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ARRT preperation > Trouble Questions > Flashcards

Trouble Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following radiation dosimeters uses aluminum oxide to absorb and store the x-ray energy?

A. Film badge
B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
C. Pocket dosimeter
D. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter

A

D

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental property of an x-ray beam?

A. Travels in a straight line
B. Travels at the speed of light
C. Is negatively charged
D. Capable of ionizing atoms

A

C

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3
Q

What is the maximum amount of leakage radiation that can escape from and X-ray tube?

A. 1 mGy/hr/meter
B. 2 mGy/hr/meter
C. 3 mGy/hr/meter
D. 4 mGy/hr/meter

A

A

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4
Q

What is the device called that regulates the amount of IV fluid given to a patient and the time of infusion?

A. Intravenous meter
B. Infusion pump
C. Ventilator
D. Fluidmanometer

A

B

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5
Q

A flat panel detector is exposed with nothing between the X-ray tube and detector. The pixel readings of different regions of interest(ROÍ) across the detector are averaged and compared. What quality control test was performed?

A. Detectability
B. Linearity
C. Repeatability
D. Uniformity

A

D

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6
Q

Which of the following defines photoemission? Emission of…

A. Light when stimulated by electrons
B. Light when heated
C. Electrons when stimulated by light
D. Electrons from a heated wire

A

C

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7
Q

After a barium enema, you notice that the sheets have fecal material and blood on them. What should be done with the sheets?

A. Place them in a leak proof linen bag
B. Place them in a red biohazard bag
C. Place them in a red bag and then put them in a leak-proof linen bag
D. Double bag them

A

A

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8
Q

Which of the following techniques will produce the greatest receptor exposure?

A. 100 mA, 50 ms, 80 kVp
B. 200 mA, 50 ms, 70 kVp
C. 300 mA, 30 ms, 80kVp
D. 400 mA, 25 ms, 70 kVp

A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the patient was overexposed?

A. 2.2
B. 2000
C. 100
D. 200

A

C

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10
Q

Automatic rescaling means the values of interest were determined by the histogram are use to produce digital images with the proper:

A. Brightness
B. Contrast
C. Spatial resolution
D. Size and shape

A

A

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11
Q

failure to collimated accurately while using AEC may result in a radiograph that is:

A. Underexposed
B. Overexposed
C. Lacking spatial resolution
D. Magnified

A

A

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12
Q

Where should the CR enter for an AP projection during an operative cholangiogram?

A. At the level of the iliac crest
B. At the level of the ASIS
C. At the xiphoid tip
D. Where the surgeon indicates

A

D

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13
Q

To help the technologist determine if the proper exposure was used, an exposure indicator number is generated from the histogram. What is the proper exposure for a photostimulable phosphor plate?

A. 1mR
B. 2 mR
C. 4 mR
D. 8 mR

A

A

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14
Q

While using a c-arm, fluoroscopic unit, which of the following will reduce radiation exposure to the patient the most?

A. Placing the X-ray tube as close to the patient as possible
B. Placing the image intensification tube as close to the patient as possible
C. Placing the patient mid-way between the X-ray tube and the image intensification tube
D. Increase fluoroscopic mA

A

B

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15
Q

What is the most proximal end of the fibula called?

A. Apex
B. Head
C. Neck
D. Lateral malleolus

A

A

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16
Q

For a position of the L5-S1 lateral spot, the central ray enters on the midcoronal plane at a point:

A. 1 1/2” inferior to the iliac crest
B. 2 1/2” superior to the iliac crest
C. 3 1/2” inferior to the iliac crest
D. Directly on the iliac crest

A

A

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17
Q

The margin of error a radiographer has in setting his/her technical factors and still obtaining a diagnostic quality image is known as what?

A. Luck
B. Technical margin
C. Exposure latitude
D. Error area

A

C

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18
Q

Non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast media:

A. Contains no iodine
B. Produces no adverse reaction
C. Does not dissolve into charged particles
D. Is less expensive than ionic, water-soluble contrast media

A

C

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19
Q

Which of the following refers to the movement of the imaging plate as it is being read by the laser?

A. Fast scan
B. Slow scan
C. Direction
D. Sliding

A

B

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20
Q

How much should the patient be rotated for an RPO position during intravenous urography?

