U world questions Flashcards

1
Q

Patient presents with recent BMT with fever, dyspnea and dry cough. CT shows pulmonary nodule with ‘halo sign’ i upper lobe. Most likely Dx?

A

Aspergillosis

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2
Q

Patient from Missouri comes in with cough, fever and tiredness. On CXR you see hilar adenopathy and areas of pneumonitis. Whats the dx?

A

Histoplasmosis
more in mid-atlantic and central US
you can see chronic pulmonary histo or disseminated hiso in HIV pts

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3
Q

Patient comes in from Wisco and has not felt great recently. Complains of cough and likes to hike through woods and moutains. What form of mycosis could he have and where else would it present?

A

Blasto; may present in lung, skin, joints and prostate

endemic in north central and south central us

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4
Q

Patient comes in with 10 lb unintentional wt loss, fever, fatigue and dry cough with pleuritic chest pain. you notice nodules on both arms and erythema multiform on his lets. What could pt be suffering from?

A

Coccidiomycosis; more in southwest

common to have cutaneous findings like erythema multiform or nodosum and arthralgias

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5
Q

What congenital associations do we see with Rubella (German measels)
How does this present in adults vs children?

A

Congenital: sensorineural hearing loss, intellect disability, cardiac anomalies and cataracts
Children: low fever, conjuctivitis/corzya/cervical lymph and forschheimer spots with a more cephalocaudal spread of blanching maculopapular rash sparing palms and hands
Adults: same a kiddos; low fever with rash PLUS arthralgias

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6
Q

Patient comes in complaining of intermittent substernal chest pain, can’t swallow solids or liquids and lasts seconds to minutes. No change in wt with normal ECG and no past history of drug use. What could this be and what is the tx?

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm
see corckscrew pattern on esophagram.
First line is CCB like diltiazam

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7
Q

Patient that comes into clinic in the fall age 55 wonders about vaccines he needs. He is about to head on vacation and wants to make sure hes up to date. He had a Td booster at age 42 and is uncertain about his previous vaccintion hx. Recommendations?
What if he was diabetic?
What if he was asplenic/immunocompromised?

A
Give him Tdap as all adults over 19 should at some point have the Tdap in place of the Td booster and then Td every 10 yrs
he should get intramuscular influenza each fall
He does not need a pneumococcal vaccine yet till he hits 65 then will need the 13 followed by 23
If diabetic (or chronic condition) give him 23 alone prior to turning 65
if he has sever illness (asplenic or SSD, HIV) give 13 and 23
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8
Q

What symptoms are seen in pts with nasal polyps?

What conditions are associated with them?

A

Sxs: recurrent nasal discharge/congestion and food tasting bland. PE shows bilateral grey, glistening mucoid masses in cavities
Can be associated with Aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD); often seen with polyps

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9
Q

In a patient with bipolar mood disorder with mixed manic and depressive symptoms, what is an ideal maintence therapy to place him or her on?

A

Lithium OR valproate +
Second gen antipsychotic (like quetiapine)
**avoid antidepressants in maintence bc may cause mood destabalizations

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10
Q

If a patient is experiencing a miscarriage at about 10 weeks, when is it appropriate to manage this surgically (D and C) vs expectantly

A

Expectant if patient is stable and okay with it

Once patient is not stable (hGB

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11
Q
What happens to the following values in Fe defienct anemia
MCV
RDW
RBCs
Smear
Iron Studies
A
Fe deficient
MCV: decreased
RDW: increased
RBCs: Decreased
Smear: microcytosis with hypochromia
Iron studies: low Fe, low ferritin, elevated TBC
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12
Q
What happens to the following labs in thalessemias
MCW
RDW
RBCs
Peripheral smear
Serum Iron
A
Thallessemia
MCW: decreased
RDW: normal
RBCs: normal
smear: target cells
Iron studies: normal/elevated iron and ferritin
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13
Q

Most common causes of anion gap metabolic acidosis

A
Lactic acidosis
ketoacidodos 
Methanol/formaldehyde ingestion
ethylene glycol ingestion
salicylate poisoning (asa)
Uremia (pt with ESRD and impaired excreation of H+)
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14
Q

Friable papules or plaques seen in immunocompromised pts often associated with fever and systemic sx of mucosa or visceral organs

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

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15
Q

At what point do we see pneumocycstisis jiroveci in AIDS pts?
What do we use to prevent it?
once pt has it, what do we tx it with?

