TS6: The Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What differentiation processes does a postmitotic neuron go through? (MADSS)

A
  • Migrating to its final destination
  • Axon extension
  • Establishing dendrite branching patterns
  • Forming synapse connections
  • Modifying synapse connection
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2
Q

What is the function of astrocytes in postmitotic neuron differentiation?

A

Facilitate synapse formation

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3
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes in postmitotic neuron differentiation?

A

Myelinate axons.

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4
Q

What is synaptic pruning and why is it important?

A

Synaptic pruning is the process of eliminating weak or unnecessary neural connections in the brain. It is a natural and important process that occurs during brain development, particularly during childhood and adolescence.

Synaptic pruning has been linked to a variety of neurological and psychiatric disorders, including autism, schizophrenia, and depression. These conditions are thought to be associated with abnormalities in synaptic pruning, which can lead to the development of dysfunctional neural circuits.

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5
Q

What is an axon growth cone?

A

The axon growth cone is a highly dynamic structure that contains a complex network of cytoskeletal filaments, including microtubules and actin filaments.

The growth cone is responsible for guiding the developing axon to its target cell or destination during neural development.

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6
Q

What are the 4 methods of axon guidance? Give an example protein for each.

A
  1. Long-range chemoattraction
  2. Long-range chemorepulsion
    [ligand is soluble]
    e.g., DCC/netrin and Robo/Slit
  3. Contact-mediated chemoattraction
  4. Contact-mediated chemorepulsion
    [ligand is cell-bound]
    e.g., Eph/ephrin and Unc5/FLRT
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7
Q

What are the four ‘classical’ axon guidance systems?

A

Slits (bind Robo receptors)
Netrins (bind DCC and Unc5 receptors)
Ephrins (bind Eph receptors)
Semaphorins (bind Plexins)

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8
Q

How did forward genetics give insights into axon guidance for crossing the midline?

A

Drosophila mutants were identified that, when stained with an antibody that recognizes all axons, showed interesting phenotypes:
- Slit mutants showed axon collapse at the midline
- Roundabout (Robo) mutants showed neurons crossing the midline multiple times
- Comm mutants showed no axons crossing the midline

Forward genetics was then used to take these mutants and find the proteins responsible for these phenotypes, as well as how they regulate midline crossing.

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9
Q

Describe the functions of Slit, Robo and Comm in midline crossing.

How do these control axonal crossing of the midline?

A

Slit is a secreted protein produced by midline glia that acts as a repulsive axon guidance ligand.
Robo is a receptor for slit on the axon growth cone.
Comm acts in the secretory pathway to downregulate cell-surface expression of Robo.

  1. Comm prevents Robo from being on the cell surface, enabling axons to cross the midline.
  2. After midline crossing, downregulation of Comm results in upregulation of Robo, preventing axons from recrossing the midline because of Slit repulsion.
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10
Q

How do we test whether a protein elicits attractive, adhesive or repulsive responses?

A

The confrontation assay (time-consuming and difficult to quantify)

Stripe assay

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11
Q

State the procedure involved in a stripe assay.

A
  1. The protein under investigation and a neutral protein are immobilized on a culture dish in an alternating stripe pattern.
  2. Cells are seeded on these stripes.

In control experiments, both stripes contain neutral protein only.

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12
Q

How are cortical layers formed?

A
  1. At early embryonic stages, neural progenitors in the ventricular zone (VZ) divide symmetrically, expanding the progenitor pool
  2. At later stages, they become radial glia.
  3. Neurons produced from radial glia cells via asymmetric division are the first to initiate and complete migration, settling in the deepest layer.
  4. Each time a neuron is ‘born’, they attach to the radial glia cell and migrate upwards towards the cortical plate
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13
Q

How is neuronal migration regulated by FLRT? What four experiments have aided in uncovering this?

A

FLRTs play important roles in regulating the timing of neuronal migration.

  1. Stripe assays have shown that Unc5 forms a repulsive interaction with FLRT, whilst latrophilin has an adhesive interaction.
  2. Point mutations were then used with structure-based protein engineering, such that mutant FLRT could no longer bind Unc5. This stops the repulsive signal, showing that FLRT signals through Unc5 receptors.
  3. Structural biology was also used to show that FLRT and Unc5 form a ternary complex with Latrophilin, due to Unc5 and Latrophilin having different binding sites on FLRT. XRC showed they form a 2:2:4 super-complex.

The ability to form different complexes allows for different functions as the neuron migrates.

  1. RNA hybridization assays showed that as neurons migrate, there’s different expression levels of the receptors, implying each complex only has functions as certain stages of migration to aid navigation.
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14
Q

What is the FLRT-Unc5-Latrophilin supercomplex, and how was it studied?

