U 5 Flashcards

0
Q

Steps of tissue prep

A

Fixation
Sectioning
Staining

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1
Q

Four basic types of tissue

A

Epithelial
Connective
Muscular
Nervous

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2
Q

A matrix formed by the basal lamina and reticular lamina

A

Basement membrane

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3
Q

Single layer of stem cells in the layers of the epidermis

A

Stratum basale

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4
Q

Mitotically active prickle cell layer

A

Stratum spinosum

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5
Q

Non proliferating cells with stained granules

A

Stratum granulosum

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6
Q

In cross section: a transparent layer seen only on thick skin

A

Stratum lucidum

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7
Q

Keratinized cell ‘ghosts’

A

Stratum corneum

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8
Q

Micovilli covered surface of simple cuboidal epithelium and simple columnar epithelium. Especially in small intestine and kidney

A

Brush boarder (or striated boarder)

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9
Q

Stains cytoplasm, cytoplasmic filaments, collagen fibers, and basement membrane

Objects stained are “acidophilic”

A

Eosin dye

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10
Q

Stains heterchromatin, nucleolus, the rough ER and sulfonated GAGs

Objects stained are said to be basophilic

A

Hematoxylin dye

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11
Q

Proliferation of cells that may result in the gross enlargement of an organ

A

Hyperplasia

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12
Q

Functions of skin

A
Barrier
Sensory
Immune 
Homeostasis
Endocrine and exocrine
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13
Q

These dendritic cells take up an process microbial antigens and present them during a skin infection
Skin associated lymphoid tissue

A

Langerhans cells

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14
Q

Oval receptor cells found in the skin that synapse with somatosensory afferents
Mainly Found in stratum basale

A

Merkel cells

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15
Q

Pink dye

A

Eosin

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16
Q

Blue dye

A

Hematoxylin

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17
Q

Longer than typical microvilli

Common in male reproductive system

A

Stereocilia

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18
Q

Microvilli covered surface of simple cuboidal + columnar epithelium

Common in intestines

A

Striated boarder

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19
Q

(Microvilli/cilia) are tail like projections that can be motile or non-motile

A

Cilia are small tail like projections

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20
Q

(Microvilli/cilia) are cell membrane protrusions that increase surface are

A

Microvilli are larger cell membrane protrusions

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21
Q

Increase in the number of cells or proliferation of cells

A

Hyperplasia

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22
Q

The increase in the volume of an organ or tissue due to the enlargement of its component cells

A

Hypertrophy

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23
Q

Two characteristics that make thick skin distinguished from thin skin

A

Striatum lucidum and thick stratum corneum (keratinized layer)

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24
Q

Abnormal replacement of one type of tissue with a different type

A

Metaplasia

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25
Q

Keratohyaline granules are synthesized in the (basal layer/spinous layer)

A

Spinous layer

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26
Q

Dense, non membrane bound masses of filaggrin and other proteins

A

Keratohyaline granules

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27
Q

Melanocytes are located in the (stratum basale/stratum spinosum)

A

Stratum basal

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28
Q

Three types of cartilage

A

Hyaline
Fibrocartilage
Elastic

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29
Q

Consequences of avascular cartilage

A

Size limitation
Low metabolic rate
Poor potential for repair
Treatment with systemic drugs difficult

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30
Q

Neuro vascular canals that run parallel to the long axis of a bone

A

Haversion canals

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31
Q

Connective tissue develops from embryonic mesoderm and, in the head, from the neural crest migration of ______ cells

A

Mesenchymal

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32
Q

Glandular simple columnar epithelial cell who’s function is to produce gel forming mucins, the major component of mucus

A

Goblet cell

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33
Q

Simple columnar epithelial cells found in the small intestine, Colin and appendix

A

Enterocytes

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34
Q

Layer of skin between the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue

A

Dermis

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35
Q

Synthesize the ECM including connective tissue fibers

A

Fibroblasts

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36
Q

Three types of (protein) fibers of the ECM

A

Reticular
Elastic
Collagen

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37
Q

Four types of resident cells

A
Mesenchymal
Reticular cells
Adipocyte
Fibroblasts 
(fibrocytes)
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38
Q