A

CD4

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16
Q

What parasite can cause leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and symptoms of fever, myalgia, AMS and malaise without rash in a human?
How do they get it?

A

Human monocytic ehrlichiosis from lone star tick in south east and south central US
*see intracytoplasmic morulae in monocytes and treat patients with Doxycyline while confirming!

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17
Q

70 yoM presents with altered consiousness, disorganized speech and visual hallucinations. PE shows increased LE tone with downgoing babinski. Dx and tx?

A

Lewy body dementia; alpha synuclein proteins; seenin substantia nigra, locus ceruleus, dorsal raphe.
Tx motor sx with acetycholinesterase inhibitors (rivastigmine) and possible atypical antipsychotics

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18
Q

how do nitrates cause relief in pts experiencing angina?

A

direct vascular smooth relaxation–> systemic venodilation with increase in peripheral capacitance. Systemic vasoD and decrease cardiac preload ultimately decrease LVED and ES volume thus REDUCE left ventricular systolic wall stress thus decrease O2 demand

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19
Q

36 weeker presents with moderate vaginal bleeding. PE shows firm and tender uterus, 2 cm dilated with baby in breech. Mom has diet controlled GDM and is a current smoker. What is likely going on with mom?
What complications is she at risk for?

A
Placental abruption (seperation of placenta from decidua)
RF: maternal HTN, preeclampsia, abdominal trauama, cocaine/tobacco use, prior abruption
Complications for mom: hypovolemic shock and DIC
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20
Q

What conditions are associated with umbilical hernias in newborns?
how do you manage an umbilical hernia 1.5 cm?

A

associated with AA race, premature birth, ehlers danlos, Beckwith Wiedemann, and hypothyroidism
most close by 5 yrs old otherwise operate
>1.5 cm then may need to operate

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21
Q

slowly progressive neurodegen disease; memory loss–> problems with lang/visuospatial

A

alzeihmers

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22
Q

Progressive personality change (disinhibition or personality change) with occiasional mood swings

A

FTD

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23
Q

Cognitive fluctuaitons, visual hallucinations, parkinsonisms

A

Lewy body

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24
Q

Initial ataxia–> followed by dementia and urinary incontinece and you will not see FNDs on exam

A

Normopressure hyrdo

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25
Q

Stepwise decline in function, early executive dysfunction with cerebral infarct in white or deep matter (lacunar infarct with RF of hypertension and hyperlipidemia)

A

Vascular dementia

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26
Q

What organisms are responsible for early onset prosthetic joint infection?

A

Staph aureus and pseudomonas

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27
Q

What organism is more responsible for a subacute presentation of delayed onset prosthetic joint infection?

A

Staphy epidermidis; need to remove prosthesis

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28
Q

bone cancer that causes unilateral limb pain, worse at night and responds to NSAIDS

A

osteoid osteoma (looks like a hole in a bone)

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29
Q

diastolc decresedo mumur begins immediately at A2 high pitched and blowing quality. best heard at LS border in 3rd and 4th intercostal space. Heard best when you have patient lean forward and hold breath in expiration

A

Aortic regurg

Causes: RHD, endocarditis, bicuspid valve, trauma, myxomatous, ankylosing spondylitis

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30
Q

wide, fixe split of second heart sound. hear ejection systolic murmur over the left second intercostal space

A

ASD

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31
Q

Presents with harsh crescendo-decresendo heard at apex of left sternal border. Valsalva and abrupt standing that decreases preload will increase intensity of murumr

A

HCM

32
Q

How do Class I antiarrhythmic drugs work?

A

block sodium chanels and inhibit initial depolarization phase of action potential

33
Q

What type of drug is flecainide?
What are it’s indications?
What is ‘use dependence’?

A

Class IC antiarrhythmic for tx atrial fib in pts with structurally normal hearts
If pt has faster HR, drug has less time to dissociate from sodium channels thus more are blocked; this decreases impulse conduction and WIDENS QRS COMPLEX

34
Q

What affect does metoprolol have on heart?

A

blocks Sympathetic activity, leads to decrease rate of impulse and increases refractory period of AV node with NO effect on QRS

35
Q

What part of conduction do CCBs affect?