What did these studies reveal about the supercomplex?

A

The interaction of FLRTs with Unc5 and LPHN has been shown to promote the repulsion of axons from regions of the developing nervous system that are rich in these proteins.

Multi-angle light scattering (MALS) and NMS was used to study to determine oligomer states of the complex, showing that not all homologues form this super-complex.

This means that the receptors can form higher order complexes (not just 1:1 interactions) and the same protein can engage in different complexes with different functions.

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15
Q

What can Latrophilin, FLRT, and Unc5 bind to?

Why is having so many interaction partners important?

A

Latrophilin: FLRT and Teneurin
FLRT: Latrophilin and Unc5
Unc5: FLRT and GPC3

Receptors form different complexes, depending on which binding partners are available. This combinatorial code enables relatively few receptors to elicit many different, nuanced cell responses.

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16
Q

Describe the nanofiber assay for studying latrophilin. What did it show?

A

Nanofibers were used to mimic radial glia cell fibers and were coated with different proteins to monitor how neurons migrate. Antibodies could be used to visualize this migration.

Together with other experiments, it showed that Latrophilin is repulsive for neurons expressing FLRT and Teneurin.

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17
Q

What is in-utero electroporation?

A

In-utero electroporation (IUE) is a technique used in developmental neurobiology to manipulate gene expression in the developing nervous system of embryonic animals.

It involves the injection of a plasmid DNA construct containing the gene of interest, along with a fluorescent protein marker, into the developing brain of an embryo via a small incision in the uterine wall. The DNA construct is then delivered into a specific region of the developing brain using a glass micropipette, and a series of brief electrical pulses are applied to the embryo to facilitate the uptake of the DNA construct into the cells.

Once the DNA construct is taken up by the cells, it can be expressed, allowing the researchers to visualize and manipulate the expression of the gene of interest in the developing nervous system.

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18
Q

How are nanobodies being used to study neuronal receptor interactions?

A

Nanobodies are derived from single-chain camel antibodies, and these are being used to interfere with specific protein binding surfaces, hence weakening receptor interactions.

It’s harder to find those that stabilize these interactions, but not impossible, and so these can be used to enhance the receptor interactions.

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19
Q

How could nanobodies influence cancer cell migration?

A

Stripe assays show that the repulsive interactions seen between GPC3 and Unc5 are found in many cell types outside of the brain, including in cancer lines.

In vivo models have shown that different nanobodies (nano-glue or nano-break) either inhibit or promote the collective migration of neuroblastoma cancer cells, suggesting the tech could be used in cancer therapy.

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20
Q

Describe the structure of vertebrate retina.

A

The vertebrate retina is a layered structure made of 5 classes of neurons.

The input layer at the back of the retina consists of photoreceptors that detect photons and convert them to electrical signals.

The output layer comprises retinal ganglion cells, which transmit information from the eye to the brain, making up the optic nerve.

In between are bipolar cells and amacrine cells, whose actions influence the signals transmitted from photoreceptors to bipolar cells and then to RGCs.

Pigment cells at the back of the eye absorb extra photons and prevent light scattering.

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21
Q

Describe the type of vision given by the two types of photoreceptors and where they can be found.

A

Cones are responsible for high acuity, daylight and colour vision; in primates, cones are concentrated in the fovea, the central part of the retina.

Rods are more numerous, more sensitive to photons, and specialized for night vision.

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22
Q

How did psychophysical studies reveal that human rods can detect single photons?

A

A person in a dark room received a flash of light with varying numbers of photons. The flashes ‘seen’ were plotted over the average number of photons used, taking into account the probability of photons hitting the retina.

For these psychometric functions, a best fit for n was found to be between 5 and 7 photons. Thus, to reliably perceive a flash of light, an average of 5-7 independent photon absorptions must occur in a retinal field of ~500 rods.

Since the probability of 2 photons being absorbed by the same rod under these conditions is small, each rod must be able to report the absorption of a single photon.

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23
Q

How did electrophysiological studies confirm the single-photon response of rods?

A

A single rod was sucked into an electrode to form a tight seal. Electric current passing through ion channels in the plasma membrane of the segment within the electrode could be measured in response to a light beam.

By systematically reducing the light intensity, a condition was reached in which most light flashes didn’t produce any response. The occasional responses that did occur has a uniform size, and was fitted to a Poisson distribution, showing that the responses were mostly caused by absorption of single photons and occasionally 2 photons.