A. 10 degrees
B. 20 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. 45 degrees

A

C

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21
Q

Many contrast media procedures require fasting and laxatives, which of the following patient types should be done first?

A. Children
B. Adults
C. Debilitated patient
D. Diabetic patient

A

C

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22
Q

Which of the following refers to the kinetic energy released in matter?

A. Exposure rate
B. Kerma
C. Bremsstrahlung
D. Kines

A

B

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23
Q

Which of the following will best demonstrate the right sternoclavicular joint?

A. 10-15 degree LAO
B. 10-15 degree RAO
C. 20-25 degree LAO
D. 20-25 degree RAO

A

B

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24
Q

AP weight bearing knees are ordered to demonstrate which of the following pathologies?

A. Tibial plateau fracture
B. Arthritis
C. Edema
D. Torn meniscus

A

B

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25
Q

Where is the needle placed fo a lumbar puncture during a myelogram?

A. T12-L1
B. L1-L2
C. L3- L4
D. L5-S1

A

C

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26
Q

A patient suddenly has difficulty breathing, what is the first thing a radiographer must do?

A. Lie the patient supine
B. Call for help
C. Administer oxygen
D. Begin CPR

A

B

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27
Q

Which of the following would be considered an advantage of the air-gap technique?

A. Less distortion of the anatomical part
B. Lower contrast on the radiograph
C. Less radiation to the patient
D. Greater filtration of the x-ray beam

A

C

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28
Q

Scatter radiation will have the greatest effect on which of these radiographic qualities?

A. Spatial resolution
B. Distortion
C. Receptor exposure
D. Contrast

A

D

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29
Q

What is it called when part of a patients bronchial tree is blocked, causing a collapse?

A. Pneumothorax
B. Atelectasis
C. Hemothorax
D. Plural effusion

A

B

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30
Q

Which of the following positions/projections best demonstrates the esophagus filled with barium?

A. AP
B. LAO
C. RAO
D. Right lateral decubitus

A

C

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31
Q

A patient restraint:

  1. Is typically in use before the patient arrives at the radiology department.
  2. Would include using tape to help a child stay still during a hand study.
  3. Might include a vest with straps that are tied to a stretcher

A. 1&2 only
B. 1&3 only
C. 2&3 only
D. 1,2 &3

A

B

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32
Q

Geometric unsharpness is directly proportional to which of the following?

  1. SID
  2. OID
  3. SOD

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1&3 only
D. 1,2&3

A

B

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33
Q

What is the minimum number of persons needed for a stretcher-to-table transfer when using a draw sheet?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

C

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34
Q

Which of the following would relate to an image having low contrast?

  1. Long scale
  2. Many shades of gray
  3. High mAs

A. 1&2 only
B. 1&3 only
C. 2&3 only
D. 1,2&3

A

A

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35
Q

Which of the following publications recommends limits of exposure to ionizing radiation?

A. NCRP #100
B. NCRP #102
C. NCRP #105
D. NCRP #116

A

D

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36
Q

The term intrathecal refers to an injection into which of the following anatomical areas?

A. Vein
B. Artery
C. Muscle
D. Spinal canal

A

D

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37
Q

How many times must the primary beam scatter before reaching the radiographer begin the control booth?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B

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38
Q

When imaging an average patient, DO NOT use over______kVp when using iodinated contrast media.

A. 50
B. 70
C. 90
D. 99

A

B

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39
Q

Morbid obesity falls into which category?

A. 10 BMI
B. 15 BMI
C. Over 20 BMI
D. Over 30 BMI

A

D

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40
Q

If the SID is 40” and the OID is 8”, what is the magnification factor?

A. 1.25
B. 1.55
C. 5.00
D. 5.25

A

A

Magnification factor= SID/SOD.
SOD= SID-OID

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41
Q

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?

A. AP
B. 15-20 degree medial oblique
C. 45 degree medial oblique
D. Lateral

A

C

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42
Q

After a myelogram, the patient may be taken to______for additional studies while the contrast is still in the subarachnoid space.

A. CT
B. MRI
C. Sonography
D. Nuclear medicine

A

A

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43
Q

Which of the following is the most common site for measuring a patient’s pulse?

A. Brachial artery
B. Subclavian artery
C. Radial artery
D. Carotid artery

A

C

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44
Q

Nausea, vomiting and headache are reactions to contrast media that are considered:

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Extreme

A

A

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45
Q

Which of the following affect the attenuation of the x-ray beam?

