Udemy CASP Practice Exam 4 Flashcards
Jason is conducting an assessment of a network-enabled software platform that contains a published API. In reviewing the platform’s key management, he discovers that API keys are embedded in the application’s source code. Which of the following statements best describes the security flaw with this coding practice?
A. The embedded key may be discovered by an attacker who reverse engineers in the source code
B. It is difficult to control the permission levels for embedded keys
C. Key management is no longer required since the key is embedded in the source code
D. Changing the API key will require a corresponding software upgrade
A. The embedded key may be discovered by an attacker who reverse engineers in the source code
Explanation:
OBJ-1.3: A sophisticated adversary may discover the software’s embedded key through reverse engineering the source code. This inadvertent key disclosure could then allow an attacker to abuse the API in ways other than intended. Key management would still be required, even if the key is embedded in the source code. Permission levels of a software-embedded key are still controlled like any other key. While the added inconvenience of installing new software on the client side every time the key is changed would be inconvenient, this option does not address the underlying security issues with embedding API keys into the source code.
Dion Training has decided to install a web application firewall to mitigate the risk of a successful SQL injection occurring against their web server. What phase of the risk management lifecycle is Dion Training currently operating in?
A .Assess
B. Review
C. Identify
D. Control
D. Control
Explanation:
OBJ-4.1: This is the control phase. The identify phase is used to inventory assets and for the identification of all risk items in an organization. The assess phase is used to analyze identified risks to determine their associated level of risk before any mitigations or controls are implemented. The control phase is used to identify effective methods for risk reduction for identified risks in an organization. The review phase is used to periodically re-evaluate the risks in an organization by determining if the risk level has changed and identified controls are still effective.
A company has implemented the capability to send all log files to a centralized server by utilizing an encrypted TLS channel. Once received at the server, the log files are reviewed and analyzed by a cybersecurity analyst. A recently released exploit has caused the company’s encryption to become insecure. What would you do to mitigate or correct this vulnerability in the server’s implementation of this encrypted TLS channel?
A. Utilize SMTP for log file collection
B. Utilize an FTP server for log collection
C. Configure the firewall to block port 22
D. Install a security patch on the server
D. Install a security patch on the server
Explanation:
OBJ-3.7: Vulnerability patching is the process of checking your operating systems, software, applications, and network components for vulnerabilities that could allow a malicious user to access your system and cause damage, and then applying a security patch or reconfiguring the device to mitigate the vulnerabilities found. If there is a working exploit against the server’s encryption protocols, a technician must install a security patch to mitigate or correct this vulnerability. Both FTP and SMTP are considered insecure protocols and transmit data in plain text, therefore they would make the log files even more insecure by using these protocols. Port 22 is used by secure shell (SSH), which is encrypted by default. Blocking port 22 would prevent SSH from being used in the network and would not mitigate the vulnerability identified in this question.
Which of the following roles should coordinate communications with the media during an incident response?
A. Public Relations
B. Seenior leadership
C. Human resources
D. System administrators
A. Public Relations
Explanation:
OBJ-2.7: Public relations staff should be included in incident response teams to coordinate communications with the general public and the media to manage any negative publicity from a serious incident. Information about the incident should be released in a controlled way when appropriate through known press and external public relations agencies. Senior leadership should be focused on how the incident affects their departments or functional areas to make the best decisions. The senior leadership should not talk to the media without guidance from the public relations team. System administrators are part of the incident response team since they know the network’s normal baseline behavior and its system better than anyone else. System administrators should not talk to the media during an incident response. Human resources are part of the incident response team to appropriately contact any suspected insider threats and ensure no breaches of employment law or employment contracts are made.
Which of the following is the biggest advantage of using Agile software development?
A. Its inherent agility allows developers to maintain focus on the overall goals of the project
B. Reacts quickly to changing customer requirements since it allows all phases of software development to run inn parallel
C. Its structured and phase orineted approach ensures that customer requirements are rigorously defined before development begins
D. It can provude better, more secure and more efficient code
B. Reacts quickly to changing customer requirements since it allows all phases of software development to run inn parallel
Explanation:
OBJ-1.3: Agile development can react quickly to changing customer requirements since it allows all phases of software development to run in parallel instead of a linear or sequenced approach. Waterfall development, not agile development, is a structured and phase-oriented model. A frequent criticism is that the agile model can allow developers to lose focus on the project’s overall objective. Agile models do not necessarily produce better, more secure, or more efficient code than other methods.