Most common connective tissue cell

A

Fibroblasts

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39
Q

Most easily identified when tissue is stained with trypan blue while animal is alive

A

Macrophage

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40
Q

Leave bone marrow as B lymphocytes, then differentiate as _______ commonly in lymph nodes

A

Plasma cells

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41
Q

Have granules containing heparin, chomdroitin sulfate, and histamine.
Known for their role in allergy and anaphylaxis

A

Mast cells

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42
Q

Cells often found around venules

A

Mast cells

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43
Q

Primary producers of circulating antibodies (immunoglobulin)

A

Plasma cells

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44
Q

_____ fiber allows stretch and recoil of blood vessels

A

Elastic

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45
Q

Composed of type III collagen

A

Reticular fibers

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46
Q

Composed of type I collagen

A

Collagen fibers

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47
Q

_____ fibers create flexible networks in lymph nodes, the liver, red bone marrow and spleen.

A

Reticular fiber

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48
Q

Three basic components of all connective tissue

A

Cells
Fibers
Ground substance

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49
Q

Transparent, colorless mixture that binds cells to connective tissue. Made of glycosaminoglycans (GAG)

A

Ground Substance

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50
Q

Connective tissue in the body is derived from which embryonic germ layer

A

Mesoderm

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51
Q

Connective tissue of the head is derived from which embryonic cells

A

Neural crest

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52
Q

Ehlers-Danlos type IV disease associated with type ____ collagen in _____ fibers

A

Type III collagen

Reticular Fibers

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53
Q

Mutations in the fibrillin gene results in ______ where patients are at risk for aortic rupture and hyper mobile joints

A

Marfan’s syndrome

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54
Q

_____ fibers stain black with silver

A

Reticular

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55
Q

Principle GAGs in cartilage

A

Chondroitin 4-sulfate
Chondroitin 6-sulfate
Keratan sulfate

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56
Q

GAG + core protein = ?

A

Proteoglycans

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57
Q

Cartilage at AC joints, costal, nose, larynx, trachea, bronchi, epiphyseal plate

A

Hyaline Cartilage

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58
Q

Cartilage at intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, menisci, some tendons, menisci of knee joint

A

Fibrocartilage

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59
Q

Cartilage of external ear, epiglottis, Eustachian tube, several laryngeal cartilages.

A

Elastic cartilage

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60
Q

Chondrocytes deep in the cartilage in groups of up to 8 that originate from a single chondrocyte

A

Isogenous aggregate

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61
Q

Consists of collagen type I and fibroblasts and surrounds bones

A

Perichondrium

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62
Q

In the Perichondrium the outer layer contains ______ cells while the inner layer contains _______ cells

A

Fibrocytes

Chondrocytes

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63
Q

The Perichondrium consists of an outer _____ layer and an inner ______ layer

A

Outer fibrous layer

Inner chondrogenic layer

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64
Q

______ cartilage stains specifically with orcein dyes

A

Elastic cartilage

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65
Q

_____ cartilage is at the menisci of the knee joint

A

Fibrocartilage

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66
Q

______ cartilage is most susceptible to calcification, which is common during aging

A

Hyaline

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67
Q

Most of the cartilage of Fibrocartilage is type _____

A

Type 1

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68
Q

Spongy bone is often called _____ or ______

A

Cancellous or trabecular bone

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69
Q

Compact bone is sometimes called _____ bone

A

Cortical bone

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70
Q

Both chondrocyte and osteocytes reside in spaces in the matrix called ______

A

Lacunae

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71
Q

70 percent of bone consists of ______, a _____ phosphate mineral

A

Hydroxyapatite, a calcium phosphate

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72
Q

_____ bone has no Haversian canals

A

Spongy, cancellous, trabecular

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73
Q

Osteocytes of spongy bone is (identical/different) from those of compact bone

A

Identical

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74
Q

Bone ______ are microscopic canals between the lacunae of ossified bone

A

Canaliculi

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75
Q

The _____ of osteocytes extend into the Canaliculi

A

Processes

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76
Q

(Spongy/compact) bone is more responsive to changes in load than (Spongy/compact) bone.