These measurements confirmed that photon absorption results in hyperpolarization of rods - that is, current flows out of the rod in response to light. Each photon absorption results in ~1pA of net outward current, equivalent to blocking 10^7 position ions that would otherwise flow into the cell….

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24
Q

How is inward flow of current (depolarization) blocked in rod cells?

A

When light is absorbed by the photopigment molecule, rhodopsin, in the outer segment of the rod cell, it initiates a series of biochemical events that ultimately lead to the closure of ion channels in the outer segment membrane and the reduction of the intracellular concentration of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).

The reduction in cGMP concentration causes the cGMP-PDE complex to become activated, which breaks down cGMP into GMP. As a result, the concentration of cGMP in the cell decreases, leading to the closure of the cGMP-gated ion channels in the plasma membrane and the hyperpolarization of the cell.

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25
Q

Describe the structure and function of rhodopsin.

How does the structure of the subunits relate to its function?

A

Rhodopsins are the photosensitive molecules in rods.

Each rhodopsin consists of an opsin GPCR protein and a small molecule of retinal that’s covalently attached to a lysine residue in the opsin.

Retinal is the chromophore that exists in two isomers. Photon absorption causes a switch of 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal, triggering a conformational change in the opsin.

This change opens up a binding site for a heterotrimeric G protein, transducin.

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26
Q

Describe the transduction cascade involved in photon absorption within rod cells. How is the signal amplified?

A
  1. Light triggers the isomerization of retinal that causes a conformational change in opsin.
  2. Transducin is then able to bind opsin and become activated.
  3. Activated transducin catalyzes the exchange of GDP for GTP, releasing the alpha subunit.
  4. Alpha-GTP activates phosphodiesterase by sequestering the inhibitory subunits.
  5. PDE hydrolyzes cGMP to GMP.
  6. Low cGMP levels result in CNG channel closure, hyperpolarization of the cell, and a decline in glutamate release.
  7. System reset.

Amplification occurs through 1 rhodopsin activating >20 transducin molecules, each of which can activate PDE.

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27
Q

How do cGMP/GMP concentrations control membrane potential? How was this discovered?

A

The reduction in cGMP concentration causes closure of the cGMP-gated ion channels in the plasma membrane and the hyperpolarization of the cell.

Discovered using patch-clamp to change the levels of cGMP and monitor channel conductance, as well as cloning of the gene encoding the gated channel (CNG channel).

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28
Q

Describe the structure and function of CNG channels.

A

Its primary structure resembles that of K+ channels, with 6 TM domains and a pore loop between S5 and S6.

Like K+ channels, functional CNG channels comprise 4 subunits with 4 cGMP binding sites.

Its opening is non-selective (like nicotinic ACh receptors), but due to its reversal potential, Na+ influx exceeds K+ efflux. Hence, the net effect is depolarization when cGMP is bound.

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29
Q

Describe the process of recovery in rod cells after the phototransduction cascade.

A
  1. The closure of CNG channels reduces [calcium], which causes GCAP to activate guanylate cyclase, leading to increased cGMP production.
  2. cGMP binding to CNG channels leads to channel opening and membrane depolarization. FEEDBACK LOOP.
  3. RGS9 (GAP protein for transducin) facilitates hydrolysis of alpha-GTP, thereby deactivating PDE.
  4. Rhodopsin kinase specifically phosphorylates rhodopsin. Phosphorylated rhodopsin recruits binding of arrestin, deactivating rhodopsin.
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30
Q

What is Weber’s law? How does this relate to light adaptation of rods?

A

The ‘just-noticeable’ difference between two stimuli is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus.

In the visual system, this means that photoreceptors become less sensitive to the same intensity of stimulation when the background illumination is higher.

In other words, to achieve the same amount of hyperpolarization at higher background illumination, a stronger stimulus is required.

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31
Q

How does the light adaptation of rods work at the molecular level?

A

High levels of background illumination cause some cGMP-gated channels to close, resulting in a decline in [calcium]i. This decline leads to the following biochemical changes:

  1. The basal level of GC activity increases because of the action of GCAP (cGMP increases).
  2. Activated rhodopsin phosphorylation increases because it’s normally inhibited by high [calcium]I, which leads to more arrestin binding that competes with R* binding with transducin-alpha.

These changes make phototransduction less efficient, and thus stronger activation of PDE by more light is required to promote effective hyperpolarization.

NB: these events occur in the outer segment of the photoreceptor, so [calcium]i changes don’t complicate its role in regulating synaptic transmission, which occurs in axon terminals at the opposite end of the photoreceptor.

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32
Q

How does high-acuity and color vision work?