  1. Thickness of body part(density)
  2. Type of tissue(atomic number)
  3. Speed of the photon

A. 1 only
B. 1&2 only
C. 1&3 only
D. 1,2&3

A

B

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46
Q

What dose-response curve represents diagnostic x-rays?

A

Linear non-threshold dose-response relationship

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47
Q

To reduce scatter radiation, thereby producing higher contrast, which of the following must be increased?

A. KVp
B. Beam restriction
C. Focal spot size
D. Patient thickness

A

B

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48
Q

With CR, what percentage of the electrons that are originally released in the imaging plate are trapped to form the latent image?

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 90%

A

C

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49
Q

Which of the following terms are matched correctly?

  1. Short grayscale-high contrast
  2. Short grayscale-greater visibility of detail
  3. Long grayscale-several shades of gray

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1&2 only
D. 1,2&3

A

D

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50
Q

Approximately what energy Characteristic x-ray is produced when a k-shell electron is removed from a tungsten target?

A. 35 keV
B. 55 keV
C. 75 keV
D. 95 keV

A

B

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51
Q

What type of joint is freely movable?

A. Synarthroidal
B. Amphiarthrodial
C. Diarthrodial
D. Movarthrodial

A

C

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52
Q

Which position/projection of the elbow demonstrates the ole Ramon process free of superimposition?

A. AP
B. 45 degree medial oblique
C. 45 degree lateral oblique
D. Lateral

A

D

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53
Q

Which of the following usually determines how a patient feels about his imaging procedure?

A. The ability of the radiographer
B. The communication skills of the radiographer
C. The length of the wait before the procedure
D. The dress of the radiographer

A

B

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54
Q

The amount of IV iodinated contrast given to young children should be based on their:

A. Gender
B. Height
C. Weight
D. Age

A

C

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55
Q

Which of the following occurs when changing from a 9” mode to a 6” mode in a multifield image intensifier?

A. Brightness increases
B. Field of view increases
C. Magnification decreases
D. Resolution increases

A

D

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56
Q

The spinal cord passes through the______foramen.

A. Intervertebral
B. Vertebral
C. Obturator
D. Transverse

A

B

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57
Q

Excessive noise suppression of a digital image can result in which of the following problems?

A. Loss of spatial resolution
B. Loss of brightness
C. Loss of contrast
D. Overexposure

A

A

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58
Q

When viewed from the anatomic position, the natural curve of the lumbar spine is classified as what type?

A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Spondylotic
D. Scoliotic

A

B

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59
Q

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the patient was overexposed?

A. 2.2
B. 2300
C. 200
D. 400

A

B

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60
Q

Where should the fetal dosimeter be placed on a pregnant technologist?

A. On the collar,outside the protective apron
B. On the collar, under the protective apron
C. At waist level, outside the protective apron
D. At waist level, under the protective apron

A

D

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61
Q

To obtain a nephrogram, the radiographer would have to take an image how long after injection of the contrast media?

A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

A

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62
Q

According to the code of federal regulations title 21 (21CFR), which of the following is a fluoroscopic primary protective barrier?

A. Protective drapes
B. Bucky slot cover
C. Imaging assembly
D. All of the above

A

C

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63
Q

High kVp techniques produce less exposure to the patient. What is a disadvantage to high kVp techniques?

A. More scatter radiation is produced
B. Images will have too much contrast
C. Greater damage to the X-ray tube
D. The small focal spot cannot be used

A

A

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64
Q

Medication reconciliation refers to:

A. Not giving a patient medication if it not the right one for the exam
B. Determining whether the medications a patient is taking are the right ones for them
C. Reviewing the medications a patient is taking and determining if there are any concerns for administering contrast media
D. All of the above

A

C

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65
Q

Radiographing an infants chest table top rather than using the Bucky will reduce the infants exposure by how much?

A. 2x
B. 3x
C. 5x
D. 7x

A

C

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66
Q

Grids used for computed radiography (CR) must have a grid frequency higher than:

A. 50 lines per inch
B. 100 lines per inch
C. 150 lines per inch
D. 200 lines per inch

A

C

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67
Q

How thick should the lead be in a wall of a diagnostic x-ray room?

