TrueLearn ABS Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of low grade MALT lymphoma

A

H. pylori treatment (50-100% complete remission)

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2
Q

Treatment for high grade MALT lymphoma

A

chemo/radiation

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3
Q

Fibrotic tumor w/ low mitotic index, high collagen content

A

Desmond tumor

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4
Q

Soft tissue mass w/ malignant fibroblasts and pleomorphic histiocytes

A

Pleomorphic sarcoma

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5
Q

Empiric antimicrobial therapy for VAP

A

Zosyn/carbepenem/cephalosporin + Vancomycin

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6
Q

The most common site for recurrence in colorectal cancer

A

liver

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7
Q

Level 1B lymph node station in neck

A

(submandibular triangle)
Anterior belly of digastric, posterior belly of digastric, mandible

Contains salivary lymph nodes, facial artery and vein

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8
Q

Carotid Triangle boundaries

A

Contains common carotid artery bifurcation, internal jugular vein

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9
Q

Bilious emesis, distended abdomen, soap bubble sign

A

Meconium Ileus

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10
Q

first sign of cystic fibrosis

A

meconium ileus

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11
Q

Hard signs of vascular injury

A

active pulsatile hemorrhage
expanding hematoma
bruit/thrill
absent distant pulses
distal ischemia

–> Immediate surgical exploration

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12
Q

Soft Signs of Vascular Injury

A

Persistent local bleeding
Nonpulsatile hematoma
wound near artery
decreased pulses compared to CL sign
any peripheral nerve deficits

–>Further work up (angiography, ABI)

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13
Q

In an APR what is used to guide dissection to connect perineal and pelvic dissections

A

The coccyx

Finger inserted between specimen and coccyx and sept laterally to identify the levator muscles. The levator ani muscles are dissected circumferentially by clamping and dividing them

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14
Q

Who is candidate for Transanal local excision

A

T1 cancer within 8cm of anal verge
<3cm in size
well differentiated
<30% circumference
Mobile, non fixed

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15
Q

ME of milrinone

A

PDE-3 inhibitor
Decrease rate of cAMP degeneration –> increases intracellular cAMP –> increases myocardial contractile mechanism

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16
Q

May Thurner Syndrome

A

Right common iliac artery compresses left common iliac vein at 5th lumbar vertebra results in chronic iliocaval venous occlusion

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17
Q

Symptoms of May Thurner Syndrome

A

Lower extremity swelling
venous claudication
Skin changes due to chronic stasis
acute DVT

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18
Q

Treatment of acute iliofemoral DVT

A

endovascular thrombolysis or mechanical thrombectomy followed by iliac vein stenting

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19
Q

Blood supply of abdominal esophagus

A

Left gastric
Left inferior phrenic artery

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20
Q

Blood supply of cervical esophagus

A

Inferior thyroid artery

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21
Q

Blood supply of thoracic esophagus

A

Branches of bronchial arteries
Branches direct of aorta

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22
Q

First step in laparoscopic right adrenalectomy

A

Divide the right triangular ligament to mobilize right lobe of the liver (superior/medial)

The hepatic flexure retracted inferior

Plane between right adrenal and IVC dissected

Expose adrenal vein, ligate

Followed by exposure of cephalic border, division of inferior phrenic arterial branches to the adrenal gland

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23
Q

Which nerves are most at risk during open inguinal hernia repair

A

iliohypogastric n: between transverse abdomens and internal oblique

ilioinguinal n: between transverse abdomens and internal oblique, passes through superficial inguinal ring anterior to spermatic cord

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24
Q

Describe location of genitofemoral nerve during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair

A

Enters deep inguinal ring w/ cord structures at the level of the iliopubic tract

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25
Q

Pathway of the posterior vagal trunk

A

branches to celiac plexus (continues posterior lesser curve)

branches to the posterior fundus (criminal nerve of Grassi)

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26
Q

Pathway of anterior vagal trunk

A

Sends branches to the liver (hepatic branches) before continuing on to form anterior nerves of Latajet

Nerves terminate at angularis incisura (crow’s foot)

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27
Q

Where is Killian Triangle

A

Mucosal herniation through an area of weakness just superior to the cricopharyngeus muscle

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28
Q

Zenker diverticulum

A

False diverticulum containing mucosa and submucosa

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29
Q

Most common causes of lower GI bleeding in left colon or patients <65

A

Diverticulosis

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30
Q

Most common causes of lower GI bleeding in right colon or patients >65

A

angiodysplasia

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31
Q

First degree burn

A

Confined to epidermis
Painful, Erythematous, Blanch

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32
Q

Superficial Second Degree Burn

A

Dermal Involvement
Painful, Erythematous, Blanch

33
Q

Deep Second Degree Burn

A

Dermis
Painful to pinprick, desensate to light touch, pale, do not blanch

34
Q

Third degree burns

A

Full thickness (epidermis/dermis)
Leathery, Oscar, painless

35
Q

Indications for operative thoracotomy after trauma

A

1) >1500 immediately
2) >200mL/hr for the first 2-4hr
3) hemodynamic instability without another source

36
Q

Cause of amoebic liver abscesses and treatment

A

entamoeba histolytica (non flagellated pseudopod protozoan)

metronidazole

appears as target/double ring sign on CT

37
Q

Diagnosis of chylothorax

A

Fluid triglyceride level of >110mg/dl
Presence of chylomicrons

38
Q

Type II Endoleak

A

Occur from retrograde flow of blood into the aneurysm sac via IMA or lumbar arteries

