U13W3: TB Flashcards

1
Q

What is the legalities of informing a partner of a TB/HIV infection?

A

GMC
May discolse information to a person who is a close contact with a patient who has serious communicable disease if you have a reason to think that:
The person is at risk of infection that is likely to result in serious harm.
The patient has not informed them and cannot be persuaded to do so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the TB action plan for England?

A

Launched in July 2021 by UKHSA
To improve prevention, detection and control of TB in England.
This includes the new entrant LBTI testing programme, increasing resources for TB services and targeting intervention at at risk groups such as asylum seekers and the homeless.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most people with TB in Englands were….

A

born outside the UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the most common risk factors for UK born population with TB?

A

Social risk factors
Drug or alcohol misuse
History of imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What were the most common social risk factors for TB amongst non UK born population?

A

Homelessness
Asylum seeker status
Mental health conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are TB rates in the UK like?

A

Highest in regions in central London
Also high in the North West and West Midlands
TB incidence is increasing - additional 6.5% in London and up 23.8% in North East

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of bronchoalveolar lavage?

A

Sampling from deep within the respiratory ract including the alveoli
Normally done for patients unable to cough up sputum or when require analysis of deep lung conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the key symptomatic presentations of TB?

A

Persistent cough
Fever
Night sweats
Weight loss
Chest pain
Fatigue
Loss of appetite
Coughing up blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the basic idea of the tuberculin skin test?

A

INject a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) derived from TB bacteria into the skin of the foraem.
After 48-72 hours any resulting induration is measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the basic idea of the IGRA test for TB?

A

Interferon Gamma Release Assays measure the production of interferon-gamma by T cells in response to specific antigens present in Mtb.
Blood samples are collected and incubated with these antigens in the laboratory, and the amount of interferon-gamma produced is measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can the TST test lead to false positive results?

A

Due to cross reactivity with antigens from other mycobacteria or previous BCG vaccination
Sensitivity can also be affected by immunocompromised states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is the specificity and sensitivity of the IGRA test better than the TST test?

A

IGRA - more specific antigens for Mtb are used
More sensitive - as results are not influenced by previous BCG vaccination, less likely to be a false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What other terms are used to refer to the TST tesk for TB?

A

Mantoux test
PPD (purified protein derivative)
Heaf test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long does the IGRA and TST test take to get good results?

A

IGRA - few days for blood lab analysis
TST - 48 to 72 hrs - type 4 delayed hypersensitivity response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the different risk factors for TB?

A

Socioeconomic status - poverty, overcrowding, poor living conditions, malnutrition, lack of adequate healthcare and incarceration
Overall health/immune system: suppression, HIV co-infection, diabetes, TB within the last 2 years, transplant patients, malignancy
Alcoholism
Smoking
Drug users
Mental health (delay seeking care, mis doses)
Health care workers - exposure to category three organisms
Genetic predisposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does latent and extra pulmonary tb present different to active TB symptoms be?

A

Asymptomatic - particularly if latent
Extrapulmonary - symptoms specific to affected organs, e.g spine - back pain and spinal abnormalities, kidneys - flank pain and blood in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the pathophysiological process of TB?

A

Infection beings with phagocytosis of bacteria by alveolar macrophages triggered by various receptors
In phagosome is subject to various killing mechanisms (may be cleared)
Mtb reproduces exponentially inside the macrophage and the alveolar space. Tissue dies in the centre of the granuloma (caseous necrosis) forms a Ghon focus.
If not contained within granuloma may enter local lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy enlarged and inflammed) - Ghon complex
Bacteria proliferate inside amac and migrate from lungs via blood stream to other tissue (military TB). More extensive damage occurs including cavity formation in the lungs.
Ghon complex enters a state of latents, may health with calcification, this contains the infection (forming a Ranke Complex)
Granulomas that don’t heal still contain viable bacteria and can be activated particularly if patient becomes immunocompromised
These new lesions typically occur at the lung apices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are the granuloma features in latent and active TB tend to be different?

