UCL I&D Flashcards

1
Q

Integrin molecules on the surface of neutrophils can bind to which molecule on the surface of blood vessel endothelium?

IL-8

IL-1ß

PAMP

ICAM-1

LPS

A

ICAM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of neutrophil migration to damaged tissue?

Activation, Adhesion, Rolling, Diapedesis

Rolling, Activation, Diapedesis, Adhesion

Rolling, Activation, Adhesion, Diapedesis

Activation, Rolling, Adhesion, Diapedesis

Rolling, Adhesion, Activation, Diapedesis

A

Rolling, Activation, Adhesion, Diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Regarding Interferon alpha and beta, what is the mechanism of their action against viral infections?

They attach directly to a virus, preventing it from entering cells

They stimulate cells surrounding a virus to produce proteins that prevent viral replication

They signal the innate immune system to respond to viral antigens with phagocytes

They bind to a cell that has been infected by a virus and prevent it from lysing

They bind to cells surrounding the virus to prevent transmission

A

They stimulate cells surrounding a virus to produce proteins that prevent viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why do NK cells attack host cells infected with a virus but do NOT attack host tumor cells?

NK cells recognise cells that are not displaying MHC Class I molecules. Host cells infected with a virus do not display MHC Class I while host tumors cells do

NK cells recognise cells that are not displaying MHC Class I molecules. Host cells infected with a virus display MHC Class I while host tumors cells do not

NK cells do not recognise cells that are proliferating

NK cells recognise viral antigens directly and have no way of recognising tumor cells

NK cells can only recognise cells nucleated cells and tumor cells are non-nucleated.

A

NK cells recognise cells that are not displaying MHC Class I molecules. Host cells infected with a virus do not display MHC Class I while host tumors cells do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is phosphatase activity that inhibits the NK cell activation response essential?

It allows NK cells to recognise cells that have been infected by a virus

It prepares NK cells to destroy a cell that is not displaying MHC Class I proteins on its surface

It allows NK cells to recognise non-nucleated cells

It prevents NK cells from responding to cells infected by a bacterium

It prevents NK cells from killing normal cells

A

It prevents NK cells from killing normal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a component of the lectin pathway of complement activation?

Factor B

Factor D

C1q

MASP-1

C3bBb3b

A

MASP-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which complement pathway is NOT correctly matched with its activators?

Alternative — microbial sugars

Classical — antibody antigen complexes

Classical — CRP

Lectin — microbial sugars

Alternative — microbial structures

A

Alternative — microbial sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In a patient, it was observed that macrophages are abundant but do not seem to be phagocytosing antigen efficiently. What complement factor may be deficient in this patient?

C3a

C5a

C4

C5b6789

C3b

A

C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If there is a massive increase in basophil and mast cell degranulation, which complement factors may be upregulated?

C5a, C5b6789

C3a, C5b6789

C3a, C5a

C3a, C3b

C3b, C5a

A

C3a, C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C3 convertase and C5 convertase are critically important to complement activation because…

They help activate lymphocytes that respond to antigens that activate complement

They mediate complement by halting converting active complement factors back to their inactive form

They stimulate degranulation of mast cells and basophils

They are responsible for the cleavage of C3 and C5, creating C3a/C3b and C5a/C5b — which are responsible for activating the bulk of the complement immune response

They are active early in the classical pathway of complement activation

A

They are responsible for the cleavage of C3 and C5, creating C3a/C3b and C5a/C5b — which are responsible for activating the bulk of the complement immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Two molecules which TLR4 is able to detect are?

Peptidoglycan and Advanced Glycation Endproducts

HMGB1 and LPS

LPS and Peptidoglycan

CpG and uric acid

N-acetylglucosamine and mannose

A

HMGB1 and LPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pattern Recognition Receptors ability to be both specific and broad based refers to?

The ability to recognise very specific structures that are common to large groups of organisms.

The ability to recognise host and pathogens.

The ability to recognise a variety of pathogens while being able to distinguish them from the host.

The ability to recognise a variety of organisms while identifying which ones are threats.

The ability to recognise both PAMPs and DAMPs from a variety of cells.

A

The ability to recognise very specific structures that are common to large groups of organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) can be present in all of the following forms EXCEPT…?

…cytosolic.

…as a cell surface molecule.

…as a secreted soluble receptor.

…nucleic.

…endosomal.

A

nucleic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the inflammasome?

Include the receptor NLRP3.

Recognises the presence of Uric Acid.

Recognises DAMPs from damaged cells.

Recognises viral single stranded RNA.

Is a cytosolic PRR.

A

Recognises viral single stranded RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following does not develop in the thymus?

Helper T cell

Cytotoxic T cell

Treg

T cell precursor

A

T cell precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

‘Double positive’ T-cells in the thymus express both…

An αβ and a γδ T-cell receptor

CD4 and CD8

A TCR and a BCR

MHC class I and MHC class II

CD3 and CD4

A

CD4 and CD8

17
Q

The first step in thymic education that occurs in the cortex of the thymus is…?

…positive selection: T cells that recognise self MHC undergo apoptosis.

…positive selection: assigning CD4 and CD8 molecules to T cells- making them double positive.

…negative selection: selecting out any T cells that are CD4 or CD8 negative.

…positive selection: T cells that can recognise self MHC are saved from apoptosis.

…negative selection: T cells that recognise self MHC undergo apoptosis.

A

…positive selection: T cells that can recognise self MHC are saved from apoptosis.

18
Q

Negative selection is important to ensure that…?

…mature T cells contain either CD4 or CD8.

…mature T cells recognise self MHC.

…mature T cells do not recognise autoantigen.

…mature T cells are double negative.

…mature T cells do not exhibit central tolerance.

A

…mature T cells do not recognise autoantigen.