A

(Spongy) bone is more responsive to changes in load than (compact) bone.

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77
Q

The _____ of osteocytes function as the mechanotransducers of local strain in bone

A

processes

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78
Q

Osteocytes exchanges nutrients and waste at ____ junctions

A

Gap junctions

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79
Q

The structural unit of compact bone is called an _______

A

Osteon

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80
Q

The rounded end of a long bone is called an _______

A

Epiphysis

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81
Q

Cylindrical units that run parallel to the long axis of compact bone

A

Haversian canals

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82
Q

(Haversian/volkman’s) canals run at oblique angles to the long axis of bone

A

Volkman’s

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83
Q

_____ covers the internal surface of bones

A

Endosteum

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84
Q

The middle portion of a long bone is called the

A

Diaphysis

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85
Q

Most bone is organized as _____ bone characterized by multiple layers of calcified matrix

A

Lamellar

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86
Q

In each lamella, ______ fibers are aligned in parallel, with the pitch of the fibers orientation shifting orthogonally with each successive lamellae

A

Type 1 collagen fibers

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87
Q

The process by which bone is constantly being broken down and replaced

A

Remodeling (or functional adaptation)

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88
Q

During bone resorption, osteoclasts form a special ______ that facilitates the removal of bone

A

Ruffled boarder

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89
Q

Types of bone cells:
_____ are star shaped cells that live in bones
_____ make bone
_____ reabsorb bone

A

Osteocytes
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts

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90
Q

Osteoclasts have (eosinophilic/basophilic) cytoplasm rich in mitochondria and lysosomes

A

Eosinophilic

91
Q

An inherited disorder characterized by dense, heavy bones

A

Osteopetrosus

92
Q

When bone resorption exceeds bone formation, especially with a fall in estrogen at menopause

A

Osteoporosis

93
Q

An congenital disorder Where osteoblasts produce insufficient type 1 collagen leading to bone fragility

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)

94
Q

Insufficient dietary calcium or failure to produce vitamin D that prevents normal bone calcification

A

Rickets

95
Q

Which bone cell is completely surrounded by extra cellular matrix?

A

Osteocytes

96
Q

An unique non-sulfonated GAG that is a chief component of the ECM
Proteoglycans aggregate bind to it

A

Hyaluronic acid (hyaluron)

97
Q

Muscles innervated by cerebrospinal nerves

A

Skeletal muscles

98
Q

These muscles contain bubbles of long multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Contractions: quick + forceful and under voluntary control

A

Skeletal muscle

99
Q

Fusiform muscle cells that lack striations and have slow involuntary contractions (cardiac, skeletal or smooth?)

A

Smooth muscle

100
Q

The cytoplasm of a muscle cell is called ______ and the smooth ER is called the ______ reticulum

A

Sarcoplasm

Sarcoplasmic

101
Q

Extends from z disc to z disc

A

Sarcomere

102
Q

In muscle the dark bands are called ____ bands

A

A-bands

103
Q

The Sarcoplasmic reticulum is specialized for _____ sequestration

A

Ca2+

104
Q

In muscle, the light bands are called _____

A

I-bands

105
Q

In muscles, ______ serve as “electrical synapses” providing ionic continuity between cells.

A

Gap junctions

106
Q

The source of muscular regeneration is the sparse population of Mesenchymal _______ cells

A

Satellite cells (myosatellite cells)

107
Q

Smooth and cardiac muscle have ___ nuclei per cell while skeletal muscles have ______

A

One

Many

108
Q

These muscle fibers are small, high in myoglobin, have numerous mitochondria, fatigue resistant, do ox-phos and contract slowly (posture)

A

Red fibers (type I)

109
Q

These fibers have a large diameter, low myoglobin, few mitochondria, readily fatigue, do anaerobic glycolysis and contract rapidly

A

White fibers (type IIB)

110
Q

These muscle fibers are intermediate and fatigue resistant

A

Intermediate fibers (type IIA)

111
Q

The cell membrane of a striated muscle cell is called the ______

A

Sarcolemma

112
Q

The Sarcoplasm of a muscle cells is (basophilic/eosinophilic)

