UIC 2015 Flashcards

0
Q

Lens capsule thickest?

A

Just anterior and posterior to equator

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1
Q

Dimensions of the lens?

A

9mm equatorially and 5mm a-p

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2
Q

Greatest mitotic activity of lens at?

A

Equatorial epithelial cells

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3
Q

Carbohydrate metabolism of lens is mostly?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

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4
Q

What % of peters get glaucoma? Are bilateral?

A

Glaucoma 50% and bilateral 80%

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5
Q

Most common type of congenital cataract?

A

Lamellar

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6
Q

Normal aging lens index of refraction does what?

A

Decrease from decreasing presence of insoluble proteins

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7
Q

Cause of snowflake cataracts?

A

Diabetes

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8
Q

Cataracts in downs?

A

Cerulean

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9
Q

When does A constant in Len equation increase?

A

More posterior placement of IOL

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10
Q

Indications for ICCE?

A

Poor zonule integrity

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11
Q

Which piggyback IOL leads to most inter lenticular opacification?

A

2 acrylic

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12
Q

CTR contraindications?

A

Radial capsular tears, PC rupture, zonular weakness progression

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13
Q

Duty cycle?

A

Amount of time phaco power is being delivered

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14
Q

Brown McLean?

A

Peripheral corneal edema with central guttata

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15
Q

Urretz-Zavalia?

A

Fixed dilated pupil with iris atrophy

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16
Q

Fabry’s enzyme and substance that accumulates?

A

Alpha galactosidase and ceramide trihexoside

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17
Q

How many SPCA and LPCA are there?

A

7 and 2

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18
Q

Height of tarsus?

A

11mm upper lid and 4mm lower lid

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19
Q

Nasociliary nerve innervates what?

A

Tip of nose, medial canthus, long ciliary nerves - cornea and cilia body, short ciliary nerves - globe sensation

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20
Q

Dorsal ophthalmic artery becomes?

A

Ophthalmic artery, temporal LPCA, spca, CRA

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21
Q

Ventral ophthalmic artery becomes?

A

Nasal LPCA

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22
Q

3 waves of cornea neural crest migration?

A

1 corneal endothelium
2 cornea stroma
3 iris stroma

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23
Q

Aqueous outflow?

A

AC, uveal mesh work, corneoscleral meshwork, juxtacanalicular tissue, schlemm canal, collector channels, aqueous veins, episcleral veins, superior orbital vein

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24
Q

What valve is blocked in congenital NLDO?

A

Hasner

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25
Q

What marker do orbital fibroblasts express uniquely?

A

CD40

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26
Q

What type of flow on Doppler do capillary hemangioma shows?

A

High flow

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27
Q

Management of adenoid cystic carcinomas?

A

Incisional biopsy, radical eye teraflop +/- radiation, intra-arterial cytotoxic time chemotherapy

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28
Q

Where is location of lymphoma with highest risk of systemic lymphoma?

A

Eyelid, then orbit, then conjunctiva

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29
Q

Craniosynostosis strabismus pattern?

A

V exotropia

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30
Q

Gene for Crouzon? Saethre-chotzen?

A

FGFR2 and TWIST

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31
Q

Tool for cultures? Viral?

A

Metal spatula or calcium alginate swab. Viral use Dacron swab

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32
Q

Iris finding in JXG?

A

Heterochromia

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33
Q

Eye findings in NF2?

A

Cataracts (PSC and wedge), retinal hamartoma, combined retina and RPE hamartoma, nevi, myelinated NFL

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34
Q

Systemic findings in tuberous?

A

Cardiac rhabdomyoma and renal angiomyolipoma

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35
Q

How does congenital nystagmus change with fixation and convergence?

A

Worsens with fixation and improves with convergence. Inverted OKN response, always horizontal uniplanar

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36
Q

What % of primary congenital glaucoma is bilateral?

A

2/3, more in males

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37
Q

Morning glory disc - at risk for? Associations? Testing?