A

(verapamil and diltiazam) will increase CC blockade with increased ventricular activation. Cause prolongation of refractory period of AV node thus INCREASE PR interval

36
Q

65 yoM presents with 2 mo hx of fatigue. On smear ther are mature appearing small lymphocytes and smudge cells

A

CLL

37
Q

24 yoF presents with 2 weeks of fatigue, malaise, muscle aches and arthralgias. Vitals are WNL except for spenomegaly. CBC notable for elevated lymphocytes. Smear shows large basophilic cells with vaculated appearance and a neg heterophile antibody test. Dx

A

CMV mono

38
Q

Patient presents at 2 am to ED with intense pain behind the left eye. vitals are normal, no hx of N/V or blurred vision. PE shows left sided ptosis and miosis. What is most likely dx?

A

Cluster headache!
present with severe retroorbital pain waking pt from sleep. See redness of ipsilateral eye with tearing, stuffed or runny nose and ipsilateral Horners syndrome

39
Q

What is the pathophys behind constrictive pericarditis?

A

inelastic pericardium inhiits venous return of rt hear during inspiration, thus we have right heart fail.
Sx: peripheral edema, ascites, hepatic congestion, hepatomegaly–> cirrohsis. See elevated JVP with prominent x and y descents and hepatojugular reflux and Kussmauls sign. Definitive tx is pericardiectomy

40
Q

enlargement or failure of right ventricle secondary to increased vascular resistance in the lungs (often from left heart disease or underlying pulm dx like COPD or OSA) or pulmonary hypertension

A

cor pulmonale

41
Q

Patient presents with exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, bibasilar rales, LE edema and normal ejection fraction on echo. What type of heart fail would they have and why?

A

HF with preserved ejection fraction or
HFpEF = Diastolic dysfunction; often due to hypterensive heart disease which can lead to LV hypertrophy.
Pts will have signs typical of heart fail with normal or near normal LVEF

42
Q

Explain diastolic dysfnx

A

from impaired myocardial relaxation or increased LV wall stiffness (less compliant)–> causes increased LV end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) which is transmitted to the left atrium and pulmonary veins and capillaries–> leads to pulm congestion, dyspnea and exercise intolerance

43
Q

What are health maintenance measures we provide children with SSD

A

vaccinations, penicillin until age 5, folic acid supplementation, hydroxyurea if recurrent vasooclusive events

44
Q

When should a pt with sickle cell receive a blood transfusion?

A

Acute stroke, acute chest syndrome, acute multiorgan fail or acute symptomatic anemia or aplastic crisis

45
Q

What three things need to happen with all pts with bleeding esophageal varicies?

A

need 2 large bore IVs
volume resuscitation
IV octreotide
then assess the situation

46
Q

Pt comes in w/ bleeding esophageal varice. You place two large bore IVs, start fluids and octreotide and start an endoscopic eval.
What do you do next?

A

sclerotherapy or band ligation
no rebleeds then Rx beta-blockers and then band ligation in 1–2 weeks
if recurrent hemorrage may need balloon tamponade and eventually TIPS

47
Q

What metabolic abnormalities are seen as a result of vomitting?

A

hypochloremia, hypokalemia and elevated bicarb

for every HCl lost in vomit or NG suction, one bicarb is reabsorbed as a result to replace it

48
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice to dx intussuseption? how do you tx it?

A

US of abdomen to dx

tx with air enema

49
Q

What are Sx of primary adrenal insufficiency and how would you dx it?!

A

Sx: fatigue, weight loss, GI symptoms. Aldosterone deficiency leads to volume depletion–> syncope or hypotension and most have hyponatremia from salt wasting
Dx; cosyntropin stim test with cortisol and ACTH levels

50
Q

How does placental abruption present differently than placenta previa?

A

both are bleeding often in 3rd trimester
Previa is often painless
abruption is PAINFUL

51
Q

The presence of a systolic-diastolic abdominal bruit in a pt with hypertension and atherosclerosis is strongly suggestive of:

A

renal artery stenosis

52
Q

patient presents with sudden onset of loss of vision with reduced visual acuity. On opthalmoscopy there is a loss of fundus details, floating debris and a red glow. Dx?

A

Vitreous hemorrhage

need immediate optho consult

53
Q

Patient presents with sudden, painless unilateral loss of vision in right eye. He has hx of asthma and hypertension. Opthalmascopic exam shows disk swelling, venous dilation and tortuosity with retinal hemorrhage and cotton wool spots. Dx?