A

Eosinophilic (acidophilic)

113
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle

A

Epimysium

114
Q

Loose connective tissue dividing muscle into fascicles

A

Perimysium

115
Q

Reticular fibers that surround individual muscle fibers

A

Endomysium

116
Q

A gigantic muscle protein
Extends from M line to Z disc
Attach thick filaments to Z disc
A passive elastic element

A

A Titin

117
Q

Three main neuron shapes

A

Bipolar
Multipolar
Psuedounipolar

118
Q

The place where one Schwann cell is adjacent to another Schwann cells is a node ______

A

Of Ranvier

119
Q

A small pocket of cytoplasm left behind during the Schwann cell myelination process (chevron shaped)

A

Schmidt-lanterman cleft (a myelin incisure)

120
Q

This group of nervous cells have a large nuclei and function to synchronize construction for parastalsis

A

Auerbach’s plexus

121
Q

Stellate cells the surround capillaries and some post-capillary venules. They share the basal lamina with endothelial cells

A

Pericytes

122
Q

The processes of osteocytes extend into the ______ where the share a gap junction with the next osteocyte

A

Canaliculi

123
Q

The outermost layer of tunica composed of fibroblasts and type i collagen

A

Tunica Adventitia

124
Q

A small network of blood vessels that supply the walls of larger blood vessels

A

Vasa Vasorum

125
Q

What is a node of Ranvier?

A

Gaps between myelin sheaths

126
Q

Muscle Red Fibers are Type ___

A

I

127
Q

Muscle White Fibers are Type ___

A

IIB

128
Q

Intermediate Fibers are Type ___

A

IIA

129
Q

Cardiac Muscle is innervate by ____

A

The Autonomic Nervous System

130
Q

In which type of muscle are the nuclei located at the periphery of the fibers?

A

Skeletal Muscle

131
Q

In which type of muscle do fibers branch and anastomose?

A

Cardiac

132
Q

In which two muscle types are the nuclei located centrally?

A

Cardiac and Smooth

133
Q

Which type of muscle fiber is the nucleus spindle shaped, centrally placed and have diffuse chromatin?

A

Cardiac muscle

134
Q

Which type of muscle has intercalated discs, allowing interface between adjacent myocytes

A

Cardiac muscle

135
Q

A vasodilator protein secreted by heart muscle cells in response to high blood volume (wall stretch)

A

Atrail Natriuretic Factor

136
Q

In Cardiac Muscle, this arrangement helps mechanical attachment between cells (zonula and macula) and transmission of electrical and chemical stimuli (gap junctions)

A

Intercalated discs

137
Q

These fibers are responsible for the final distribution of the electrical stimulus to the myocardium

A

Purkinje Fibers

138
Q

A motor neuron disease with causing neuogenic atrophy. Characterized by muscle spasticity and progressing to weakness and muscle wasting

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

139
Q

Thickening of arterial wall and local accumulation of smooth muscle cells in the tunica intima

A

Atherosclerosis

140
Q

Most frequent cardiac arrhythmia

A

Atrail Fibrillation

141
Q

Inflammatory disease caused by strep pyogenes in the heart

A

rheumatic fever

142
Q

Inflammation of the inner tissue of the heart (especially valves) due to an infective agent

A

bacterial endocarditis

143
Q

The smallest vascular channels are called _____

A

Capillaries

144
Q

Which type of neuron has it’s cell body in the dorsal root ganglion

A

Pseudounipolar sensory neurons

145
Q

Nerve fascicles are protected by a sheath known as the _____

A

Perinurium

146
Q

Nerve fibers are each wrapped in a sheath known as the _____

A

Endonurium

147
Q

Tactile sensors located in dermal papillae, sensitive to low freq. stimuli

A

Meissner’s Corpuscles

148
Q

Large mechanoreceptors sensitive to pressure and vibration

A

Pacinian Corpuscles

149
Q

These 1) give info about muscle length and 2) play a role in reflexes (maintaining posture)

A

Muscle Spindles

150
Q

Afferent nerve endings that detect pain (e.g. A delta type I, A delta type II and C)

A

Free nerve endings

151
Q

Free Nerve endings detect

A

hot and cold, itching, pain

152
Q

Motor Neurons branch out and terminate at the ____ __ ____

A

Motor End Plate

153
Q

Autonomic Ganglion contain _____ _____, disordered and unmyelinated nerve fibers.