Which of the following will an adversary do during the command and control phase of the Lockheed Martin kill chain? (SELECT TWO)
A. Release of malicious email
B. Create a point of presence by adding services, scheduled tasks or AutoRun keys
C. Utilize web, DNS and email protocols to conduct control of the target
D. Destroy systems
E. Open up a two way communication channel to an established infrastructure
F. Conduct internal reconnaissance of the target network
C. Utilize web, DNS and email protocols to conduct control of the target
E. Open up a two way communication channel to an established infrastructure
Explanation:
OBJ-2.1: During the command and control (C2) phase, the adversary is testing that they have control over any implants that have been installed. This can be conducted using the web, DNS, and email protocols to control the target and relies on an established two-way communication infrastructure to control the target system using remote access. Internal reconnaissance or destructive actions occur in the actions on objectives phase. The release of malicious emails occurs in the delivery phase.
Which of the following techniques would be the most appropriate solution to implementing a multi-factor authentication system?
A. Fingerprint and retinal scan
B. Smartcard and PIN
C. Password and security question
D. Username and password
B. Smartcard and PIN
Explanation:
OBJ-1.5: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) creates multiple security layers to help increase the confidence that the user requesting access is who they claim to be by requiring two distinct factors for authentication. These factors can be something you know (knowledge factor), something you have (possession factor), something you are (inheritance factor), something you do (action factor), or somewhere you are (location factor). By selecting a smartcard (something you have) and a PIN (something you know), you have implemented multi-factor authentication. Choosing a fingerprint and retinal scan would instead use only one factor (inheritance). Choosing a username, password, and security question would also be only using one factor (knowledge). For something to be considered multi-factor, you need items from at least two different authentication factor categories: knowledge, possession, inheritance, location, or action.
Your company hosts all of the company’s virtual servers internally in your data center. If a total failure or disaster occurs, the server images can be restored on a cloud provider and accessed through a VPN. Which of the following types of cloud services is your company using in this scenario?
A. Public IaaS
B. Hybrid SaaS
C. Community PaaS
D. Private SaaS
A. Public IaaS
Explanation:
OBJ-3.4: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Since the company is hosting all of its servers as virtual machines, they could quickly restore their datacenter capabilities by restoring the VM images to a public cloud IaaS solution and then connecting to them using a VPN. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.
During which phase of the incident response process does an organization assemble an incident response toolkit?
A. Preparation
B. Post-incident activity
C. Containment, eradication, and recovery
D. Detection and analysis
A. Preparation
Explanation:
OBJ-2.7: During the preparation phase, the incident response team conducts training, prepares their incident response kits, and researches threats and intelligence. During the detection and analysis phase, an organization focuses on monitoring and detecting any possible malicious events or attacks. During the containment, eradication, and recovery phase of an incident response, an analyst must preserve forensic and incident information for future needs, prevent future attacks or bring up an attacker on criminal charges. During the post-incident activity phase, the organization conducts after-action reports, creates lessons learned, and conducts follow-up actions to better prevent another incident from occurring.
Which protective feature is used to prevent a buffer overflow attack from specific applications by randomizing where a program’s components are run from in memory?
A. ASLR
B. DLP
C. DEP
D. DLL
A. ASLR
Explanation:
OBJ-3.2: ASLR randomizes where components of a running process (such as the base executable, APIs, and the heap) are placed in memory, which makes it more difficult to conduct a buffer overflow at specific points in the address space. The Windows Data Execution Prevention (DEP) feature protects processes against exploits that try to execute code from a writable memory area (stack/heap). Windows DEP prevents code from being run from a non-executable memory region. Data loss prevention (DLP) software detects potential data breaches/data ex-filtration transmissions and prevents them by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data while in use, in motion, and at rest. A dynamic link library (DLL) is a library that contains code and data that can be used by more than one program at the same time.
Dion Training is building a new web application that requires encryption capabilities. The development team needs to select a symmetric block encryption cipher that can support a block size of 64-bits and an effective encryption key size of 112-bits or 168-bits. Which of the following algorithms should the development team select?