19
Q

What is the main B cell zone of the lymph node?

Medulla

Medullary sinus

Capsule

Cortex

Paracortex

A

Cortex

20
Q

Where does the adaptive immune response become activated?

Bloodstream

Secondary lymphoid tissues

Thymus

Bone Marrow

Mucosal surfaces

A

Secondary lymphoid tissues

21
Q

Some metastatic cancer can invade lymph nodes. What vessel would be responsible for transporting the metastatic cells in the lymph into the lymph node?

Afferent lymphatic vessel

High endothelial venule

Efferent lymphatic vessel

Lymph node artery

Medullary sinus

A

Afferent lymphatic vessel

22
Q

In comparison to the primary immune response, the secondary immune response…?

…is less specific.

…involves B-cells but not T-cells.

…is of greater magnitude.

…is slower to be initiated.

…cannot generate memory cells.

A

…is of greater magnitude.

23
Q

Clonal selection allows the immune system to…?

…constantly produce antibodies to any antigen humans can encounter.

…produce a tailored response to a wide variety of prior exposed antigens.

…ensure that it recognises RBCs that are at risk for haemolysis

…respond to specific pathogens it has not encountered before.

…immediately respond to antigens that it encounters.

A

…produce a tailored response to a wide variety of prior exposed antigens.

24
Q

Which of the following are the two products of B cell differentiation and their CORRECT function?

Plasma cell — antibody secretion & Naïve B cell — antigen recognition.

Memory B cells — antibody secretion & Plasma cells — secondary immune response.

Plasma cell — antibody secretion & Monocytes — phagocytosis.

Memory B cells — secondary immune response & Dendritic cells — antigen presentation.

Plasma cell — antibody secretion & Memory B cells — secondary immune response.

A

Plasma cell — antibody secretion & Memory B cells — secondary immune response.

25
Q

Why are Memory B cells key in the human adaptive immune response?

They are responsible for mounting the secondary immune response, which is qualitatively and quantitatively superior to the primary immune response.

They ensure that B cell differentiation is efficient and rapid.

They recruit T cells to help respond to antigens.

They secrete cytokines which cause the naïve B cells to differentiate into a specific antigen target.

They secrete antibodies which are capable of binding the antigen they encounter and mounting a secondary immune response.

A

They are responsible for mounting the secondary immune response, which is qualitatively and quantitatively superior to the primary immune response.

26
Q

Which statement best describes dendritic cells in the lymph node?

They have CD80 molecules on their cell surface

They are highly phagocytic

They have mostly arrived directly from the blood circulation

They enter the lymph node via the efferent lymphatic vessels

They are specialised to present antigen to B-cells

A

They have CD80 molecules on their cell surface

27
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes dendritic cells?

They are present in secondary lymphoid tissues as naive, unactivated phagocytic cells

They are initially phagocytic but once activated switch to an antigen presentation mode

They never lose their ability to phagocytose antigens

They present antigens to B cells in the bloodstream

They are made in the thymus and mature in the bone marrow

A

They are initially phagocytic but once activated switch to an antigen presentation mode

28
Q

What is the correct sequence of migration of dendritic cells?

Thymus → blood → tissues → afferent lymphatics → lymph node

Bone marrow → blood → tissues → afferent lymphatics → lymph node

Blood → afferent lymphatics → lymph node → efferent lymphatics

Lymph node → efferent lymphatics → blood → tissues

Blood → lymph node → afferent lymphatics → tissues

A

Bone marrow → blood → tissues → afferent lymphatics → lymph node

29
Q

Which molecules are upregulated on the surface of a dendritic cell to convert it from phagocytic to antigen presenting?

MHC Class II, CD3 and CD5

MHC Class I, CD 80, CD86

MHC Class I, CD3 and CD5

MHC Class II, CD80

MHC Class II, CD80 and CD86

A

MHC Class II, CD80 and CD86

30
Q

Naive T-cells differentiate and become all of the following except?

Cytotoxic T cells

Memory T cells

Dendritic Cells

Helper T cells

Effector T cells

A

Dendritic Cells

31
Q

What is a ligand for CD80?

CD86

B7.1

B7.2

CD28

CD40

A

CD28

32
Q

Anergy refers to…

…inactivation of T cell during clonal differentiation.

…functional inactivation of T cells by APCs following costimulation.

…apoptosis of a T cell due after response to self antigen.

…downregulation of cytokines that produce a costimulatory response.

…functional inactivation of the T cell following stimulation of the antigen receptor only.

A

…functional inactivation of the T cell following stimulation of the antigen receptor only.

33
Q

Binding of CD40 to CD40 Ligand causes…?

…dendritic cells to upregulate expression of CD80 & CD86 and release cytokines.

…upregulation of CD40 in response to antigen.

…cytokine release from naive T cell.

…activation and differentiation of T cells.

…blockage of costimulation signals.

A

…dendritic cells to upregulate expression of CD80 & CD86 and release cytokines.

34
Q

Which of the following receives lymphocytes from efferent lymphatics migrating via the thoracic duct?

Blood

Afferent lymphatics

Lymph node

Spleen

Thymus

A

Blood

35
Q

What combination of cells need to interact in order to mount an adaptive immune response?

Dendritic cells, Memory T cells, and Memory B cells

Dendritic cells, Helper T cells, and Memory T cells

Dendritic cells, Memory T cells and B cells specific for same antigen

Dendritic cells, and Helper T cells and B cells specific for the same antigen

Dendritic cells, Helper T cells, and antibodies produced by Plasma cells

A

Dendritic cells, and Helper T cells and B cells specific for the same antigen

36
Q

In what cases might a B cell be activated without t lymphocyte activation?

A

When the antigen is large with repeating antigenic determinants e.g. LPS.