Tx Planning Final Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Penumbra decreases w/increasing SSD

A

F

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2
Q

T/F: Penumbra increases with larger source size

A

T

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3
Q

Electrons can be used to treat tumors to a depth of _________cm deep.

A

5

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4
Q

T/F: Safety is no accident is published by ASTRO and is a recommendations for radiation therapy departments

A

T

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5
Q

Treatment planning includes the following steps: (select all that are true)
patient positioning
tumor delineation
beam arrangement
computing dose delivered and eval of treatment plan
transfer of the treatment planning information to delivery sysetm

A

All

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6
Q

T/F: If you tattoo a patient in SIM at the CT setup point but dosi moves isocenter to another location you will have to shift daily on the machine?

A

T

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7
Q

How do you verify your shifts from CT isocenter to treatment isocenter?

A

Subtract the coodinates in the X,Y, and Z direction from CT iso to plan iso

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8
Q
When determining parameters to optimize a patients treatment some of the parameters include: (select all that are true)
Target volume
Dose-limiting structures
Treatment volume
dose prescription
dose fractionation
dose distribution
A

All

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9
Q

T/F: OARs are contoured on a CT scan by the physician

A

F

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10
Q

T/F: IMRT is known as inverse planning

A

F

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11
Q

What modality gives the best spatial resolution?

A

CT

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12
Q
motion artifact can happen on scan from the following: (Select all that is correct)
breathing motion
cardiac motion
bone motion
table motion
A

breathing motion

cardiac motion

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13
Q

Match the tissue-type to the associated HU:
bone
water
air

A
bone = +1000
water = 0
air = -1000
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14
Q

At diagnostic energies the most common interaction in tissue is what? (select all that is correct)
photo electric
compton effect
pair production

A

photo electric

compton effect

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15
Q

Gross tumor + microscopic disease is called

A

CTV

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16
Q

T/F: Target volume is defined as the primary tumor + local spread and lymphatic spread

A

T

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17
Q
Commonly used imaging studies to help delineate the tumor is the following: (Select all that apply)
CT
PET
SPECT
MRI
PMRI
A

CT
PET
SPECT
MRI

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18
Q

Irradiated volume is defined as the ____________ Isodose line

A

50%

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19
Q

What’s the energy range?

Co-60, 4MV, 6MV

A

Low-energy Megavoltage X-ray

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20
Q

What’s the energy range?

10-25MV

A

Medium or High energy Megavoltage X-ray

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21
Q

T/F: To treat with IMRT you must have MLC or compensator option on your treatment unit

A

T

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22
Q

T/F: Using low energy megavoltage x-ray beams while treating parallel-opposed beams, the body thickness should not exceed approximately 15cm?

A

T

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23
Q

Delivering diff dose to diff volumes in 1 course of tx over 33 fxs.

A

Dose painting

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24
Q

Select below the MLC size that would give you smaller beamlet options
1cm
0.5cm

A

0.5cm

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25
Q

Constraint or objective?

Conditions that are to be satisfied in any case

A

constraint

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26
Q

Constraint or objective?

Functions that measure the quality of a treatment plan

A

objective

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27
Q

Serial or parallel organ?

spinal cord

A

serial

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28
Q

Serial or parallel organ?

lung

A

parallel

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29
Q

T/F: Dynamic or sliding window IMRT delivery technique is best described as when the beam turns on and delivers dose, then turns off while the MLCs move to the next position then the beam turns back on. This pattern continues until all MU are delivered.

A

F

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30
Q

Yaw, pitch, and roll are what type of shifts?

A

Rotational

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31
Q

The interaction that happens with PET scans is what - Annihilation Radiation or Compton?

A

Annihilation Radiation

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32
Q

An ITV is created when there is movement of the tumor that needs to be accounted for.

A

T

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33
Q

The size of MLCs are defined how?
The projected size at 100cm SSD
The physical size of each MLC

A

The projected size at 100cm SSD

34
Q

Select all that are true: According to TG 57, what are some facts about organ movement related to breathing? select all that apply
Breathing cycle lasts around 4 sec
Patients spend more time in exhale than inhale
Tumors at the apex move less than those near the diaphragm
Patient specific motion needs to be assessed

A

All

35
Q

What are the two primary histologies of Esophagus cancer?

A

Adenocarcioma and Squamous Cell

36
Q

T/F: Treating a patient prone for an esophageal primary moves the esophagus on average 1.7cm away from the spinal cord

A

T

37
Q

T/F: When evaluating a patient’s DVH for an squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus the total Lung: less than 20Gy should be 30% or less and preferable <25%

A

T

38
Q
Select all that are true for patient position during SIM for a patient with gastric cancer:
Supine
Arms over head
Empty stomach
Oral contrast can be helpful
A

All

39
Q

T/F: When treating proximal portion of the stomach for a gastric primary it might include a portion of the esophagus

A

T

40
Q

According to the NCI the 5-year overall survival for pancreas cancer is __________?