A

Cones are highly concentrated in the fovea at the center of the primate retina, hence why color can be seen best at the center of the visual field and not well at the peripheries.

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33
Q

How do we know that cones are less sensitive, but much faster than rods?

A

Comparing responses to light flashes in single rods or cones revealed cones are much less sensitive than rods.

Cones also recover faster than rods and produce an ‘undershoot’ recovery phase.

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34
Q

What are the 3 types of cone cells in humans, and why are they needed?

How do they detect different wavelengths?

A

S-cone
M-cone
L-cone

The presence of all 3 cones is necessary for humans to perceive a full range of colors and to have high-acuity vision.

Different cones express different opsins, allowing them to recognize different wavelengths.

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35
Q

How did cloning of the cone opsin genes reveal the molecular basis of human color blindness?

A

Cloning showed that M- and L-opsins are 96% identical, while S-opsin is only ~40% identical.

Due to the M and L genes being quite new from a gene duplication event, recombination is highly common. Recombination between L- and M-opsin genes at meiosis leads to gene arrangements that produce variant color vision. E.g., unequal crossing over. The M- and L-opsin genes map next to each other on the X chromosomes, hence the predominance of color blindness in males.

36
Q

How are signals from rods and cones analyzed in the retina? Include information on the center-surround receptive fields analysis experiment.

A

There are lots more photoreceptor cells than RGCs so there must be a condensation of information. Each RGC collects information from ~100 photoreceptor cells.

They use data analysis to ensure that key information isn’t lost by simply merging the information.

Checked individual RGCs to see whether they fire whilst moving visual stimuli across the retina to illuminate different parts of the retinal field. Illumination of the center of the receptor field, there is very strong firing. Increasing the area of illumination (including periphery regions), firing decreases. Only shining light at the periphery completely stops signaling. These are known as ON-center/OFF-surround RGCs.
RGC2 cells do the opposite of this; they are most responsive to light being shone at the periphery and not in the center (OFF-center/ON-surround RGCs).

37
Q

What are the 2 types of bipolar cells, and how do they respond to glutamate signaling from cones?

A

There are two major subclasses of bipolar cells, OFF bipolar and ON bipolar.

The hyperpolarization of cones by light results in less glutamate release.

OFF bipolar cells have iGluRs, which become less active due to the reduction in glutamate. This means fewer cations enter the cell and the OFF cell is hyperpolarized.

ON cells have mGluRs that also become less active. This means the inhibitory G proteins are less active and the cation channels are less inhibited, resulting in depolarization of the cell.

38
Q

How does lateral inhibition from horizontal cells construct the center-surround receptive fields?

A

Horizontal cells receive input from multiple photoreceptor cells within a specific region of the retina, known as the receptive field, and provide feedback inhibition to nearby bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells through their dendrites. This feedback inhibition is strongest for those photoreceptor cells that are immediately adjacent to the activated photoreceptor, and gradually decreases for those further away from it.

As a result, when a photoreceptor cell is stimulated by light, the adjacent photoreceptor cells are inhibited by the horizontal cells, which suppresses the lateral transmission of information from the inhibited photoreceptor cells to bipolar cells and other downstream neurons. This creates a “push-pull” mechanism, where the center of the receptive field is excited, while the surrounding area is inhibited, resulting in the formation of a center-surround receptive field.

39
Q

Why is the location of axons so important in the visual system?

A

Visual information in the retina is topographically represented in the brain as a map. To preserve the spatial relationships of the visual image on the retina, the axons must terminate at appropriate positions within the brain, and choose the correct synaptic partners.

40
Q

Describe Sperry’s optic nerve regeneration experiment, and explain what it revealed.

A

Amphibians are able to regenerate their retinal ganglion cells.

The left eye was rotated 180 degrees, followed by severing of the optic nerve. After allowing time for regeneration, he used behavioural experiments to test what the newt saw.

Sperry observed that when food was presented at the surface of the water tank, above the newt’s head, the newt would swim downward and bump into the bottom of the tank.

This strongly suggested that RGC axons carry specific information corresponding to their original position in the eye, and that the brain contains information corresponding to these positions.

41
Q

What experiments led to the mechanisms that underlie predetermined axonal target selection?

What hypothesis did this lead to?