A

Serous RD, Moyamoya and basal encephalocele, mri and mra

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38
Q

What is 1mm change by hirschberg in PD and degrees?

A

15PD and 7 degrees

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39
Q

What is inheritance of lowe? What % get glaucoma?

A

X recessive, 50-70%

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40
Q

ACA ratio?

A

PD+ (near deviation - distance deviation)/(diopters of accommodation)

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41
Q

Describe horner’s pharmacological testing

A

Cocaine fails to dilate horner’s pupil. Hydroxyamphetamine fails to dilate 3 horner’s pupil. Apraclonidine causes reversal of anisocoria in horner’s

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42
Q

What visual field defect does infarct of LGN cause?

A

Sectoranopia

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43
Q

What localized to temporal lobe?

A

Formed visual hallucinations, agnosia, proposagnosia (recognize faces)

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44
Q

What localizes to parietal lobe?

A

Simultagnosia, optic ataxia

45
Q

What localizes to frontal lobe?

A

Slow initiation of saccades, ocular motor apraxia, square wave jerks

46
Q

Majority of optic neuritis is where?

A

2/3 retrobulbar 1/3 optic disc swelling

47
Q

Main treatment for optic nerve meningioma?

A

Radiation

48
Q

Screen dominant optic atrophy for what?

A

Hearing loss

49
Q

Describe disc findings in Lebers

A

Vascular tortuosity, circumpapillary telangiectatic microangiopathy, disk pseudoedema (no leakage on FA)

50
Q

Each increase in VCD raises risk of glaucomatous change by how much?

A

32%

51
Q

Describe CCT effect on risk of developing POAG

A

Each 40 microns thinner leads to 81% increase in relative risk for developing POAG

52
Q

What % of population is steroid responders?

A

1/3

53
Q

Avoid pilocarpine in what glaucoma?

A

Uveitic (increases breakdown of blood aqueous barrier)

54
Q

Which beta blocker is selective?

A

Betaxolol

55
Q

Which beta blocker has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

A

Carteolol

56
Q

Which beta blocker is reported to be associated with iritis?

A

Metipranolol

57
Q

What factors five falsely high iop?

A

Thick cornea, too much fluorescein, ATR astigmatism, forceful lid eversion, tight collar or tie

58
Q

What factors give falsely lower IOP?

A

Thin corneas, LASIK, corneal edema, not enough fluorescein, WTR astigmatism

59
Q

Treatment of FHIC?

A

Steroids not effective, control pressure

60
Q

Angle recession associated with glaucoma in fellow eye?

A

Yes 50%

61
Q

What are risks for steroid induced glaucoma?

A

Family history of POAG, myopia, diabetes

62
Q

MOA of brimonidine?

A

Alpha 2 agonist

63
Q

Risks of mitomycin C?

A

Hypotony and Bleb leaks and infections

64
Q

What uveitic disease is associated with intra-iris hemorrhage?

A

HSV

65
Q

What lab is elevated in TINU?

A

Urinary beta 2 microglobulin

66
Q

What % of scleritis is necrotizing? Bilateral?

A

2/3 and 50%

67
Q

What toxo med should be avoided in pregnant or lactating women?

A

Pyrimethamine

68
Q

What factor is responsible for splitting eye field?

A

Sonic hedgehog

69
Q

RPE cells are what type?

A

Cuboidal

70
Q

When do rods and cones shed discs?

A

Rods at dawn and cones at dusk

71
Q

Light leads to what changes in RPE?

A

Drop in K in the subretinal space and hyper polarization of RPE (6mV, C wave of ERG)

72
Q

What is peak absorption of rhodopsin?

A

510nm green

73
Q

Where is highest concentration of rods?

A

20 degrees from fixation

74
Q

Which are light adapted responses on ERG?

A

Single flash cone response and 30 Hz flicker

75
Q

What do waves of ERG represent?

A

A photoreceptors
B bipolar and Müller cells
C RPE

76
Q

Multifocal erg tests what?

