotrexate

115
Q

High BP in preg. patient is sign of

A

Preeclampsia

116
Q

Menarche is important milestone because of:

A

Skeletal maturity

117
Q

Primate space on maxillary arch

A

between laterals and canines

118
Q

Primate space on mandibular arch

A

between canines and first molars

119
Q

ACC Anterior Reduction

A

1mm facial
1mm lingual
1.5 incisal

120
Q

PFM Anterior Reduction

A
  1. 5mm facial
  2. 5mm incisal
  3. 5mm lingual
121
Q

PFM Posterior Reduction

A

1.5mm facial
2mm occlusal
0.5mm lingual

122
Q

Porcelain Anterior Veneer Reduction

A

0.5mm facial

123
Q

Most cariogenic sugar

A

Sucrose

124
Q

MC bacteria in endo infected tooth

A 
Multiple anaerobes--Porphyromonas
Bacteriodes melaninogenica (also gram + actinomyces (root caries)).
125
Q

OSHA standard:

A

Bloodborne pathogens standard

126
Q

Toxic waste is capable of causing

A

Poisoning effect

127
Q

Organization responsible for MSDS

A

The Manufacturers

128
Q

When do most needle sticks occur?

A

Recapping

129
Q

Transdermal patch for motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

130
Q

LA that causes Methemoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine

131
Q

Causes shortness of breath, CYANOSIS, mental status change, headache, fatigue, exercise intolerance, dizziness, loss of consciousness. Blood is chocolate brown color

A

Methemoglobinemia

132
Q

Most important characteristic of Major Connector

A

Rigidity

133
Q

Most likely to cause Ankylosis of Condyle

A

RA

134
Q

Most important dimension of color for dental restorations

A

Value

135
Q

Decreased VDO results in increase of

A

Freeway space

136
Q

Tooth borne Kennedy mods

A

Class III & Class IV

137
Q

No mods occur in Kennedy Class

A

IV

138
Q

MM. involved in TMJ opening

A

Lateral pterygoid
Digastrics
Omohyoid

139
Q

MM. involved in TMJ closing

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial Pterygoid

140
Q

MC swelling of submandibular triangle tissues

A

Lymphadenopathy

141
Q

All H&N lymph eventually drains to

A

Deep cervical lymph nodes

142
Q

CN’s with parasympathetic capabilites:

A

3, 7, 9, 10, maybe 5

143
Q

Do NOT premed for

A

Mitral Prolapse (according to ADA website)

144
Q

Cleft palate/lip prevelance

A

1/700; Cleft Lip occurs more than Cleft Palate

145
Q

Drugs that increase insulin sensitivity at peripheral target sites

A
  • Metformin

- Pioglitazone

146
Q

Drugs that stimulate insulin release from pancreas and increase insulin sensitivity at peripheral target sites

A
  • Glyburide

- Chloropropamide

147
Q

Osteoporosis drugs (-dronates) that inhibit osteoclasts

A

Fosamax

148
Q

Most impacted tooth after 3rd molars

A

maxillary canine

149
Q

Most reversible neuro condition

A

Paresthesia

150
Q

What does the oil in the X-ray tube do

A

Dissipates heat and is used for cooling

151
Q

Avg. person greatest exposure to radiation

A

INHALED RADON 56%

152
Q

Type of bone defect that does not require grafting

A

3-wall narrow defect

153
Q

Xray for perio disease

A

BW

154
Q

How does radiation affect the body negatively

A

Free radicals–indirect effect

155
Q

Gauge of pulpotomy success based on:

A

Completed root development

156
Q

Sinus visualization best with:

A

Waters projection, MRI, or CT

157
Q

Risk factor for sickle cell anemia

A

Having a cold & Nitrous oxide

158
Q

Longitudinal study is a type of

A

Observational study

159
Q

Associated with osteogenesis imperfect, blue sclera, calcified roots & canals

A

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

160
Q
  • Oligodontia (6 or more missing teeth)
  • Lack of skin & hair
  • Heat intolerance
A

Ectodermal dysplasia

161
Q

Ideal fluoride levels

A

0.7-1.2ppm (depends on air temperature)

162
Q

Lateral periodontal cysts involve ____ teeth

A

Vital

163
Q

Antagonist for Benzo’s

A

Flumazenil (OD too)

164
Q

MC respiratory problem in office

A

COPD & asthma

165
Q

MC respiratory emergency in office

A

Hyperventilation & obstruction

166
Q

Healthy gingival sulcus contains:

A
  • Gram + facultative cocci & rods

- PMN’s

167
Q

Bacteria assoc. with root caries

A

Actinomyces viscous

168
Q

Reduces scatter radiation and amount of tissue irradiated

A

Collimater

169
Q

Disease involving pigmentation of mucosa

A

Addison’s

170
Q

Disease involving intestinal polyps and intraoral pigmentation

A

Peutz-jeghers

171
Q

When do you give AB’s for ANUG

A

only if SYSTEMIC symptoms present (metronidazole & tetracycline)