A

Sperry and colleagues collected information on how regenerating RGC axons grow into a structure called the tectum, the major target of RGCs in the brain of lower vertebrates, equivalent to the mammalian superior colliculus. E.g., they transected the optic nerve, ablated half of all RGCs, and then examined the axon terminations of the remaining RGCs in the tectum. These experiments allowed them to determine which parts of the retina connected to which parts of the tectum:
- Ventral RGCs project to the medial half of the tectum.
- Dorsal RGCs project to the lateral half of the tectum.
- Anterior RGCs (also called nasal RGCs because they’re close to the nose) project to the posterior tectum.
- Posterior RGCs (also called temporal RGCs because they’re close to the temple) project to the anterior tectum
.
Thus, the point-to-point retinotopic map between the retina and the tectum is enabled by the orderly projections of RGC axons. These observations provided conclusive evidence that RGC axons are predetermined to connect with specific targets in the brain following regeneration.

This led to the chemoaffinity hypothesis.

42
Q

What is the chemoaffinity hypothesis? What are the caveats of this hypothesis, and how are they overcome?

A

This hypothesis proposes that axons and their target cells are pre-specified for one another and that this pre-specification is based on the expression of specific molecular markers, or “labels,” on the surface of cells.

According to the chemoaffinity hypothesis, these molecular labels are responsible for guiding axons to their appropriate targets during development.

There aren’t enough genes in the genome to provide individual ‘tags’ for each neuron, so this is overcome by combinatorial interaction codes and the use of gradients.

43
Q

What did stripe assay experiments reveal about temporal retinal ganglion cell axons?

A

They preferred to grow on membranes prepared from the anterior tectum, avoiding those from the posterior tectum.

This suggested a repellant present in the posterior tectum membranes, shown to be ephrin.

44
Q

How does Ephrin and Eph receptors contribute to the targeting of retinal ganglion cell axons?

A

Nasal axon –> posterior tectum
Temporal axon –> anterior tectum

There exists a high concentration of EphA3 expression in temporal axons, and a low concentration in nasal axons. There also exists a high ephrin-A5 concentration in the posterior tectum, and a low concentration in the anterior tectum.

The more EphA3 expressed by a given axon, the more it’s repelled by ephrinA5. Hence temporal axons will express a high concentration of ephA3, directing them to the low concentration of ephrinA5 in the anterior tectum. The reverse is true of nasal axons, which express low amounts of ephA3.

45
Q

How do Eph receptors amplify their signals?

A

Eph receptors make large clusters where they autophosphorylate one another, such that a receptor that isn’t bound can still be activated by a bound receptor. This causes a huge cascade of signals, including provoking changes in the cytoskeleton that changes the cytoskeleton for migration.

46
Q

A single gradient of Ephrin is insufficient to specify an axis, so how else do retinal ganglion cells know where to project?

A
  1. Competition for space
    Temporal RGC axons occupy space in the anterior side, making it easier for other axons to grow to the posterior end.
  2. Chemoaffinities
    Whilst RGCs express EphA receptors, they can also express ephrin to create another gradient. Their target tissues do the same.

Ephrins also trigger signaling cascades when they bind Eph receptors, leading to cell repulsion. This is known as reverse signaling.

47
Q

Why is it thought that smell impacts so many higher brain functions, such as memory formation?

What cells are involved in this?

A

The olfactory system is the only sensory system that doesn’t relay information to the thalamus, but directly to the cortex.

Mitral and tufted cells receive input from ORN axons and project axons directly to various olfactory cortical regions.

48
Q

How is the peripheral olfactory system organized?

A

It consists of the olfactory epithelium, which is located in the nasal cavity, and the olfactory bulb, which is a structure in the brain that receives information from the olfactory epithelium.

The olfactory epithelium is a thin layer of tissue that lines the nasal cavity. It contains three main types of cells: olfactory receptor neurons (ORNs), supporting cells, and basal cells. ORNs are the primary cells responsible for detecting odorants, and each ORN expresses only one type of olfactory receptor protein.

49
Q

How do odorant receptors signal, and then switch the response off?

A

Odorant receptors are G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) that are located on the cilia of olfactory receptor neurons (ORNs) in the olfactory epithelium.

odorant binding causes a conformational change in the odorant receptor, which activates a G protein called Golf (olfactory G protein). Activated Golf then stimulates the enzyme adenylyl cyclase III (ACIII), which converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). The increase in cAMP levels leads to the opening of cyclic nucleotide-gated (CNG) ion channels, which allows the influx of positively charged ions (mostly calcium and sodium) into the ORN.

The influx of positively charged ions depolarizes the ORN membrane and generates an action potential that is transmitted to the olfactory bulb in the brain. The pattern of action potentials generated by a population of ORNs encoding a particular odorant is then interpreted by the brain as a specific odor perception.

The signal is switched off in a negative feedback loop by:
- Calcium entry binding calmodulin which activates CAMKII to inhibit cAMP synthesis.
- PDE1c converts cAMP to AMP.