A. 1/16”
B. 1/4”
C. 1.2”
D. 3/4”

A

A

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68
Q

For a patient needing the following imaging exams, which one of them should be scheduled last?

A. Lumbar spine
B. Upper GI series
C. Lower GI series
D. intravenous urography

A

B

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69
Q

On one of the busiest days you can remember, a radiologist and a physician approach you and ask you if you would do a quick chest exam on the physician. You know that there are at least two stat exams on patients in the ER. Which of the following is the appropriate response?

A. You tell the doctors that you cannot do an exam without written requisition
B. You quickly set up your room and do the chest exam on the physician
C. You politely explain that there are STAT requests for ER patients who have been waiting to be examined and as soon as you complete those you will page the physician
D. You abruptly turn around and walk away

A

C

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70
Q

A magnifying glass can be used to evaluate which of the following monitor qualities?

A. Ambient light
B. Contrast
C. Luminance
D. Spatial resolution

A

D

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71
Q

Which of the following refers to the movement of the laser beam across the CR imaging plate during the reading process?

A. Fast scan
B. Slow scan
C. Matrix scan
D. Sweeping

A

A

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72
Q

Which of the following people are authorized to order imaging examinations?

  1. Physician or radiologist
  2. Triage nurse in the ER
  3. Radiologic technologist

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1,2 &3

A

A

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73
Q

Which of the following materials is used in a flat panel detector to convert x-ray photons into an electrical charge?

A. Cesium iodide
B. Amorphous silicon
C. Amorphous selenium
D. Gadolinium oxysulfide

A

C

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74
Q

Which of the following positions could be used to demonstrate a calcified abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A. Supine
B. Lateral
C. Right lateral decubitus
D. Lordotic

A

B

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75
Q

The trochlea is part of which of the following bones?

A. Mandible
B. Tibia
C. Ulna
D. Humerus

A

D

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76
Q

Which of the following individuals are not protected by the patients bill of rights?

A. Patients who are immigrants
B. Pediatric patients
C. Geriatric patients
D. Indigent patients

A

B

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77
Q

A left wrist is ordered but the right wrist is bruised and swollen. What would you do?

A. Radiograph the left wrist
B. Radiograph the right wrist
C. Question the patient
D. Question the doctor who ordered the exam

A

D

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78
Q

How can the production of scatter radiation be reduced?

  1. Increase kVp
  2. Use close collimation
  3. Increase beam filtration

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1,2 &3

A

B

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79
Q

Which of the following beam filters will have the greatest effect on reducing skin and organ exposure?

A. 2.5 mm Al
B. .20 mm Cu + 1 mm Al
C. .03 mm Mo + 1 mm Al
D. .03 mm Rh

A

B

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80
Q

How does saturation appear on a digital image?

A. Black, no anatomical details are visible
B. White, no anatomical details are visible
C. Grainy
D. Blurry

A

A

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81
Q

While positioning a patient for a PA chest he tells you he has had his left lung removed. Which photocell(s) would you activate on the AEC?

A. Both outside cells
B. The center cell
C. The right cell
D. The right and center cell

A

C

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82
Q

Which of the following protective devices requires more than .25 mm Pb equivalent?

A. Fluoroscopy protective drapes
B. Fluoroscopy protective Bucky slot
C. Fluoroscopy protective gloves
D. Fluoroscopy protective apron

A

D

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83
Q

What is it called when a primary photon changes direction but NOT energy?

A. Coherent (Classical) scatter
B. Modified scattering
C. Compton effect
D. Photoelectric absorption

A

A

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84
Q

Contrast THAT IS A RESULT OF ANATOMICAL AND PATHALOGICAL FACTORS IS KNOWN AS:

A. AP contrast
B. A & P contrast
C. Subject contrast
D. Patient contrast

A

C

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85
Q

Where is the exact location of the optic foramen?

A. Base of the skull
B. Base of the orbit
C. apex of the orbit
D. Posterior to the sella turcica

A

C

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86
Q

Which of the following determines the grayscale in a digital image?

A. Look-up table
B. Histogram
C. NyQuist frequency
D. MTF

A

A

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87
Q

Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate for warming-up an X-ray tube?