A

Central vein occlusion

54
Q

What are upper motor neuron symptoms and what are they a sign of?

A

weakness without fasciculations, hyperreflexia and + babinski. Often isolated and symmpetric. May h ave loss of sensation

55
Q

What electrolyte disturbances do we see with refeeding syndrome?
Why?

A

Hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesium

d/t insulin surge causing cellular uptake of those electrolytes… can lead to arrythmias and cardiopulm fail

56
Q

pt presents with dysuria and increased urinary frequency with + nitrites and leuk esterase on urinalysis.

A

Acute cystitis

57
Q

Pt presents with hematuria. History of DM, HTN and hyperlipidemia. Urinalysis shows dysmorphic RBCs. Dx

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

see RBC casts or dysmorphic RBCs

58
Q

What does CMP and urinarlysis look like in acute interstitial nephritis present and who is at risk?

A

increased serum creatinine. Urinarlysis shows abundant white blood cells, often eosinophils but NOT gross hematuria
seen in patients with history of NSAID or acetaminophen use, may have rash on presentation

59
Q

Patients with sickle cell trait my have gross hematuria due to?

A

Papillary necrosis; will be painless and mild with intact RBCs on urinalysis
increased UTIs, and renal medullary cancer

60
Q

Pt presents with bouts of N/V. On PE she has hyperactive bowel sounds and imaging shows air in the biliary tree with dialated loops of small bowel. Hx is significant for diverticulitis, MVP, HTN, gallstones and constipation. Dx?

A

MBO 2/2 to gall stone ileus. stone passed thorugh biliary enteric fistula into small bowel–> end up with tumbling obstruction and diffuse abdominal pain until it lodges in ileum. Pts feel distended, colicky pain.

61
Q

What is the cutoff value for TB induration in normal healthy RF free individual?

A

15 mm induration

62
Q

What would you do for tx in patient with active signs of TB

A

4 drug RIPE combo for 8 weeks then continuation phase with isoniazid and rifampin for additional 4 months; total of 6 month therapy

63
Q

What do you do for tx for patient with latent TB?

A

treatment of 9 months with isoniazid and pryidoxinde supplement bc depleate B12 OR
once weekly INH and rifapentine

64
Q

Risk factors for C.diff

A

prolonged use of PPIs or H2 receptor antagonist, comorbid illness (ESRD or dialysis), recent antibiotics

65
Q

Pt with poorly controlled DM and HTN present to the office, have trouble eating recently. Neg for sore throat, c/p, cough. States she’s had discharge from the left ear. PE shows facial asymmetry and granulations in left ear canal. Likely dx and cause?

A

malignant otitis externa

causative organism: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

66
Q

How can you tell difference between primary hyperparathyroidism and familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia?

A

BOTH present with elevated serum calcium and BOTH have high or high/normal PTH levels.
In FHH you will see DECREASED urine calcium/creatinine clearance ratio (

67
Q

How can you tell methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning apart as they both cause AG metabolic acidosis, stupor, epigastric pain and vomitting?

A

Methanol = eye issues (optic disc hyperemia)

Ethylene glycol = kidney issues!

68
Q

Lights criteria for exudative effusion

A

Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH upper 2/3 limit of normal

69
Q

What do we see on thoracentesis for PNA

A

EXUDATIVE, LOW pH

70
Q

What do we see on thora from effusion d/t PE

A

exudative, and possibly bloody but don’t see low pH or low glucose

71
Q

What do we see in thora from effusion due to heart fail or hypoalbuminemia?

A

Transudative, often bilateral and pH and glucose of fluid are usually normal

72
Q

What does it mean when you see late D cells or nadir of deceleration occuring after peak contraction on fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

73
Q

What can cause variable D cells in fetal heart rate tracing? so not associated with CTX

A

cord compression
oligohydramnios
cord prolapse

74
Q
What do the following levels look like in kiddo with rickets (Vit D deficiency)
Calcium
Phosphorus
Alk Phos
PTH
25-OH Vit D
A
Calcium: normal to low
Phosphorous: normal to low
Alk Phos: ELEVATED
PTH: ELEVATED
25-OH: low
75
Q

All patients with tachyarrythmias that are hemodynamically unstable require

A

immediate synchronized direct cardioversion d/t risk of rapid deterioration