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Surgery > True or False > Flashcards

True or False Flashcards

1
Q

More than 60% of patients with ESRD present acutely and require temporary vascular access for hemodialysis:

A

FALSE

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2
Q

Early hemorrhage after dialysis vascular access surgery is related to technical error or disruption of the anastomosis:

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Cardioplegia involves infusing a hypercalcemic solution into the isolated coronary system, causing diastolic arrest

A

FALSE

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4
Q

The two types of arterial pump are a partially occlusive peristaltic roller pump or a non-occlusive constrained vortex centrifugal pump:

A

TRUE

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5
Q

The preferred arterial cannulation sites for CPB are the ascending aorta and femoral vein:

A

TRUE

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6
Q

Surgery for the tetralogy of Fallot is generally performed at 4-5 months of age when the child weighs 6-7 kg:

A

TRUE

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7
Q

The main cause for abnormal clotting in cardiac patients is the prothrombotic stimulus of the extracorporeal circuits and nonendothelial lined wound to which heparinized blood is exposed:

A

TRUE

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8
Q

Permanent stroke occurs in about 2-5% of all cardiac operations and leads to death in about one in 10 of these:

A

TRUE

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9
Q

In adult cardiac patients, atrial fibrillation occurs in about 10% of patients, typically on the postoperative day:

A

FALSE

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10
Q

X-Ray guided selective adrenal vein sampling is often used in Conn Syndrome to distinguish unilateral from bilateral hypersecretion of aldosterone:

A

TRUE

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11
Q

Thyroid nodules as a new finding occur in 2% of pregnant women:

A

FALSE

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12
Q

Total thyroidectomy is the standard treatment for follicular carcinoma:

A

TRUE

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13
Q

For medullary carcinoma, total thyroidectomy and central compartment lymphadenectomy should be performed:

A

TRUE

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14
Q

Hyperfunctional thyroid nodules require treatment to achieve thyroid homeostasis or euthyroidism:

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Thyroid scintigraphy is useful to investigate the function of solitary nodules:

A

TRUE

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16
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics should be started in almost all circumstances at least 1 hour prior to the first skin incision:

A

FALSE

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17
Q

It is now accepted that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus must be screened for and that screening is effective in reducing the incidence of MRSA infection:

A

TRUE

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18
Q

60% of patients ventilated with septic shock show impaired LV function which is partially correctable with dobutamine:

A

TRUE

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19
Q

The risks of infection for clean and clean-contaminated wounds are low at approximately 1-4% and 3-6% respectively:

A

TRUE

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20
Q

The most common nosocomial infections in surgical patients occur in the urinary tract:

A

TRUE

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21
Q

Genetic factors may help to explain the wide variation in individual response to infection and outcome from sepsis:

A

TRUE

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22
Q

Severe sepsis occurs in 1-2% of all hospitalizations and accounts for a s much as 25% of intensive care unit bed utilization:

A

TRUE

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23
Q

Primary peritonitis is seen after disruption of the GI continuity such as after a perforation with subsequent bacterial infection:

A

FALSE

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24
Q

Numerous clinical trials in advanced disease have confirmed that gastric cancer is not chemosensitive:

A

FALSE

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25
Q

Topical imiquimod appears to be effective in the treatment of small, primary superficial basal cell carcinomas, with reported clearance rates of 82% noted following a 6-week treatment:

A

TRUE

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26
Q

CT is the most important diagnostic imaging tool after mammography:

A

FALSE

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27
Q

Whole-body hypothermia is used mainly for major surgery on the left ventricle, and involves cooling to as low as 15 degrees Celsius:

A

FALSE

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28
Q

Sternal wound infection in about 4% of cardiac surgery in the UK:

A

TRUE

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29
Q

Allergy means the development of a rash or anaphylactic or anaphylactoid reaction and is rarely associated with antibiotic administration:

A

FALSE

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30
Q

The predominant target for prophylactic antibiotics is the bowel:

A

FALSE

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31
Q

As many as 10% of young patients with peripheral artery disease have high homocysteine levels:

A

FALSE

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32
Q

Studies have shown that most chronic ulcers have bacterial colonization and empirical treatment is unlikely to improve outcomes:

A

TRUE

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33
Q

Intra-abdominal sepsis is defined as infection of any intra-abdominal viscus and usually involves the overlying peritoneum:

A

TRUE

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34
Q

Currently, VO2 max remains the single best cardiopulmonary evaluation to predict mortality in heart failure:

A

TRUE

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35
Q

Left heart catheterization should be performed in all potential candidates for heart transplantation to quantify pulmonary vascular resistance:

A

FALSE

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36
Q

Neoadjuvant therapy is drug treatment administered before formal surgical excision with the aim of treating and down-staging a breast cancer:

A

TRUE

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37
Q

Full thickness circumferential burns to the limbs may interfere with peripheral circulation requiring emergency escharotomy:

A

TRUE

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38
Q

Artificial skins provide a tissue-engineered neodermis that becomes vascularized from the underlying wound bed and is then covered with a thin split thickness skin graft over the top:

A

TRUE

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39
Q

Patients with high-voltage burns are at high risk for myonecrosis and myoglobinuria renal failure:

A

TRUE

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40
Q

The ideal candidate for a nipple sparing mastectomy has a multi-centric pre-invasive tumor, located >10 mm from the edge of the areola margin, in a relatively small to medium sized breast:

A

FALSE

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41
Q

Most (>95%) prostate cancers are adenocarcinoma arising from the prostatic epithelium in the peripheral zone (75%):

A

TRUE

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42
Q

Trans-rectal ultrasound scanning is the most commonly used imaging modality for visualizing the prostate:

A

TRUE

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43
Q

Sepsis is defined as the systemic inflammatory response syndrome associated with suspected or confirmed infection:

A

TRUE

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44
Q

The breath test must be deferred for at least a month following Helicobacter Pylori eradication treatment in order to minimize false-negative results:

A

TRUE

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45
Q

Immunosuppression is required for the life of the allograft (kidney) to prevent rejection:

A

TRUE

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46
Q

The gold standard access for hemodialysis is an autogenous arteriovenous fistula (AVF):

A

TRUE

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47
Q

Cryotherapy, suction, tourniquets or electric shock therapy should be used as soon as possible to avoid spread of the snakebite venom:

A

FALSE

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48
Q

The burn patient’s temporary immunodeficiency allows for the cadaveric skin to avoid rejection for several months:

A

TRUE

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49
Q

Bladder cancer is the eighth most common cause of cancer death in the UK:

A

TRUE

50
Q

For advanced testicular cancer cure rates of over 90% can be achieved with low-volume disease and 5-year survival is close to 50% even in poor-risk groups:

A

TRUE

51
Q

Encapsulating sclerosing peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis:

A

FALSE

52
Q

In patients with either failed wrist fistulae in both arms or unsuitable forearm veins, the next step should be brachiobasilic AVF:

A

FALSE

53
Q

The first-order lymph nodes in the retroperitoneum are usually the initial site of metastatic spread, although distant hematogenous dissemination can occur up to 15% of men:

A

TRUE

54
Q

Radical prostatectomy is now mostly performed via a robot-assisted (RARP) technique:

A

FALSE

55
Q

Approximately one in 20 men will be diagnosed with prostate cancer in their lifetime and the lifetime risk of death from this disease is 2-3% in the USA:

A

FALSE

56
Q

Basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma may be a feature in up to 1% of chronic leg ulcers:

A

TRUE

57
Q

Multilayer graduated compression bandaging applied by trained personnel is accepted as the mainstay of treatment for chronic venous ulceration:

A

TRUE

58
Q

Testis-preserving surgery may be undertaken in specific circumstances e.g. synchronous bilateral tumors, metachronous contralateral tumors or in patients with a single testis:

A

TRUE

59
Q

Approximately 5% of patients with chronic limb ischemia will require amputation within 3 months of presentation and up to 10% will die within a year:

A

FALSE

60
Q

Only 1-3% of patients with intermittent claudication will require major amputation within a 5-year period:

A

TRUE

61
Q

The primary imaging modality is ultrasound of the scrotum, which has a sensitivity approaching 100% in experience hands:

A

TRUE

62
Q

Testis cancer is rare, but it is the commonest cause of malignancy in young men:

A

TRUE

63
Q

An aortic aneurysm is defined as a permanent dilatation of the aorta to greater than 50% of the normal diameter:

A

TRUE

64
Q

Patients with mild PAD (peripheral artery disease) may have a normal resting ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) despite a good history of IC (intermittent claudication):

A

TRUE

65
Q

Female carriers of BRCA gene pathogenic variants have a high lifetime risk of developing breast cancer only:

A

FALSE

66
Q

Organs can still be used when the recipient has pre-existing antibodies to the donors HLA antigens:

A

FALSE

67
Q

Long-term immunosuppression increases the risk of malignancy in transplant patients:

A

TRUE

68
Q

Hyperacute rejection occurs within minutes of implantation of the transplant organ due to pre-existing antibodies to the graft:

A

TRUE

69
Q

The excision of the enlarged parathyroid gland is the definitive cure for primary hyperparathyroidism:

A

TRUE

70
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism involves hypercalcemia drive by the inappropriate/high PTH by one or more overactive parathyroid gland:

A

FALSE

71
Q

MEN 2A is characterized by medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, marfanoid habitus and ganglioneuroma of the lips, tongue and gastrointestinal tract:

A

FALSE

72
Q

In the rare instances of uncontrolled bleeding from the bladder despite conservative measures, emergency cystectomy is indicated:

A

TRUE

73
Q

Hyperparathyroidism-jaw tumor syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by HRPT2 inactivating mutation:

A

TRUE

74
Q

All cases selected for elective adult liver transplant must have a projected 2-year survival after transplantation of greater than 50%

A

FALSE

75
Q

Currently the contraindication to liver transplantation include extra hepatic malignancy, multifocal hepatocellular carcinoma or malignant portal vein occlusion, active alcohol or intravenous drug abuse, active sepsis or morbid obesity:

A

TRUE

76
Q

The parietal cells secrete the intrinsic factor:

A

TRUE

77
Q

Axillary nerve blocks are performed at the level of the cords and are used for forearm and surgery:

A

FALSE

78
Q

The 1973 WHO classification describes four groups: papilloma, papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential, and low- and high-grade papillary carcinoma:

A

FALSE

79
Q

Chronic rejection is an important problem with affects 5% of liver transplants

A

TRUE

80
Q

The use of marginal or extended criteria donors has become common in many liver transplantation units due to the increase recipient waiting list numbers:

A

TRUE

81
Q

A subtotal gastrectomy is recommended for an early or well-circumscribed T2 cancer if he proximal edge is more than 2 cm from the esophageal junction:

A

TRUE

82
Q

Split-liver transplantation has yielded results which are inferior to those of whole liver grafts in adults:

A

FALSE

83
Q

The cross-match, performed prior to transplantation, is a test for any preformed antibodies and indicates the likelihood of hyperacute rejection:

A

TRUE

84
Q

Patients may occasionally experience long term hearing loss due to the use of ototoxic medications such as aminoglycosides and diuretics:

A

TRUE

85
Q

Extracorporeal circuits are used in respiratory failure to either improve oxygenation or to reduce hypercapnia:

A

TRUE

86
Q

The use of cardiopulmonary bypass is always required for lung transplantation:

A

FALSE

87
Q

For patients with unresectable malignant pheochromocytoma, combination chemotherapy with cyclophosphamide, vincristine and dacarbazine has a response rate of 80%:

A

FALSE

88
Q

Mitotane is not an effective systemic agent against adrenocortical carcinoma:

A

FALSE

89
Q

Acute cholecystitis is the most common non-obstetric surgical disease of the abdomen during pregnancy:

A

FALSE

90
Q

Asymptomatic hematuria and hemorrhagic cystitis due to infection with BK virus has been described in patients following bone marrow or solid organ transplant, often after renal allograft transplant:

A

TRUE

91
Q

For non-visible hematuria, the presence of more than 10 red cells per high-power field in centrifuged resuspended urine is generally held as significant:

A

FALSE

92
Q

Delusional memories are extremely frequent, and often persecutory and terrifying in nature:

A

TRUE

93
Q

In patients with previous malignancy, transplantation should be postponed for at least 2 years from treatment or remission:

A

TRUE

94
Q

In the transabdominal preperitoneal repair (TAPP), insufflation, repair and mesh placement are all performed in the properitoneal plane:

A

FALSE

95
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are tumor suppressor genes:

A

TRUE

96
Q

Carotid artery stenting is associated with two-fold excess risk of new and persisting MRI lesions compared with carotid endarterectomy:

A

FALSE

97
Q

The first-line treatment of asictes should be spironolactone alone, increasing from 100 mg/day to 400 mg/day:

A

TRUE

98
Q

A CT scan is not helpful in the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction due to Richter’s hernia:

A

FALSE

99
Q

The use of breast conserving therapy in the managment of multifocal and multi-centric tumors is now well established:

A

TRUE

100
Q

Elective lymph node dissection should be performed in all malignant melanoma patients, even if they are clinically node negative:

A

FALSE

101
Q

Munchausen’s syndrome patients can present with a dramatic history of an acute abdomen and simulate the necessary physical signs:

A

TRUE

102
Q

Radiotherapy is effective in the management of primary and recurrent malignant melanoma:

A

FALSE

103
Q

Early laparoscopy can provide a higher diagnostic accuracy and allow treatment in patients with acute abdominal pain of uncertain etiology:

A

TRUE

104
Q

Lidocaine is more potent than bupivacaine and has a longer duration of action, but slower speed of onset:

A

FALSE

105
Q

The catabolic state and immobility associated with critical illness results in progressive muscle wasting of the order of 2% per day:

A

TRUE

106
Q

A number of systematic reviews have failed to demonstrate consistent evidence of clinical benefit of TNP in the managementof pressure ulcers:

A

TRUE

107
Q

Spinal anaesthesia results from the injection of local anaesthetic into the potential space outside the dura, beneath the laminae of the vertebral bodies and their connecting ligament:

A

FALSE

108
Q

Delorme’s procedure can be performed under spinal anaesthesia and is often considered suitable for frail patients with significant co-morbidity:

A

TRUE

109
Q

A trauma patient after a chest contusion with 2 broken ribs with blood saturation of 89% of oxygen measured
percutaneously should always be intubated:

A

FALSE

110
Q

A single instillation of adjuvant intravesical chemotherapy (mitomycin C) within 24 hours after the first resection has been shown to reduce the risk of recurrence and should be considered the standard approach for all superficial bladder cancers:

A

TRUE

111
Q

Urine cytology adds little benefit in the case of patients with persistent haematuria with negative investigations:

A

FALSE

112
Q

The prevalence of urological malignancy in patients with visible haematuria is around 60%:

A

FALSE

113
Q

In the Western world over 90% of primary cancers are urothelial cell carcinoma:

A

TRUE

114
Q

Radical cystectomy plus urinary diversion is the recommended gold standard treatment for muscle invasive disease and high risk non muscle invasive disease unresponsive to Bacille Calmette Guerin therapy:

A

TRUE

115
Q

A 50% NASCET stenosis is equivalent to a 75% ECST lesion, while a 70% NASCET stenosis approximates to an 85% ECST stenosis:

A

TRUE

116
Q

The surgical mortality associated with ruptured AAA is in excess of 40%:

A

TRUE

117
Q

Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin 75 mg/day, in addition to reducing cardiovascular risk, is recommended in AAA disease:

A

TRUE

118
Q

For heart transplantation, the implant procedure begins with anastomosis of donor and recipient right atria:

A

FALSE

119
Q

Patients in cardiogenic shock or those who fail to wean from bypass may require post-CPB support as a bridge
to recovery or transplantation:

A

TRUE

120
Q

Laparoscopic adrenalectomy is indicated for ACTH independent and some ACTH-dependent (after failed pituitary surgery) forms of the disease:

A

TRUE

Surgery (2 decks)

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