A. 3DES
B. Salsa20
C. AES
D. ChaCha
A. 3DES
Explanation:
OBJ-3.6: Triple Digital Encryption Standard (3DES) was built as a temporary replacement for the older DES algorithm. 3DES utilizes 3 different 56-bit encryption keys in an encrypt-decrypt-encrypt workflow to effectively increase the security of the weaker DES algorithm. 3DES is a symmetric block encryption cipher and utilizes a 64-bit block size. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is the current standard for the U.S. federal government’s symmetric block encryption cipher. AES can use a key size of 128-bits, 192-bits, or 256-bits with a 128-bit block size. Salsa20 is a modern and efficient symmetric stream cipher that uses a 128-bit or 256-bit encryption key. Salsa20 is not used in many cryptographic implementations, but a variant of Salsa20 known as ChaCha is widely adopted by Google for use in Android devices and the Google Chrome browser. ChaCha is a variant of Salsa20 that is a modern and efficient symmetric stream cipher that uses a 128-bit or 256-bit encryption key. ChaCha is widely used in combination with the Poly1305 hashing algorithm in the TLS implementation of the Google Chrome browser and the Android operating system. ChaCha is also used by OpenSSH and the random number generator in BSD operating systems as a replacement to the older RC4 algorithm.
Dion Training wants to install a software agent on all of their workstations to collect system data and logs for analysis by their cybersecurity analysts. The software agent should also allow for early detection of threats and malware on the endpoint. When malicious activity is detected, the agent should allow for the containment of malware to the endpoint and help incident responders in the remediation of the endpoint to a safe and secure baseline. Which of the following endpoint security controls would BEST meet these requirements?
A. Host based intrusion detection system (HIDS)
B. Host based firewall
C. User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)
D. Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
D. Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
Explanation:
OBJ-3.2: Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a software agent that collects system data and logs for analysis by a monitoring system to provide early detection of threats. User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is a type of cybersecurity application or appliance that identifies anomalous or malicious behavior by using machine learning and statistical analysis to identify deviations from normally established baselines and patterns of activity. A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is a type of IDS that monitors a computer system for unexpected behavior or drastic changes to the system’s state. A host-based firewall is a firewall implemented as application software running on the host that provides sophisticated filtering of network traffic as well as block processes at the application level.
You are analyzing the vulnerability scanning results from a recent web vulnerability scan in preparation for the exploitation phase of an upcoming assessment. A portion of the scan results is shown below.
Which exploit is the website vulnerable to based on the results?
A. SQL Injection
B. Local File Inclusion
C. Session hijacking
D. Cookie manipulation
B. Local File Inclusion
Explanation:
OBJ-2.4: Based on the results, you can determine that this website is vulnerable to a file inclusion exploit. If you were able to decode the Base64 data in the vulnerability (which you are not expected to on the exam in real-time), you would see it references a local file like c:\wwwroot\image.jpg or similar. You could also use the process of elimination on this question by seeing no SQL or cookies displayed in the results.
Consider the following REGEX search string:
Which of the following strings would NOT be included in the output of this search?
A. 37.259.129.207
B. 205.255.255.001
C. 001.02.3.40
D. 1.2.3.4
A. 37.259.129.207
Explanation:
OBJ-2.2: The \b delimiter indicates that we are looking for whole words for the complete string. The REGEX is made up of four identical repeating strings, (25[0-5]|2[0-4][0-9]|[01]?[0-9][0-9]?).”. For now, let us refer to these octets, such as the ones used in internet protocol version 4 addresses. Each octet will allow the combination of 25[0-5] OR (|) 2[0-4][9-] OR numbers 00-99 is preceded by (?) a 0 or 1, or just a single number followed by a “.”. Since the period is treated as a special character in a REGEX operator, the escape character () is required to enable the symbol to act as a dot or period in the output. This sequence repeats four times, allowing for all variations of normal IP addresses to be entered for values 0-255. Since 259 is outside the range of 255, this is rejected. More specifically, character strings starting with 25 must end with a number between 0 and 5 (25[0-5]). Therefore, 259 would be rejected. Now, on exam day, if you received a question like this, you can try to figure out the pattern as explained above, or you can take the logical shortcut. The logical shortcut is to look at the answer first and see that they all look like IP addresses. Remember, grep and REGEX are used by a cybersecurity analyst to search logs for indicators of compromise (like an IP address), so don’t be afraid to take a logical guess if you need to conserve time during your exam. So, which one isn’t a valid IP address? Clearly, 37.259.129.107 is not a valid IP address, so if you had to guess as to what wouldn’t be an output of this complex-looking command, you should guess that one!
A cybersecurity analyst is working at a college that wants to increase its network’s security by implementing vulnerability scans of centrally managed workstations, student laptops, and faculty laptops. Any proposed solution must scale up and down as new students and faculty use the network. Additionally, the analyst wants to minimize the number of false positives to ensure accuracy in their results. The chosen solution must also be centrally managed through an enterprise console. Which of the following scanning topologies would be BEST able to meet these requirements?