A

Latent - Ranke complex - calcification - indicates has healed, is inactive

Active - caseous necrosis (does not normally occur in latent as bacteria are inactive)

Ghon complex and ghon focus can be associated with initial stages of disease that may lead to active or latent disease. Differentiation is based on whether bacteria are replicating and if symptomatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What pathoplogical land mark indicates the intitial site of infection with TB?

A

The ghon focos - site of granulomatous inflammation
The ghon complex - indicates the regional lymph node involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some presentation of systemic miliary TB?

A

Meninges - meningitis
Adrenal gland - addisons disease
Kidneys - sterile pyuria
Liver - hepatitis
Joints and bone - arthiritis and osetomyletisis
Lumbar vertebrae - Potts disease
Cervical lymph nodes - lymphadenitis in neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is meant by pulmonary TB?

A

Infection starts in lungs
85% of cases
May spread to other parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is extra-pulmonary TB?

A

Generally non-contagious
15% of cases
Occurs more frequently in immunosuppressed individuals
Most common sites are - military, lymph nodes, peritoneal, Potts disease, meningitis, skin (lupus vulgaris), genitourinary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is meant by the Ghon Focus?

A

The primary lesion caused by mycobacterium Tb infection
Typically develops in the lung parenchyma, often in lower lobes, following inhalation of bacteria

24
Q

What is the Ghon complex?

A

Primary Ghon Focus along with associated lymph node involvement (usually hilar or medistinal)
Is a hallmark of primary TB infection
Often has enlarged lymph nodes

25
Q

What is a Ranke complex?

A

A ghon comples that has undergone calcification over time
Forms dense, calcified nodules/scars in lungs and lymph nodes.
Often visible on CXR and can serve as evidence for a prior tuberculosis infection.

26
Q

How can be differentiate between elimiated and laten TB infection via testing?

A

Innate immune response elimination only - all tests are negative
Adaptive response to eliminate - tests are identical as if latent
TST, IGRA both positive, Culture, sputum both negative
Always treat with preventative therapy is IGRA or TST positive just in case.

27
Q

What tests seems to differentiate between latent and active TB?

A

Active TB - sputum and culture will also be positive
Indicates person is infections and may have symptoms.

28
Q

What is the pathotphysiology of HIV?

A

Spread via bodily fluids - STI, needle stick injury etc
Infects CD4+ cells, also require co-factor CXCR4 and CCR5
Each bind to HIV attachment protein gp120 on lipid envelope.
Causes fusion with cell membrane, release content into host cytoplas,, capsid fuses releasing viral RNA and proteins
Protease - hydrolysed proteins bound in precurose proteins to create functional proteins
Rerverse transcriptase - creates pro-viral DNA from RNA
Pro-viral DNA enters the nucleus and is inserted into the host genome by integrase
Host machinery producers new viral RNA and uses to make viral proteins
Viral proteins move to cell surface and assemble to form new viral particles which are surrounded by part of the host cell membrane
Cleaves glycoprotein forming a mature virus.

29
Q

How do the receptors HIV requires for infection link to the tropism of the virus?

A

CD4+ on T helper cells, effector and memory, macrophages and dendritic cells
CCR5 - most common in initial infection - T cells, GALT, macrophages, and DC
CXCR4 - mainly only T memory cells (late stage infection)

30
Q

What is the link between drug compliance and HIV outcomes?

A

Must take 95%+ of prescribed doses to have optimal benefit
Less than increase risk of drug resistance strains, viral replication, infectious and progression to AIDs.

31
Q

When is a person with HIV no longer at risk of being infection?

A

Viral load below 200 copies/ml
For at least 6 months and continue to have good adherence.

32
Q

What TB drug is contraindicated with HIV drugs?

A

Rifampicin is contra-indicated with protease inhibitors
Contrainidcation on BNF listed include - efavirenz and TDF

33
Q

Who is the BCG vaccination given to?

A

Patiens with a negative TST test
Infants 0-12months - if parents/grandparents are born in country high in TB
Inflant 0-12 months - if in UK area with high TB
Healthcare/lab workers - direct contact with TB
Veterinary work with potential infectious animals
Travelling for more than 3 months to countries with high risk of MDR/TB incidence country.

