True Learn Flashcards
What is the antidote for systemic lidocaine toxicity?
Intralipid
Intralipid is a lipid emulsion therapy given intravenously to treat local anesthetic toxicity. It works by extracting the lipid-soluble components of the local anesthetic, allowing the medication to bind to the emulsion.
What is the most common side effect leading to discontinuation of oxybutinin?
Xerostomia
(dry mouth)
Oxybutynin has many side effects, both locally and systemically, secondary to it anticholinergic properties. The most common of these are xerostomia (dry mouth), constipation, and blurry vision. Less common side effects include tachycardia, urinary retention, photophobia, and hyperthermia.
Which bacterium is more prevalent in patients with an IUD in situ?
Actinomyces
What is the maximum dose of 0.5% and 1% lidocaine without epinephrine?
4 mg/kg
What is the maximum dose of 0.5 and 1% lidocaine with epinephrine?
7 mg/kg
In the US, what percent of women experience attempted or completed rape?
20%
At what age should a woman with BRCA2 complete a prophylactic BSO?
Age 40 - 45
At what age should a women with BRCA1 complete a prophylactic BSO?
Age 35 - 40
What is the risk of ovarian cancer in women with BRCA1 mutation?
40%
What is the risk of ovarian cancer in women with BRCA2 mutation?
20%
How many episodes of vulvovaginal candidiasis per year is considered recurrent?
4+
What is the treatment for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis?
Intensive therapy for 10 - 14 days, followed by weekly therapy for 6 months
An effective regimen is fluconazole every 3 days for initial remission. This therapy should be followed up with weekly fluconazole for 6 months.
What is the minimum progesterone level that signifies ovulation has occurred?
2 ng/mL
A serum progesterone level is the simplest and most direct way to measure whether ovulation has occurred. It is best drawn approximately 7 days before the expected onset of the next menses.
What is the amenorrhea rate in Mirena IUD users in the first year?
20%
Which of the following gene mutations is often tested in the workup of primary ovarian insufficiency?
FMR1
Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI) is defined as the development of hypergonadotropic hypogonadism before the age of 40 years and is most commonly caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene. This gene is also responsible for Fragile X syndrome.