50
Q

What methods ensure that each ORN only expresses a single odorant receptor?

A
  1. Genes encoding the receptors have complex histone modifications to prevent transcription.
  2. Transient expression of a histone demethylase causes random expression of one odorant receptor gene.
  3. This expression triggers a negative feedback pathway involving an adenylate cyclase to turn of the demethylase so no other receptor genes can be transcribed.
51
Q

Does each odorant receptor specialize in recognizing one odorant molecule, and how does the brain then decode this signal?

A

Volatile molecules in odorants typically stimulate more than one olfactory receptor, creating a combinatorial code.

Those expressing the same receptor project their axons to the same olfactory bulb.

52
Q

Compare the olfactory system to retinal circuits.

A

Similarities:
- Use of sensory receptors to detect environmental stimuli
- Generation of electrical signals in response to sensory input
- Transmission of electrical signals to higher brain regions for processing and interpretation

Differences:
- ORNs express one type of receptor; there are only 3 types of cone cells, and rods.
- Olfaction uses a combinatorial code; retinal circuits use spatial codes

53
Q

How is the mammalian taste system organized? How does a tastant activate the gustatory cortex.

A

Taste buds contain taste receptors which are responsible for detecting different tastes. These are sensory epithelial cells (not neurons).

Activation leads to depolarization of these cells and secretion of neurotransmitter at their basal side. This activates gustatory ganglion cells (a type of sensory neuron).

Gustatory nerves transmit taste information from the taste buds to the brain in the gustatory cortex.

54
Q

How are the 5 different tastants (sweet, umami, salty, sour, and bitter) sensed?

A

Sweet and umami are sensed by heterodimers of the T1R family of GPCRs. Umami has T1R1 and T1R3, whilst sweet has T1R2 and T1R3.

Bitter is sensed by T2R GPCRs, and these come in more varieties than sweet and umami receptors. They also have higher affinities for ligands, allowing for identification of toxic molecules.

Sour and salty involves specific ion channels, but their overall mechanism is less well understood.

55
Q

Do the receptor proteins or the cell which expresses them determine the behavioural responses from different tastants?

A

Experiments involving putting different receptors in different tastant cells revealed that the taste receptor cell identity, rather than the receptor it expresses, determine the behavioural response.

56
Q

What are the 4 model organisms used to study neurobiology, and why?

A

C. elegans:
- Invariant cell lineage
- Connectome has been fully mapped
- Easy to genetically manipulate
- Transparent

Drosophila:
- Sophisticated brain with ventral nerve cord
- Easy to genetically manipulate

Zebrafish:
- Sophisticated brain with dorsal spinal cord
- Relatively easy to manipulate
- Embryo are transparent

Mice:
- Sophisticated brain with dorsal spinal cord
- Similar anatomy to human brain
- Established methods to genetically manipulate

57
Q

How is the nervous system thought to have evolved?

What recent findings about comb jellies have brought this into question? What hypothesis could explain these findings?

A

First emerged in eumetazoans, as it’s absent from sponges which are distantly related to eumetazoans.

However, recent phylogenetic analyses of comb jellies suggested that these are more distantly related to jellyfish than sponges, yet they possess neurons, synapses and nerve nets…

Hypothesis:
1. Nervous system emerged before poriferans and eumetazoans diverged and was lost in poriferans.
2. Convergent evolution of the nervous system in eumetazoans and jellyfish.

58
Q

How did ion channels evolve, and why are they so important?

A

K+ channels evolved first as they’re prevalent in prokaryotes e.g., KcsA which only has 2 TM domains. Horizontal gene transfer makes dating their emergence hard, but it was likely before eukaryotes.

Calcium channels next emerged, likely via duplication and divergence of a gene for 6TM K+ channel, followed by 2 rounds of duplication. The resulting 24TM channel can be seen in yeast, suggesting they appeared in early eukaryotes

VG sodium channels evolved more recently, likely via diversification of calcium channels.

  • Rapid neuronal communication
  • Calcium channels enabled control of eukaryotic intracellular signaling events
59
Q

How did synapses evolve?

A

Tracing origins of proteins found in synapses suggest they evolved from those that mediate cell adhesion in ancestral multicellular metazoans. e.g., cadherins, which are present in all animals so predate the nervous system.

Heterophilic adhesion partners, such as neurexins and neuroligins, which organize the synapses first emerged in eumetazoans.

Ephrin and Eph receptors first functioned as a pair in eumetazoans, although Eph receptors appeared earlier.

60
Q

What model organism is used to model the evolution of cell-cell adhesion and communication? Why?