A. 50 mA, 2 seconds, 70 kVp, large focal spot
B. 200 mA, 1 second, 90 kVp, large focal spot
C. 100 mA, 1 second, 90 kVp, small focal spot
D. 400 mA, .5 seconds, 70 kVp, small focal spot

A

A

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88
Q

Which tarsal bone articulates with the 3rd metatarsal?

A. Medial (1st) cuneiform
B. Lateral (3rd) cuneiform
C. 1st metatarsal
D. 3rd cuboid

A

B

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89
Q

If a mobile unit chest image CANNOT be done erect, what is the next best position?

A. Supine
B. 45 degree erect
C. Lateral decubitus
D. Dorsal decubitus

A

A

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90
Q

It is important for a radiographer to recognize shock. Which of the following blood pressures would indicate the patient is in shock?

A. 90/45
B. 140/100
C. 120/80
D. 160/110

A

A

91
Q

For an axiolateral position of the hip, where is the CR directed?

A. Parallel to the body of the femur
B. Parallel to the neck of the femur
C. Perpendicular to the neck of the femur
D. Perpendicular to the acetabulum

A

C

92
Q

Which of the following positions/projections are superior in terms of radiation protection?

  1. PA rather than AP c-spine examinations
  2. PA rather than AP for juvenile scoliosis examinations
  3. PA rather than AP skull examinations

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A

D

93
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of an x-ray beam?

A. Cause the fluorescence (the emission of light) of certain crystals
B. Can be focused by a lens
C. Produce chemical and biological changes
D. Produce scatter radiation

A

B

94
Q

What are the first physical signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to contrast medium?

  1. Apprehension
  2. Itching, sneezing
  3. Tightness in the chest

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A

D

95
Q

While using AEC, the radiographer wants to increase the exposure of the previous radiograph. Which of the following would need to be done?

A. Increase mA
B. Increase kVp
C. Increase the back-up-time
D. Increase the density control

A

D

96
Q

Primary radiation barriers in walls must be_____high and_____thick

A. 6feet, 1/32”
B. 6 feet, 1/16”
C. 7 feet, 1/32”
D. 7 feet, 1/16”

A

D

97
Q

Which of the following can occur when the central ray is not aligned perpendicular to the image receptor?

  1. Image improperly positioned
  2. Collimating off critical anatomy
  3. Distortion

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 2 &3 only

A

C

98
Q

Why was the genetically significant dose (GSD) statistic developed? To estimate…

A. What it takes to produce a mutation
B. What it takes to sterilize a person
C. The radiation dose to the general population
D. The radiation dose to the population gene pool

A

C

99
Q

According to the code of federal regulations title 21 (21 CFR), mobile unit C-arm fluoroscopic systems manufactured after June 10, 2006 and having a maximum SID of less than 45 cm shall be labeled:

A. Radioactive
B. For extremity use only
C. Caution, short SID
D. Maximum SSD required

A

B

100
Q

The patient is prone, the knee is slowly flexed to form a 55 degree angle from the table, the CR is angled 45 degrees and directed to the Patellofemoral joint. Which position of the patella does this describe?

A. Hughston
B. Merchant
C. Settegast
D. Grashey

A

A

101
Q

It is recommended that the signature of a patient on an informed consent form should be witnessed by which of the following individuals?

A. The radiographer doing the procedure
B. The radiologist responsible for the procedure
C. A family member of the patient
D. A healthcare worker who is not involved in the procedure

A

D

102
Q

The American heart association’s guidelines for CPR emphasizes at least_____chest compressions per minute.

A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200

A

C

103
Q

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

A. Lacrimal
B. Zygoma
C. Ethmoid
D. Vomer

A

C

104
Q

When using AEC, equipped with three ionization chambers, which ionization chamber(s) should be activated when doing a PA chest?

A. Center chamber
B. Right lateral chamber
C. Both lateral chambers
D. All three chambers

A

C

105
Q

Excessive edge enhancement of a digital image can result in which of the following problems?

A. Loss of spatial resolution
B. Loss of contrast
C. Halo artifact
D. Dead pixels

A

C

106
Q

During the gestation period, a pregnant radiographer should NOT receive more than_____per month.

A. .05 msv
B. .10 msv
C. .50 msv
D. 1.0 msv

A

C

107
Q

What is the effective dose limit fo a non-radiation worker?