A

Central 25 degrees of fixation

77
Q

EOG tests what? What is abnormal?

A

Standing potential of RPE, light dark (Arden) ratio below 1.85 abnormal

78
Q

VEP measure primarily what?

A

Macular response

79
Q

What is wavelength of light used in PDT?

A

689 mm

80
Q

Where is the hemorrhage in valsalva retinopathy?

A

Sub-ILM space

81
Q

What is stage 4 sickle retinopathy?

A

Vitreous hemorrhage

82
Q

What refractive error increases risk of AMD?

A

Hyperopia

83
Q

Developmental precursors to retinal breaks?

A

Enclosed Ora bays, Meridional folds and complexes, cystic retinal tufts, zonular traction tufts

84
Q

Buckle indications?

A

Dialysis in young, absence of PVD, inferior breaks, phakic RD from atrophic holes in young myopes

85
Q

Vitrectomy indications?

A

PVR and vitreous hemorrhage

86
Q

Indications for pneumatic Retinopexy?

A

Breaks within superior 8 clock hours, break within 1 clock area, absence of PVR

87
Q

What is best indicator for progression to threshold ROP diseases?

A

Zone

88
Q

Gene for FEVR?

A

FZD4, 55% no family history

89
Q

What is wavelength of ROP laser?

A

810nm. Regular is 532nm

90
Q

What cytology suggests lymphoma?

A

IL-10/IL-6 > 1

91
Q

What is associated with SLK?

A

Thyroid disease

92
Q

Signs of limbal stem cell deficiency?

A

Recurrent epi defect, conjunctivalization, superficial Neovascularization, corneal ulcer and scarring, late staining fluorescein, loss of palisades of Vogt

93
Q

Causes of limbal stem cell deficiency?

A

Congenital - aniridia, ectodermal Dysplasia
Inflammatory - Pemphigoid, SJS, AKC, GVHD
Toxic - CL, SLK, MMC, injury

94
Q

Meesman - gene? Distribution? Pathology?

A

KRT3 (cytoskeletal proteins), limbus to limbus, peculiar substance in vesicles

95
Q

What is gene in Fuchs?

A

COL8A2

96
Q

Consider PK for Fuchs if endo counts and pachy are what?

A

Below 1000/mm2 or > 650 um

97
Q

Causes of Salzmann nodular degeneration?

A

Phlyctenules, IK, trachoma, CL, staph hypersensitivity

98
Q

When do SEI develop in EKC?

A

14-20 days

99
Q

What are contraindications to DALK?

A

Endothelial dysfunction - edema or posterior dystrophy
epithelial dysfunction - LSCD, chronic surface disease
severe Ectasias

100
Q

Best way to isolate rods?

A

Blue light

101
Q

What cellular reactions happen when light strikes a photoreceptor?

A

Decreased cGMP and closed sodium channel

102
Q

How many more times sensitive are rods vs cones?

A

1000 times

103
Q

What binds with opsin to make rodopsin?

A

11-cis-retinal

104
Q

Colorblind 20/200 va, normal retina, poor cone function on erg. What is Dx and inheritance and mutation?

A

Rod monochromatism (achromatopsia), AR, cGMP mutations

105
Q

Child with Reduced B wave on erg, nystagmus, poor vision, nyctalopia. Disease?

A

CSNB, will see macular carotenoids (unlike albinism)

106
Q

Acquired nyctalopia, reduced color vision, reduced b wave on erg. Rule out what?

A

Cancer (melanoma)

107
Q

What drugs can reduce b wave and give optic atrophy?

A

Methanol and quinine

108
Q

Which gene in LCA is in a clinical trial with promising results?

A

RPE65

109
Q

Bulls eye, optic pallor, bright ILM reflex?

A

Battens disease

110
Q

How to diagnose juvenile x-linked Retinoschisis? Treatment?

A

Reduced b wave on ERG, CAI drops