A

Choanoflagellates.

  • Some are single-celled; some form colonies
  • Allow for inferences about the genome and cell biology of unicellular progenitors of Metazoa.
  • Express adhesion proteins, suggesting formation of multicellular interactions
  • Lots of neuronal proteins found in these species e.g., VG calcium and sodium channels.
61
Q

How has the studying of budding yeast GPCRs aided our understanding about the evolution of the nervous system?

What does this suggest for the original function of GPCRs in unicellular eukaryotes?

A

Budding yeast only have 3 GPCR genes, and these are involved in sexual reproduction through production and reception of peptide pheromones.

a-cells produce a-factor and alpha-cells produce alpha-factor. a-cells also produce alpha-receptors, and vice versa for alpha-cells.

GPCR activation by the correct pheromone leads to shmoo formation and cell fusion.

Given the similarities in these pathways, it’s likely that single-celled ancestors of yeast used the same signaling pathways, and the ancestral function of GPCRs in unicellular organisms is chemosensation of nutrients and pheromones.

62
Q

What are teneurins? What is characteristic of their structure?

A

Teneurins are a family of transmembrane proteins that are involved in a wide range of developmental and physiological processes in both vertebrates and invertebrates.

They are characterized by a unique domain structure consisting of 8 EGF-like repeats, followed by a series of TM domains and a cytoplasmic tail.

Teneurins were first identified as regulators of axon guidance and neuronal connectivity during embryonic development.

63
Q

How did teneurins evolve? How do we know this?

A

Horizontal gene transfer during early metazoan evolution.

Half of the gene sequence is related to bacterial toxin proteins whilst the other half is a typical cell guidance receptor.

64
Q

Why are teneurins so unusual in terms of their structure?

A

They are highly intricate for cell guidance receptors, which a strange knot structure that requires a lot of effort to synthesize.

65
Q

Why was it thought that teneurins in the brain contain toxins?

Why do we have this protein in our brain?

A

Teneurins are related to TcB/C toxins, and teneurins contain the toxin-domain that is normally located within the barrel structure. But, in teneurins it’s outside and is hence dysfunctional…

Knock-outs in C.elegans showed loss of teneurin leads to defects in development, suggesting it plays a role in cellular interactions with the ECM and cell guidance.

66
Q

What proteins does teneurin interact with in the mammalian cortex? What experiments have shown this?

A

Teneurin interacts with latrophilin and FLRT, shown via stripe assays:
- Teneurin/FLRT with latrophilin is cell repulsive, but not axon repulsive.
- Teneurin binds itself, causing adhesion to instruct synapse connection specificity

67
Q

What disorder is associated with perturbations of latrophilin expression?

A

ADHD symptoms were shown in a mouse model when latrophilin-3 was knocked out.

68
Q

How is the nervous system divided?

A
  1. CNS
  2. PNS:
    - Somatic (voluntary movement)
    - Autonomic (sympathetic + parasympathetic)
69
Q

What are the drawbacks to using MRI scans to record brain activity in humans?

A

Poor resolution
Imaging specific molecules not possible

70
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

Immune cells that engulf damaged cells and debris upon activation by injury and during developmental remodeling.

71
Q

Describe the cause of Huntington’s Disease and how the number of repeats relates to symptoms.

A

Generally speaking, Huntington’s disease (HD) is one of the simplest neurological diseases, as it’s caused by alterations in a single gene encoding a widely expressed protein named huntingtin.

The cause of HD is an expansion of a CAG (cytidine-adenosine-guanosine) trinucleotide repeat in the gene’s coding sequence, resulting in an expanded polyglutamine (polyQ) repeat near the N-terminus of the huntingtin protein. (The CAG nucleotide triplet codes for the amino acid glutamine, abbreviated Q).

Healthy individuals have 6 to 34 polyQ repeats, whereas HD patients have 36 to 121. Greater numbers of polyQ repeats correlate with earlier onset of HD symptoms.

72
Q

How are polyQ repeats thought to potentially cause neurological disorders? What experiment showed this?

A

In vivo transgenic overexpression of expanded polyQ repeats alone can cause degeneration of mouse and even Drosophila neurons.

Proteins with long polyQ repeats form aggregates that accumulate in inclusion bodies, which may be present in the nucleus, cytoplasm, or axons, depending on the specific protein affected.

73
Q

What is the function of the Huntingtin protein?

A
  • Scaffold protein
  • Transcriptional regulation
  • Dynein molecular motor
74
Q

What is metachromatic leukodystrophy? What is it caused by?