A. 2.5 mSv/year
B. 5.0 mSv/year
C. 12 mSv/year
D. 25 mSv/year

A

B

108
Q

What is the study of unacceptable radiographs called?

A. Reject analysis
B. Witch hunting
C. Image evaluation
D. Waste summary

A

A

109
Q

Which of the following should be done to best visualize the sternum?

  1. Shallow breathing
  2. Short SID
  3. Shallow RAO

A. 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 &3

A

C

110
Q

If you go from a Bucky technique (12:1 ratio grid) to a table-top technique (non-grid), how many times less radiation will be necessary?

A. 2x
B. 3x
C. 4x
D. 5x

A

D

Look up grid ratio information

111
Q

Federal regulations for stationary fluoroscopy state that the target-to-tabletop distance should NOT be less than how many inches?

A. 6”
B. 15”
C. 18”
D. 24”

A

B

112
Q

Because of the anode heel effect, where is the intensity of the x-ray beam the greatest?

A. At the anode end
B. At the cathode end
C. At the rotor end
D. In the center of the beam

A

B

113
Q

An inanimate object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms is classified as which of the following?

A. Vector
B. Vomite
C. Host
D. Reservoir

A

B

Things like linen, cassettes, and the x-ray table

114
Q

Photostimulable phosphor plates CANNOT be cleaned with water because:

A. Water cannot penetrate the protective coating
B. Water will dissolve the photostimulable phosphor
C. Water will discolor the plates causing artifacts
D. Water will cause the latent image to leak out

A

C

Photostimulable phosphor can only be cleaned with anhydrous ethyl alcohol. Anhydrous means lacking water

115
Q

Which of the following pathological conditions would produce the longest scale of contrast?

A. Osteoporosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Osteosclerosis
D. Osteoma

A

A

Reduction of bone mass reduces the amount of x-ray absorption resulting a longer scale of contrast

116
Q

The higher the energy of the x-ray the:

A. Greater the quantity
B. Breather the speed
C. Higher the frequency
D. Longer the wavelength

A

C

Frequency means how frequently does an x-ray change from electric to magnetic fields. The more energy an x-ray has the faster it can regenerate its electromagnetic fields.

117
Q

If the infraorbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor for an AP axial (towne) projection of the skull, how much caudad angle is required?

A. 25 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 37 degrees
D. 45 degrees

A

C

OML 30 degrees

IOML 37 degrees

118
Q

What is the medical term for a collapsed lung?

A. Pleural effusion
B. Pneumothorax
C. Atelectasis
D. Hemothorax

A

C

Collapsed or airless condition of the lung

119
Q

Which of the following physical signs and symptoms would indicate that a patient needs suctioning?

  1. Gurgling sounds
  2. Drooling
  3. Facial paralysis

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 &2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A

C

120
Q

What must the radiographer do to correct a radiograph that had the proper brightness but demonstrated excessive quantum noise?

A. Increase kVp, decrease mAs and leave all other factors the same
B. Decrease kVp, increase mAs and leave all other factors the same
C. Change to a slower speed class and leave all other factors the same
D. Decrease SID and leave all other factors the same

A

B

Quantum noise is the result of too few x-rays striking the receptor exposure, causing a grainy appearance on the image.

121
Q

How much must the CR be angled for a carpal canal (tunnel) projection of the wrist if the long axis of the fingers and metacarpals are vertical to the cassette?

A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees

A

B

122
Q

An increase in beam filtration will have which of the following effects?

A. A higher energy useful beam will be produced
B. A lower energy useful beam will be produced
C. Less x-rays will be produced
D. Useful beam energy will not be affected

A

A

As beam filtration is increased, lower energy x-rays are absorbed. This produces a useful beam with higher energy.

123
Q

How well and imaging system reproduces the actual object is referred to as what?

A. Modulation transfer function
B. Resolving power
C. Lines per inch
D. Linear image transfer

A

A

MTF measures the information lost between the actual object and the recorded image. It is controlled by how well the x-ray image is converted into visible image

124
Q

Contrast resolution is a major advantage of digital imaging. What determines high contrast resolution in digital imaging?