A. Passive scanning engine located at the core of the network infrastructure
B . Combination of server based and agent based scanning engines
C. Active scanning engine installed on the enterprise console
D. Combination of cloud based and server based scanning engines
C. Active scanning engine installed on the enterprise console
Explanation:
OBJ-2.3: Since the college wants to ensure a centrally-managed enterprise console, an active scanning engine installed on the enterprise console would best meet these requirements. The college’s cybersecurity analysts could then perform scans on any devices connected to the network using the active scanning engine at the desired intervals. Agent-based scanning would be ineffective since the college cannot force the agents’ installation onto each of the personally owned devices brought in by the students or faculty. A cloud-based or server-based engine may be useful, but it won’t address the centrally-managed requirement. Passive scanning is less intrusive but is subject to a high number of false positives.
Cybersecurity analysts are experiencing some issues with their vulnerability scans aborting because the previous day’s scans are still running when the scanner attempts to start the current day’s scans. Which of the following recommendations is LEAST likely to resolve this issue?
A. Reduce the scope of the scans
B. Reduce the sensitivity of the scans
C. Add another vulnerability scanner
D .Reduce the frequency of scans
B. Reduce the sensitivity of the scans
Explanation:
OBJ-2.4: If the cybersecurity analyst were to reduce the scans’ sensitivity, it still would not decrease the time spent scanning the network and could alter the effectiveness of the results received. In this scenario, the scans, as currently scoped, are taking more than 24 hours to complete with the current resources. The analyst could reduce the scans’ scope, thereby scanning fewer systems or vulnerabilities signatures and taking less time to complete. Alternatively, the analyst could reduce the scans’ frequency by moving to a less frequent schedule, such as one scan every 48 hours or one scan per week. The final option would be to add additional vulnerability scanners to the process. This would allow the two scanners to work together to divide the workload and complete the task within the 24-hour scan frequency currently provided.
William would like to use full-disk encryption on his laptop. He is worried about slow performance, though, so he has requested that the laptop have an onboard hardware-based cryptographic processor. Based on this requirement, what should William ensure the laptop contains?
A. AES
B. PAM
C. FDE
D. TPM
D. TPM
Explanation:
OBJ-3.2: This question is asking if you know what each acronym means. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based cryptographic processing component that is a part of the motherboard. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) is a device that looks like a USB thumb drive and is used as a software key in cryptography. Full Disk Encryption (FDE) can be hardware or software-based. Therefore, it isn’t the right answer. The Advanced Encryption System (AES) is a cryptographic algorithm. Therefore, it isn’t a hardware solution.
Dion Training has just acquired Small Time Tutors and ordered an analysis to determine the sensitivity level of the data contained in their databases. In addition to determining the sensitivity of the data, the company also wants to determine exactly how they have collected, used, and maintained the data throughout its data lifecycle. Once this is fully identified, Dion Training intends to update the terms and conditions on their website to inform their customers and prevent any possible legal issues from any possible mishandling of the data. Based on the information provided, which of the following types of analysis is the team at Dion Training going to perform?
A. Gap analysis
B. Business impact analysis
C. Tradeoff analysis
D. Privacy impact analysis
D. Privacy impact analysis
Explanation:
OBJ-4.4: A privacy impact assessment is conducted by an organization for it to determine where its privacy data is stored and how that privacy data moves throughout an information system. It evaluates the impacts that may be realized by a compromise to the confidentiality, integrity, and/or availability of the data. A tradeoff analysis compares potential benefits to potential risks and determines a course of action based on adjusting factors that contribute to each area. A business impact analysis describes the collaborative effort to identify those systems and software that perform essential functions, meaning the organization cannot run without them. A gap analysis measures the difference between the current state and desired state to assess the scope of work included in a project. By measuring ALE, MTTR, MTBF, TCO, and other factors, the organization can identify how closely it is performing to the desired outcomes or requirements.
Review the network diagram provided. Which of the following ACL entries should be added to the firewall to allow only the system administrator’s computer (IT) to have SSH access to the FTP, Email, and Web servers in the DMZ?
(Note: The firewall in this network is using implicit deny to maintain a higher level of security. ACL entries are in the format of Source IP, Destination IP, Port Number, TCP/UDP, Allow/Deny.)