A

Multipolar neuons

154
Q

The postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal muscle contains junction folds and _______ receptors

A

Acetylcholine

155
Q

Schwann’s cell-ensheathed axons are surrounded by a delicate layer of reticular fibers called the _______

A

Endonuerium

156
Q

The outer coat of dense iregular connective tissue that surrounds the nerve fibers and provide organization

A

Epinurium

157
Q

The most prominent and visible coat that surrounds a longitudinal bundle of axons (a fascicle) is called the ______

A

Perinurium

158
Q

These arteries allow rapid blood flow and their elastic laminae help to smooth out pressure differences with distance from the heart

A

Conducting Arteries

159
Q

The medium or ______ arteries have slower blood flow and can be controlled by regulatory factors such as chemical for flow regulation

A

Distributing Arterties

160
Q

Tunica ____ consists of endothelium, basal lamina and occasional smooth muscle

A

Intima

161
Q

Tunica ____ is composed of smooth muscle, variable amounts of elastic fiber, lamellae, reticular fibers and proteoglycans

A

Media

162
Q

Tunica ___ is the outermost layer composed of fibroblasts and longitudinal type I collagen.

A

Adventitia

163
Q

Larger blood vessels have ___ ______ in the adventitia to provide nutrients via small vessels

A

Vaso Vasorum

164
Q

The ______ of the heart is analogous to the intima of blood vessels

A

Endocardium

165
Q

The _____ of the heart is analogous to the media of blood vessels

A

Myocardium

166
Q

The _____ of the heart is analogous to adventitia of blood vessels

A

Epicardium

168
Q

Large Elastic Arteries have Media ___-___ layers thick

A

40-70 elastic lamellae

169
Q

A Muscular Artery has Media ___-___ thick

A

6-39 smooth muscle layers

169
Q

A layer of elastic tissue that forms the outermost portion of the tunica intima of blood vessels

A

Internal Elastic Lamina (IEL)

170
Q

An Arteroile has Media ___-___ thick

A

1-5 smooth muscle layers

171
Q

A layer of elastic tissue that lies outside the smooth muscle of the tunica media of an artery

A

External Elastic Lamina (EEL)

172
Q

____ Arteries have a nice thick Internal Elastic Lamina surrounding their Intima

A

Muscular Arteries

173
Q

Within the Intima, the endothelial cells contain _____ that are membrane bound inclusions that have a dense matrix containing von Willebrand factor

A

Weibel-Palade bodies

174
Q

The vasa vasorum of the adventitia penetrated the outer half to third of the ______

A

Media

175
Q

After the age of 30, the media becomes stiffer due to increased elastic lamellae and deposition of ____ and _____

A

Collagen and proteoglycans

176
Q

The terminal segment before a capillary bed forms a _____ or precapillary sphincter that regulates blood flow into capilaries

A

Metarteriole

177
Q

____ are small pores in some endothelial cells that allow for the rapid exchange of molecules

A

Fenstrae

178
Q

Lymphatic capillaries have a discontinuous or absent basal lamina and are held open by ______

A

Elastic anchoring filaments

179
Q

The endothelial cells of capillaries get some structural support from ____ and ____

A

desmin and vimentin

180
Q

Stellate cells that surround some capillaries and some post-capillary venules are called _____

A

Pericytes

181
Q

The Pericytes share the _____ of endothelial cells

A

Basal Lamina

182
Q

_____ can serve as stem cells for vascular endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells after injury

A

Pericytes

183
Q

Special porus capillaries found in the pancreas, intestines, and endocrine glands

A

Fenstrated Capilaries

184
Q

_____ are irregular blood channels that conform to the shape of the structure they line

A

Sinusoids

185
Q

_____ is the process by which large molecules are transported across the inside of a cell

A

Transcytosis

186
Q

Cell drinking. The process where small molecules or fluids are brought into the cell