A. High exposure and low noise
B. Low exposure and high noise
C. High exposure and high resolution
D. High resolution and low noise

A

A

Contrast resolution is the ability to distinguish between the various tissues of the acquired image. Known as the signal to noise ratio, a high exposure will produce low noise and allow the software to visualize tissues

125
Q

According to the code of federal regulations title 21 (21 CFR) for fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006, neither the length nor the width of the x-ray field shall exceed the size of the image receptor by more than______percent of the SID

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

3

Furthermore, the sum of the excess length and excess width shall be no greater than 4% of the SID

126
Q

While working with a geriatric patient, which of the following should be checked while doing an imaging procedure?

A. Limb color
B. Distal pulses
C. Temperature
D. All of the above

A

D

Especially during trauma cases

127
Q

Which of the following pathologies are well visualized on a double contrast barium enema?

A. Cholecystitis
B. Hiatal hernia
C. Polyps
D. Gastritis

A

C

Detecting polyps early is key to preventing colon cancer

128
Q

An AP axial projection of the rectosigmoid segment of the large intestine requires the central ray to be angled:

A. 10-20 degrees caudad
B. 10-20 degrees cephalad
C. 30-40 degrees caudad
D. 30-40 degrees cephalad

A

D

A 30-40 degree cephalad angle will provide an elongated rectosigmoid segment of the large intestine

129
Q

How many shades of gray can be displayed with a bit depth of 10 bits?

A. 512
B. 1024
C. 2048
D. 4096

A

B

10 bits is raised to the 10th power or 1024

Look up bit depth

130
Q

Which of the following is a byproduct of photoelectric absorption?

  1. Bremsstrhlung radiation
  2. Photoelectron
  3. Recoil electron

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 &3 only
D. 1, 2 &3

A

B

The photon gets completely absorbed by the electron resulting in a photoelectron

131
Q

Which two bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A. Clavicle and humerus
B. Clavicle and scapula
C. Scapula and humerus
D. Scapula and sternum

A

B

The purpose of the shoulder girdle (clavicle and scapula) is support for the arm (humerus)

132
Q

When checking the safety of protective leaded apparel with a calibrated test object on a cassette, which of the following is correct?

A. The test object is lighter than the apron
B. The test object is darker than the apron
C. The test object should not be visualized
D. The apron should not be visualized

A

B

With the leaded apron and test object side-by-side, the leaded apron is considered safe if it is lighter that the test object. If it was darker, it would mean it was letting to much radiation through

133
Q

If a technologist is not involved in fluoroscopy, where can the radiation be worn?

  1. Collar
  2. Waist
  3. Sleeve

A. 1 only
B. 1 &2 only
C. 2 &3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A

B

134
Q

Where is the most common place along the length of a ureter for a kidney stone to hang up?

A. Renal pelvis
B. Ureteropelvic junction
C. Ureterovesical junction
D. Urethra

A

C

The other two constrictions where kidney stones could possibly hang up are the ureteropelvic junction and the pelvic brim

135
Q

What is the purpose of having aluminum filters in a film badge type dosimeter?

A. To absorb high energy x rays
B. To hold the film in place
C. To prevent scatter radiation from fogging the film
D. To estimate radiation energy

A

D

The filters are there to help estimate the energy of the radiation that struck the badge. In this way they can tell if it was secondary (scatter of leakage), primary, or gamma

136
Q

The health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA) states that any information that identifies a patient known as:

A. Protected health information (PHI)
B. Private patient information (PPI)
C. Secure patient information (SPI)
D. Confidential health information(CHI)

A

A

137
Q

In digital imaging, nyquist is referring to which of the following?

A. The efficiency of the flat panel detector
B. The accuracy of the histogram
C. The sampling frequency of the digital data
D. The brightness of the laser beam

A

C

The nyquist frequency for most manufacturers samples data every 170 micrometers

138
Q

Scatter radiation will increase in which of the following?

  1. Patient size
  2. KVp
  3. Atomic number of tissue

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A

A

139
Q

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the left colic (splenic) flexure?

A. LAO
B. RAO
C. Supine
D. AP axial

A

A

140
Q

Which of the following examinations would involve the greatest exposure and therefore, be considered the highest risk for female patients?

A. Abdomen
B. Chest
C. Lumbar spine
D. Skull

A

C

Lumbar exam is 721 mR
BE is considered highest at 903 mR/exam

141
Q

Equalization can be applied to a digital image to improve which of the following?