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD) is a rare genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is caused by a deficiency of an enzyme called arylsulfatase A (ASA), which is needed to break down a type of fat called sulfatides. Without enough ASA, sulfatides accumulate in the brain and nervous system, causing damage to the myelin sheath that surrounds and protects nerve fibers.

75
Q

What is Libmeldy, and how does it work?

A

Libmeldy is a medicine used to treat children with metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD.

This type of medicine works by delivering genes into the body. Theactive substancein Libmeldy is stem cells, (CD34+ cells), derived from the patient’s own bone marrow or blood, that have been modified to contain a copy of the gene to make ARSA and can divide to produce other sorts of blood cells.

76
Q

What are the 5 common molecular and cellular features of neurological disorders?

A
  1. Prion disease (misfolded protein convert WT proteins into misfolded proteins).
  2. Polyglutamine (polyQ)
  3. Plaques, tau, neurofibrillary tangles
  4. Impaired memory and loss of neurons
  5. Variable genetic association
77
Q

What are tauopathies?

A

neurodegenerative disorders characterized by deposition of abnormal tau protein in the brain.

78
Q

What is the molecular nature of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques?

A

The neurofibrillary tangles consist of abnormal aggregates of hyperphosphorylated microtubule-binding protein tau.

Amyloid plaques consist mostly of a 39- to 43-amino acid peptide called amyloid beta protein for its strong tendency to form aggregated of beta-pleated sheets.

While neurofibrillary tangles have also been found in other neurodegenerative diseases, collectively called tauopathies, amyloid plaques are most characteristic of AD.

79
Q

How can neurodegenerative diseases be related to mRNA localization?

A

The spatial and temporal regulation of gene expression in neurons is an important step in creating functional and structural neuronal networks.

Many neurodegenerative diseases have key associations with RNA binding proteins that impairs transport, blocking synthesis of proteins. Thus, this transportation is a very vulnerable point.

80
Q

What are the challenges with developing treatments for neurodegenerative disorders?

A
  1. May not know the mechanism
  2. Early detection is hard
  3. Often caused by mutations in ubiquitous genes
  4. Specific delivery of therapy
  5. Avoiding cancer formation or damaging other parts of the brain
81
Q

What is the amyloid-beta hypothesis of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

According to the hypothesis, beta-amyloid protein is produced naturally in the brain, but in Alzheimer’s disease, it accumulates and forms clumps, called plaques, outside and around nerve cells. These plaques can disrupt communication between nerve cells and lead to inflammation, oxidative stress, and cell death, contributing to the progressive loss of cognitive function and memory that are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease.

The amyloid-beta hypothesis suggests that reducing the levels of beta-amyloid protein in the brain could prevent or slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease.

82
Q

Why is the antibody treatment for Alzheimer’s, aducanuman, under scrutiny?

A

It reduces plaques in mouse models and in humans, but there was no improvement of symptoms in patients.

Hence, the drug isn’t worth it, despite reducing what we thought was the cause of the disease.

83
Q

How can we image cells and molecules in the brain? Describe each technique.

A

Diffusion tensor imaging (better than MRI)
- monitor the diffusion of water molecules
- non-invasive

Clarity
- high res. fluorescence images of intact tissue
- transparency is achieved by removing all lipids within the tissue
- can use different markers for detailed models

Serial EM sectioning with automated image analysis e.g., studying the fly connectome

Nano-imaging (super-resolution method)
- every cell and its connection can be mapped

84
Q

Why are Drosophila used to study the brain?

A
  1. Small enough to obtain the connectome in a reasonable amount of time.
  2. Large behavioural repertoire to use the connectome to relate structure and behaviour.
  3. Large existing community of experimentalists, and many available genetic tools.
  4. Genetics of the fruit fly are well understood, and many genetic variants are available.
85
Q

Describe the GAL4/UAS expression system.

A

Gal4 is a transcriptional activator that binds to UAS enhancer sequences. Thus, genes and siRNA encoded downstream of the UAS sequence are only expressed when Gal4 is present. Geneticists have created genetic variants of Drosophila, called GAL4 lines, each of which expresses Gal4 in some subset of tissue. Reporter lines are strains of flies with the UAS region next to a desired gene. Crosses between the two lines allows for visualization of tissue (e.g., classes of neurons) if the UAS enhancer is upstream of a GFP gene.

86
Q

What are the 4 main behavioural assays used to study flies and larvae in neurobiology?

A
  1. Crawling assay to assess larva motor function.
  2. Ring assay to assess adult motor function.
  3. Courtship assay to assess adult coordination and sensory abilities.
  4. Tumbling assay - famously used to assess addiction and ethanol intoxication