34
Q

What liver tests may be done and why in patient with TB?HIV?

A

HIV - for risk of other blood born viruses such as hepatitis
TB - monitoring for hepatitis as adverse effect of drug
AST - 14to20 in men, 10 to 36 unit/L in women
ALT - 4 to 36U/L
Bilurbin - total less than 1.2mg/dL, conjugated less than 0.3mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase - 30-130 IU/L

35
Q

What are the ranges of CD4+ cell count seen normally and in HIV infection?

A

Below 500 per mm3 is abnormal (HIV)
Below 350 per mm3 indicates risk of more serious infections
Below 200 per mm3 indicates AIDs - serious opportunistic infections including pneumonia
Below 100 per mm3 - high risk of HIV wasting syndrome, concerns

36
Q

Why might creatinine and eGFR tests be done in a patient with TB and HIV?

A

To assess kidney function for medication dosing and monitor for extra-pulmonary spread of TB.
eGFR is norm 60 or higher
creatinine is norm - between 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL.

37
Q

Why is platelet count taken in TB/HIV patients?

A

Thrombocytopenia is a complication of HIV infection - either by immune-mediated destruction, decreased production due to effect of drug on progenitors.
Platelet count elevated can indicate infection such as TB
Isoniazid can also cause thrombocytopenia

38
Q

What serology tests may you want to do in a patient with HIV?

A

Hepatitis B and C
Measures levels of antigen and antibody against HepB and HepC, can be interpreted to indicate acute, chronic or resolved infection.

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?

A

Class - antibiotic
Chem - pro-drug converted into active form by bacterial KatG enzyme
Pharm:
Target: InhA inhibitor
Stops FAS-II pathway of fatty acid synthesis, inhibits mycolic acid production - bacteria loose waxy coating and become more sensitive to antibiotics
Risk of osmotic lysis
Clinical: Bactericidal against replicating mycobacteria, used in active, latent and prophylaxis TB treatment

40
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid?

A

Metabolised in liver so high risk of hepatoxtixicty or hepatitis - presents as malaise, fatigue, nasuea, vomiting, jaundice
Neuropathy - depletion of VitB6, loss of neuroprotective and neurodegenerative effects, can present with ataxia, muscle aches, muscle weakness and praesthesia.

Therefore requires LFT monitoring

41
Q

What is the MOA of pyridozine?

A

Class: vitamin B6 supplement, pro-drug
Pharm: metabolised in the liver into P5P, active VitB6, is a co-enzyme for amino-acid, neurotransmitter and hemoglobin synthesis
Physiology: tackles peripheral neuropathy by increasing dopamine and seratonin levels, amino acid synthesis helps to build up the myelin sheath
Increases neuronal connectivity to increase sensation and motor control
Clinical: used to treat isoniazid-induced neuropathy
Side effects at high dose - peripheral neuritis - tingline, burning or numbness from oversensitivity in hands/feet.

42
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

A

Class - antibiotic, semi-synthetic small molecule
Pharmacology - targets beta subunit of DNA dependent RNA polymerase, prevents transcription of mRNA
Physiology - inhibits gene expression, particularly damaging for respiration and metabolism, leads to cell death
Clinical: latent, active and prophylaxis of TB, broad spectrum.

43
Q

What are some of the side effects of rifampicin?

A

Common - nausea, vomitting, thrombocytopenia
Rifampicin induced discolouration - metabolised in liver, excreted in bile, enterophepatic circulation, combines with bile to form a red orange colour (skin, eyes, urine)

44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ethambutol?

A

Chem - small molecule antibiotic
Pharm - antagonist at L-arabinosyltransferase
Physio - inhibits arabinogalactan synthesis, reduced cell wall integrity and synthesis, prevents replication
Clinical - combination treatment for TB

45
Q

What are the side effects of ethambutol?

A

Hyperuricemia - gout
Nerve disorders
Visual impairements
Requries routein ophthalmological monitoring in children.