172
Q

Antral Y is the union of

A

Anterior wall of maxillary sinus with floor of nasal fossa

173
Q

Pregnant lady elevate what

A

Elevate right hip

174
Q

Chancre in syphilis appears similar to

A

SCC

175
Q

Chelator (removes smear layer) and removes inorganic material

A

EDTA

176
Q

Cross-linking agent in acrylic is a

A

Monomer

177
Q

Patients with CHF display

A

pedal edema (-prils used as meds, along with digoxin)

178
Q

Anterior crossbones are usually due to

A

skeletal issues

179
Q

V3 comes out of what foramen

A

Foramen ovale

180
Q

ANB greater than +2

A

Class 2

181
Q

ANB less than -2

A

Class 3

182
Q

ANB -2 or +2

A

Class 1

183
Q

Normal SNA (Maxillary)

A

82-Class 1

184
Q

SNA (Maxillary) greater than 82

A

Class 2

185
Q

SNA (Maxillary) <82

A

Class 3

186
Q

Normal SNB (mandibular)

A

80-Class 1

187
Q

SNB <80

A

Class 2

188
Q

SNB >80

A

Class 3

189
Q

Black woman, lower anteriors, vital teeth, progress to radiopaque

A

Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

190
Q

Most recurrent Cyst

A

OKC

191
Q

Best for re-tx on endo teeth that have post & core

A

Apicoectomy

192
Q

Worst place for implants

A

Upper posterior

193
Q

Best place for implants

A

Lower anterior

194
Q

Tx for Systemic candida

A

Fluconazole

195
Q

Dentist gives false information violates

A

Veracity

196
Q

MC heart defect in kids

A

Ventricular septal defect

197
Q

RMGI is a

A

compomer

198
Q

Fiber post advantage

A

similar to dentin

199
Q

Signs of hypoglycemia

A
  • rapid HR
  • confusion
  • blurred vision
  • pale skin
  • sweating
200
Q

Implants can lose ___mm of bone/yr

A

0.2mm

201
Q

Bleeding time is determined via

A

Platelet test

202
Q

Primary molar with necrotic pulp shows in the

A

Furcation

203
Q

ADA code of ethics does NOT include

A

licensure by credentials

204
Q

Tx for petit mal seizures

A

Ethosuxicimide

205
Q

MC soft tissue injury during ext

A

puncture

206
Q

Dentigerous cyst can transform into

A

ameloblastoma

207
Q

Curette angle for posterior SRP

A

45-90degrees

208
Q

1/3rd of root calcified at birth

A

Maxillary canine

209
Q

Diabetes Test:

-Normal Ha1c

A

Normal is 4-6

Diabetic if higher than 6.5

210
Q

Highest C-factor is in what type of restoration

A

Class 1 composite

211
Q

Flange too far lingual on mandibular denture, it is impinging on palatoglossal and

A

superior constrictor mm

212
Q

Plaster expands more or less than stone

A

more

213
Q

Metal oxide formation is necessary for

A

metal ceramic bond

214
Q

Porcelain adheres to metal by

A

chemical covalent bonds

215
Q

True negative of false positive (don’t have it)

A

Specificity

216
Q

Specificity is inversely proportional with

A

Sensitivity (has disease)

217
Q

Describes really large pulp chamber

A

Taurodontism

218
Q

Posterior corset with functional shift needs fixed how soon

A

asap

219
Q

Hemangioma are mc on

A

tongue, blood filled cells, blanches

220
Q

Hematoma is ___-like

A

bruise

221
Q

Angle formed by the non-working condyle and sagittal plane (laterotrusive movement)

A

Bennett angle

222
Q

Close reduction surgery does not involve

A

Soft tissue

223
Q

Prozac acts on ____ receptors

A

Serotonin

224
Q

Area where structures appear most sharply and clearly

A

Focal Trough

225
Q

Superior attachment of pterygomandibular raphe

A

Hamulus

226
Q

Tendon between buccinators and superior constrictor muscles

A

Pterygomandibular raphe

227
Q

Factors that influence image definition

A
  • Arch path
  • Velocity of the film & tube head
  • Alignment of X-ray beam
  • Collimeter width
228
Q

Sign of Fetal Alcohol syndrome

A

Small head

229
Q

“Failure to thrive” is descriptive of

A

Enamel hypoplasia

230
Q

Setting of alginate is a double decomposition between

A

Potassium Alginate and Calcium Sulfate

231
Q

Excessive on occlusal is usually caused by a discrepancy between

A

CR and CO

232
Q

How much alginate should be between bottom of tray and occlusal surface for alginate

A

0.25 inches

233
Q

Flux (e.g. borax) is added to metal surface to improve:

A
  • Flow of the solder
  • Dissolve oxides
  • Prevent contamination
234
Q

Flux is placed on the surface ____ they are heated

A

before

235
Q

Antiflux (graphite) is used to

A

Restrict flow of flux

236
Q

___ and sulfide interfere with bonding

A

Oxide

NBDE II (1 decks)

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