A

Pinocytosis

187
Q

The _____ system carries blood from one capillary bed to another. One example is between the intestines and liver

A

Portal

188
Q

Direct cross connections between arterioles and venules. Smooth muscle sphincters regulate flow

A

Arteriovenous anastosomes

189
Q

List the three types of capillaries in order of leakiness

A

1) Continuous (least)
2) Fenstrated
3) Sinusoidal (most leaky)

190
Q

Capilaries that may have an incomplete basement membrane

A

Sinusoidal (Discontinuous) capilaries

191
Q

Thinner veins contain less muscle and elastic tissue, and proportionately more _____

A

Collagen fibres

192
Q

Lymphatic Vessel Characteristics

A

1) Large lumens
2) Thin walls
3) Irregular shape
4) Extensive branching

193
Q

What are the two layer of the periosteum?

A

Outer (fibrous)

Deeper (cellular)

194
Q

What does the outer fiberous layer of the periosteum consist of?

A

Dense irregular CT
Blood vessels and volkman’s canals
And more

195
Q

What is the defining feature of the deep cellular layer of the periosteum?

A

Has osteogenic potential

Osteoprogenetor cells are present in adults but are not normally active.

196
Q

Locations of elastic cartilage

A

External ear
Epiglottis
Eustachian tube
Larynx

197
Q

These cells also have nuclei that look like idaho potatoes

A

reticular cells

198
Q

The nucleus of this cell is the proverbial “clock face” and has lots of RER

A

plasma cell

199
Q

A Vitamine C deficiency can lead to _____ which impaires wound healing due to impaired collagen formation

A

Scurvy

200
Q

The outer fibrous layer of the perichondrium is primarily collagen type ____

A

Type 1

201
Q

Growth on the outside layer of cartilage is called ______

A

apositional

202
Q

Growth on the inside layer of cartilage from within a lacunae is called _______

A

interstitial

203
Q

If you can’t decide if it is elastic or hyaline cartilage on the microscope what should you do?

A

adjust the condenser aperture to visualize the elastic fibers

204
Q

Endostium is just a thinner internal version of _______

A

periostium

205
Q

How do cells residing in the cartilage get nutrition since it lacks vasculature?

A

diffusion

206
Q

What type of muscle has intercalated discs?

A

Cardiac muscle ONLY

207
Q

How could you differentiate cardiac muscle in cross section form smooth muscle?

A

you can see the boundaries between the fascicles in cardiac muscle
(Also, cardiac muscle cells are larger)

208
Q

How come the purkinji fibers appear clear?

A

they are filled with glycogen, which does not stain with H&E but are stained with periodic acid

209
Q

Why are cardiac striations less distinct than skeletal muscle

A

The myofibrils are more tightly packed

210
Q

Which type of cartilage doesn’t have a perichondrium?

A

fibrocartilage

211
Q

What are the three types of ‘neurium’ that wrap nerve tissue?

A

epineurium
perineurium
endoneurium

212
Q

What are the type of ‘neurium’ is most obviously seen in histology?

A

perineurium

213
Q

When you see the donuts around the nerve, it is (myelinated/unmyelinated)

A

myelinated

214
Q

What type of epithelium in the endocardium?

A

simple squamous epithelium

215
Q

a large vein has ________ layers of smooth muscle

A

3-6

216
Q

A venule has ______ layers of smooth muscle

A

1-2

217
Q

In general the (venous/arterial) side has more vaso vasorum

A

venous

218
Q

The epimysium is made of __________ connective tissue

A

dense irregular connective tissue

219
Q

The perimysium is made of __________ connective tissue

A

loose connective tissue

220
Q

endomysium is made of ________

A

reticular fibers

221
Q

The perinurium is made of ______

A

fibroblasts

222
Q

The endonuroium is made of ______

A

reticular fibers

223
Q

The bladder is lined with what type of epithelium?

A

Transitional Epithelium (pseudostratified)

224
Q

The inside layer of the bladder has stretchy ______ cells

A

Dome

225
Q

Osmic Acid stains fat what color?

A

Black