Management: observation, if >5mm sac expansion then embolization

39
Q

Type 1 endoleak

A

A: Degeneration of proximal landing zone –> tx w/ extending seal zone w/ proximal aortic cuff

B: Degeneration of distal landing zone –> tx w/ extending seal zone w/ iliac limb stent graft

Mnemonic: A for above, B for below

40
Q

Type III Endoleak

A

Leak from overlap sites when using multiple grafts or if there is a tear in the fabric

Tx: relining current end-great

41
Q

Pringle Maneuver

A

Occluding inflow to liver by clamping hepatoduodenal ligament (Portal vein and proper hepatic artery)

42
Q

Minimal vein size for AVF creation

A

3mm

43
Q
A
44
Q

Where do perforations occur during radiologic reduction of intussusceptions

A

In the intussuscipiens (the recipient bowel), 1% incidence, equal rates w/ saline or air enemas

45
Q

Treatment of SCC of anal canal

A

Nigro protcol (5Fu, Mitomycin, Radiation)

Surveillance for 6 months –> APR if persistent

46
Q

Management of access site pseudo aneurysms

A

If uncomplicated/small (<3cm) –> observe

If uncomplicated and >3cm or failure to resolve in 6 weeks –> US guided thrombin or compression

Complicated (Skin necrosis femoral nerve compression) –> primary repair

47
Q

First physiological signs to present in hemorrhagic shock

A

Narrowed pulse pressure

48
Q

Mortality for EVAR vs Open AAA repair

A

EVAR 1.6
Open: 4.8

49
Q

Treatment for SBP

A

3rd generation cephalosporin or fluoroquinolone

50
Q

Most common cancer of upper lip

A

basal cell carcinoma

51
Q

Most common cancer of lower lip

A

squamous cell carcinoma

52
Q

Oxyhemoglobin shifts to the right and what does this mean?

A

Acidosis
Elevated PaCO2
Temperature

Lower affinity for Oxygen

53
Q

MEN2A

A

Pheo
Medullary Thyroid Cancer
Parathyroid hyperplasia

54
Q

MEN 2B

A

Pheo
Medullary Thyroid Cancer
Mucosal Neuromas
Marfanoid Habitus

55
Q

Cause of transudative pleural effusions

A

poorly balanced hydrostatic/osmotic pressure across pleural membrane

56
Q

Which layer of bowel maintains tensile strength

A

Submucosa

57
Q

What structures are at risk during dissection of gastrohepatic ligament

A

Aberrant Left Hepatic Artery
Hepatic branch of the vagus nerve

58
Q

Best prognostic indicator for 5 year survival after resection of metastatic colorectal cancer

A

Pathologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy

59
Q

Management of intersphincteric fistulas

A

fistulotomy as long as there is minimal involvement of external anal sphincter

60
Q

Management of transphincteric fistulas

A

> 30% –> draining seton
<30% –> fistulotomy

61
Q

Prolonged, high doses of vasopressor with abdominal distention

A

Concern for nonexclusive mesenteric ischemia –> Obtain CT angiography

62
Q

Function of renin

A

cleaves angiotensin 1 from angiotensinogen

63
Q

Function of ACE

A

cleaves angiotensin I to angiotensin II which acts to increase vascular tone and blood pressure

64
Q

Radiographic findings of fat necrosis in breast

A

rounded density
lipid cysts
coarse “eggshell” calcifications

65
Q

Constitutional symptoms w/ history of transplant/EBV

A

post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

66
Q

Milan Criteria

A

1) single tumor <5cm or <3 tumors less than <3cm
2) no angioinvasion
3) no extra hepatic involvement

Identifies HCC patients candidates for liver transplant

67
Q

Medical management for HCC that is not resectable

A

Bevacizumab w/ atezolizumab

68
Q

Necessary future liver remnant in HCC for hepatectomy

A

> 40% w/ cirrhosis
20-25% w/o cirrhosis

69
Q

where is the most likely location of a small bowel lymphoma

A

the ileum

70
Q

Z11

A

Ax Dissection is not needed if
T1 or T2 (<5cm)
Clinically node negative
1-2+ LN on SLNB

71
Q

What type of strictureplasty is needed for <10cm strictures

A

Heineken-Mikulicz (longitudinal incision closed transversely)

72
Q

What type of strictureplasty is needed for 10-20cm strictures

A

Finney/Jaboulay

73
Q

What type of strictureplasty is needed for >20cm strictures

A

side-to-side inter peristaltic strictureplasty

74
Q

Ulcer w/ gray white base, causing rectal bleeding, copious mucus discharge, anorectal pain

A

Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome

75
Q

Treatment for solitary rectal ulcer syndrome

A

high fiber diet, lifestyle changes, biofeedback

can consider localized resection

76
Q

Findings associated w/ acutely elevated ICP

A

bradycardia
respiratory depression
hypertension

6th CN palsy –> lateral rectus weakness, side-by-side diplopia

77
Q

Propofol-related infusion syndrome symptoms

A

metabolic acidosis w/ cardiac failure, rhabdomyolysis, kidney failure

78
Q
A