A

10%

41
Q

T/F: Celiac artery is located at

A

T12

42
Q

Select all that are true that can be helpful when simulating a patient with anal cancer:
Supine
Frog-legged
Vaginal dialator

A

All

43
Q

Vaginal Cancer is usually treated with definitive RT

A

T

44
Q

WEEK 9 QUIZ #1

A

….

45
Q

T/F: 6 to 20 MeV is the most common energies for electron beams

A

T

46
Q

1/4 the beam energy = ___ IDL

A

90%

47
Q

1/3 the beam energy = ___ IDL

A

80%

48
Q

1/2 the beam energy = ___ IDL

A

10% or useful range

49
Q

T/F: Spinal cord max dose is 50Gy

A

T

50
Q

T/F: Radiosurgery to a brain lesion is delivered in a single fraction.

A

T

51
Q

T/F: Target volume and dose are inversely related.

A

T

52
Q

Select the imaging modality that offers the best soft tissue resolution

A

MRI

53
Q

Gamma knife uses what type of source?

A

Co-60

54
Q

How do you make a beam “non-coplanar”?

A

Add a table kick

55
Q

What type of cancer is the leading cause of cancer related deaths?

A

LUNG

56
Q

True/False: The whole liver tolerance is 30-35Gy which is insufficient to achieve reasonable tumor control

A

T

57
Q

Select all that are true with regards to electrons:
Lower energy electrons scatter more
The greater the SSD the greater the penumbra
The smaller the electron cone the better treatment delivered

A

Lower energy electrons scatter more

The greater the SSD the greater the penumbra

58
Q

Select all that are true with regards to electrons:
Beam direction should be chosen to be perpendicular to skin surface that is nearest the target volume
Energy is decided by max depth of target
Usually prescribed to the 90% IDL

A

All

59
Q

What type of esophageal cancer histology has been on the rise recently?

A

adeno

60
Q

If the treatment field will include any of the stomach it is best to have what kind of prep from the patient?

A

NPO 3 hours

61
Q

Ex 3 #21

A

62
Q
Rectal tumors can be described as the following: (Select all that are true)
moblie
fixed
teathered
free floating
A

moblie
fixed
teathered

63
Q

When treating rectal cancer with radiation is there better sphincter preservation with which type of fractionation?
small dose per fraction over a longer course
higher daily dose with fewer overall fractions

A

small dose per fraction over a longer course

64
Q

What type of patient setup will reduce the amount of small bowel in the field? (rectal)

A

prone

65
Q

If a rectal patient is being treated prone what type of setup is best?

A

Tape the buttocks open so it does not self-bolus

66
Q

T/F: When adding PET to the imaging modalities used when defining the field for a rectal primary it has shown to increase the GTV by 25%

A

T

67
Q

Apex of the prostate is located where?

A

Inferior portion

68
Q

Ex 3 #29

A

69
Q

What type of metastatic Hematogenous spread happens in prostate cancer?

A

Osteoblastic bone lesions to the axial skeleton

70
Q

Ex 3 #31 & 32

A

71
Q

According to NCCN the 5-year survival (2010-2016) for rectal cancer is 64.6%

A

T

72
Q

What is considered a normal PSA value?

4, 3, 2 or 1?

A

4

73
Q

Prostate cancer tx options:

Patients who are asymptomatic and either has advanced age or other advanced disease

A

Watchful waiting

74
Q

Prostate cancer tx options:

Involves serial DRE, PSA, & biopsies - expected to treat

A

Active surveilance

75
Q

What type of patient prep is used for prostate patients

A

Full bladder, empty rectum

76
Q

Which MRI technique is useful when contouring the prostate

A

T2

77
Q

Select all techniques for patient setup that are used for treating a patient with anal cancer (select all that apply)

Frog-legged

Full bladder to displace small bowel

Bolus can be used

A

Frog-legged

Full bladder to displace small bowel

Bolus can be used

78
Q

Ex 3 #39

A

79
Q

T/F: When treating a whole pelvis with a 3D treatment using standard whole pelvis fields for a 4-field box it is best to use low energy over high energy to decrease hotspots

A

F

80
Q

The superior border when treating PANs in an extended Radiotherapy pelvic fields is _____.

A

T12/L1

81
Q

when treating a whole pelivs with a 4-feild box and PANs the best way to match the two areas are_________.

A

Using the gap formula to calculate the skin gap

82
Q

When treating a bladder primary is it better to treat with what patient prep?

A

Empty bladder