A. 172.16.1.0/24, 192.168.0.0/24, ANY, TCP, ALLOW
B. 192.168.0.3/24, 172.16.1.4, ANY, TCP, ALLOW
C. 192.168.0.0/24, 172.16.1.4, 22, TCP, ALLOW
D. 172.16.1.4,192.168.0.0/24, 22, TCP, ALLOW
D. 172.16.1.4,192.168.0.0/24, 22, TCP, ALLOW
Explanation:
OBJ-1.1: Since the scenario requires you to set up SSH access from the IT computer to all three servers in the DMZ, you will need to use a /24 subnet to set up the ACL rule correctly (or have 3 separate ACL entries). Since you can only select one in this example, you will have to use the /24 for the destination network. This means that the Source IP is 172.16.1.4 (IT computer), the Destination IP is 192.168.0.0/24 (the entire DMZ), the port is 22 for SSH and operates over TCP, and the condition is set to ALLOW.
What techniques are commonly used by port and vulnerability scanners to enumerate the services running on a target system?
A. Comparing response fingerprints and registry s canning
B. Banner grabbing and UDP response timing
C. Banner grabbing and comparing response fingerprints
D. Using the -O option in nmap and UDP response timing
C. Banner grabbing and comparing response fingerprints
Explanation:
OBJ-2.4: Service and version identification are often performed by conducting a banner grab or by checking responses for services to known fingerprints for those services. UDP response timing and other TCP/IP stack fingerprinting techniques are used to identify operating systems only. Using nmap -O will conduct an operating system fingerprint scan, but it will not identify the other services being run.
What type of scan will measure the size or distance of a person’s external features with a digital video camera?
A. Iris Scan
B. Retinal Scan
C. Facial Recognition Scan
D. Signature Kinetics Scan
C. Facial Recognition Scan
Explanation:
OBJ-1.5: A face recognition system is a computer application capable of identifying or verifying a person from a digital image or a video frame from a video source. One way to do this is by comparing selected facial features from the image and a face database. By measuring the external facial features, such as the distance between your eyes and nose, you can uniquely identify the user. A retinal scan is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retina blood vessels. Iris recognition or iris scanning is the process of using visible and near-infrared light to take a high-contrast photograph of a person’s iris. A signature kinetics scan measures a user’s action when signing their name and compares it against a known-good example or baseline.
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing the logs of a proxy server and saw the following URL, https://www.google.com/search?q=password+filetype%3Axls+site%3Adiontraining.com&pws=0&filter=p. Which of the following is true about the results of this search? (SELECT THREE)
A. Returns only MIcrosoft Excel spreadsheets
B. Returns only files hosted at diontraining.com
C. Personalization is turned off
D. Find sites related to diontraining.com
E. All search filters are deactivated
F. Excludes Microsoft Excel spreadsheets
A. Returns only MIcrosoft Excel spreadsheets
B. Returns only files hosted at diontraining.com
Explanation:
OBJ-2.2: The above example searches for files with the name “password” in them (q=password) and (+) have a filetype equal to xls (filetype%3Axls, %3A is the hex-code for ‘:’) and (+) limits the results to files hosted on diontraining.com (site%3Adiontraining.com) and (&) disables personalization (pws=0) and (&) deactivates the directory filtering function (filter=p). If you wanted to exclude Microsoft Excel spreadsheets, this would be done by typing -filetype%3Axls as part of the search query. To find related websites or pages, you would include the “related:” term to the query. To deactivate all filters from the search, the “filter=0” should be used. To deactivate the directory filtering function, the “filter=p” is used.
Your organization has recently been the target of a spearphishing campaign. You have identified the website associated with the link in the spearphishing emails and want to deny access to it. Which of the following techniques would be the MOST effective in this situation?
A. URL Filter
B. Quarantine
C. Application blocklist
D. Contiainment
A. URL Filter
Explanation:
OBJ-1.1: A URL filter can be used to block a website based on its website address or universal resource locator (URL). This is not a containment technique but a blocking and filtering technique. Quarantine would be used against an infected machine, and it would not be effective against trying to block access to a given website across the entire organization. An application blocklist is used to prevent an application from running, so this cannot be used to block a single malicious or suspicious website or URL.
Michelle has just finished installing a new database application on her server. She then proceeds to uninstall the sample configuration files, properly configure the application settings, and update the software to the latest version according to her company’s policy. What best describes the actions Michelle just took?
A. Input validation
B. Application hardening
C. Patch management
D. Vulnerability scanning
B. Application hardening
Explanation:
OBJ-3.2: Application hardening involves taking actions to best secure the application from attack. This involves removing any default or sample configurations, properly configuring settings, and updating the application to the latest and more secure version. Patch management is incorrect because only updating the software falls under patch management, not the configuration portions of her actions. Vulnerability scanning involves scanning a device for known vulnerabilities to update the device and prevent a future attack. Input validation is a technique to verify user-provided data meets the expected length and type before allowing a program to utilize it.