46
Q

What is the dose and length of treatment for active TB?

A

Norm 6 months treatment plan - rifampicin, isoniazid (pyridoxine) and pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months, then continue with pyrazinamide and ethambutol
Is CNS - 12 months total all else as above
May require alternative drug after susceptibility testing or renal impairment

47
Q

What is the dose and length of treatment for latent TB?

A

If younger than 35yrs and low risk of hepatotoxicity - offer 3 months isoniazid (with pyradoxine) and rifampicin
If taking HIV meds or meds after organ transplant risk of interaction with rifampicin offer 6 months isoniazid only.

48
Q

What is the mechanism of action of emtricatbaine?

A

Chem: Is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Are prodrugs, so is in vivo modified to an active form when phosphorylated.
Is a structural analogue of cytidine
Pharm: When reverse transcriptase is acting on RNA, NRTI can be inserted into the growing DNA chain competes with cytidine associated nucleotide, however, structural differences in the NRTI prevent further naturally occurring nucleotides from being inserted into the chain resulting in chain termination and inhibition of further action of reverse transcriptase
This inhibits pro-viral DNA production.

49
Q

What is the mechanism of action of efavirenz?

A

Chem - Is an non nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)
Are prodrugs, so is in vivo modified to an active form when phosphorylated inside target cell,
Is a synthetic purine derivative
Pharm - Reverse transcripatse inhibitor. Binds to non-catlytic site on reverse transcriptase and inhibits it
Physio - however, prevent further naturally occurring nucleotides from being inserted into the chain resulting in chain termination and inhibition of further action of reverse transcriptase
This inhibits pro-viral DNA production.
Clinical - HIV infection in combination with other antiretroviral drugs

50
Q

What are some common adverse effects of NNRTIs?

A

CNS disturbances - imparied concentration, vivid/abnormal dreams, insomnia, suicidal idealisation, nausea, vomiting
Lipodystrophy.

51
Q

What are some adverse effects of NRTIs?

A

headache, muscle weakness, arthralgia, fatigue, fever, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, depression, anxiety, insomnia, rhinitis, cough and phryngitis
Skin discolouration - hyperpigmentation of the palma and soles especially in African American patients

52
Q

What is the mechanism of Tenofovir-disporoxil fumarate?

A

Chem: Anti nucleotide RTI
Is a pro-drug and nucloetide analogue
Absorbed and converted into active form tenofovir a nucleotide analogue
Is biphosphrylated to tenofovir diphosphate (active metabolite chain terminated)
Direct binding competition with deoxyadenosine 5 triphosphate - integrated into the viral DAN chain - disrupts viral DNA chain. terminates preventing DNA synthesis,
Physio - cannot produce viral components, inhibits viral replication.
Clinical: Hepatitis B and HIV-1 infection

53
Q

What are some potential adverse effects of NtRTIs?

A

General - rash, diarrhoea, headache, depression, asthenia, nausea
Associated with severe lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis
Potentially nephrotoxic.

54
Q

What MDT may be involved in a TB case?

A

GP - initial detection
TB clinic - treatment and DOT
Public Health England - contact tracing
Radiologist - imaging scans at diagnosis
Microbiology - diagnosis and susceptibility testing.

55
Q

What is treatment supervision for TB?
Why is it done and for who?

A

DOT -directly observed therapt
Watch patients take medications daily by nominated supervisor of TB nurse specialist - ensure compliance.
Why? - reduce risk of resistance, spread and help finish treatment as quickly as possible
Who? - CDCP recommended all patients with TB disease including adolscents and children receive DOT.

56
Q

What is a TB clinic?
What is its role?

A

Help prevent, diagnose, treat and manage TB infections
Diagnosis - sputum, CXR and blood tests
Treatment - DOT for antibiotics
Contact tracing aid with PHE
Education and awareness in communities and familieies
Prevention programmes - BCG vaccination
MOnitoring and follow up - respiratory specialists or infectious disease specialists
Monitoring and follow up - regular test, monitor post treatment lung function.