A. Visibility of details
B. Spatial resolution
C. Noise
D. Sharpness of detail

A

A

142
Q

When should water soluble contrast agent, such as gastrografin, be used instead of barium?

  1. When there is a possibility of a perforated ulcer
  2. When a patient is under one year old
  3. When a ruptured appendix is suspected

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1,2 & 3

A

B

143
Q

Which of the following hospital personnel is considered “qualified” to interpret radiation monitoring reports?

A. Registered staff radiographer
B. Chief technologist
C. Certified medical physicist
D. Hospital administrator

A

C

144
Q

Where would the CR enter for a cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral on a patient with a suspected hip fracture?

A. Acetabulum
B. Iliac crest
C. Intertrochanteric crest
D. Femoral neck

A

D

145
Q

In the case of an electrical emergency, which of the following should be done immediately?

A. Turn off the lights
B. Turn off the control panel
C. Turn off the main breaker switch
D. Call the hospital maintenance department

A

C

146
Q

Which of the following post processing techniques could be used while evaluating a digital image for central line placement within the mediastinum?

A. Brighten the image
B. Equalize the image
C. Magnify the image
D. Invert the image

A

D

147
Q

Which of the following will put the humerus in a true AP projection?

A. Addusction
B. Abduction
C. AP internal rotation
D. AP external rotation

A

D

148
Q

Cystography is a radiographic extermination of which anatomical part?

A. Bladder
B. Gallbladder
C. Spleen
D. Stomach

A

A

Cystography is done by injecting contrast media through a urethral catheter into the urinary bladder

149
Q

Which of the following would be found in a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)?

A. Aluminum filter
B. Copper filter
C. Lithium fluoride crystal
D. Zinc cadmium sulfide screen

A

C

When exposed to radiation, the TLD absorbs energy and stores it in the form of excited electrons in the lithium fluoride crystalline lattice. When heated, these excited electrons fall back to their normal orbital state with emission of visible light. The intensity of light is proportional to the radiation dose received

150
Q

For an AP projection of the sacroiliac joints, the CR enters on the midsagital plane at what angle?

A. 10 to 15 degrees caudad
B. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad
C. 30 to 35 degrees caudad
D. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad

A

D

This position shows the sacroiliac joints, lumbosacral joint and the entire sacrum

151
Q

While doing an erect abdomen image, the patient warns you that he/she is about to faint. What should be your first reaction?

A. Run for help
B. Finish the exam as quickly as possible
C. Sit the patient on the image table and put their head between their legs
D. Carefully lower the patinet to the floor and have him/her lie down

A

D

152
Q

In digital imaging, even though mAs is the controlling factor for receptor exposure, what advantage does the kVp 15% rule have in the adjustment of receptor exposure?

  1. Shorter exposure times are possible
  2. Decreased patient dose
  3. Greater exposure latitude

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1,2 & 3

A

D

The 15% rule states a 15% increase in kVp will double the receptor exposure. By increasing kVp 15%, one can cut the time in half, thereby decreasing patient dose. High kVp techniques provide greater margin for error (latitude)

153
Q

Which of the following sequences of examinations is correct?

A. Gallbladder sonography, upper GI, Barium Enema
B. Upper GI, gallbladder sonography, nuclear medicine scan
C. Gallbladder sonography, barium enema, upper GI
D. Gallbladder sonography, upper GI, nuclear medicine

A

C

The gallbladder sonography and nuclear medicine scans need to be done before any barium is placed in the body. Then the BE, because that barium wont interfere with the UGI the following day

154
Q

Where does the CR enter for a PA finger only projection of the 3rd digit?

A. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint
B. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint
C. 3rd distal interphalangeal joint
D. 3rd carpophalangeal joint

A

B

155
Q

How much should the patient be obliqued for a scapular Y position of the shoulder?

A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 75 degrees

A

C

The scapular Y position is used to rule out dislocation or fractures of the proximal humerus

156
Q

You received the requests for the following procedures all at the same time. In what sequence would you perform these procedures?

  1. UGI series on pediatric patient
  2. Ankle radiograph from the emergency room
  3. Lumbar spine on outpatient

A. 1, 2 then 3
B. 2, 1 then 3
C. 2, 3 then 1
D. 3, 1 then 2

A

B

Emergency patients are always first. Then pediatric and geriatric patients who are fasting. Followed by routine imaging procedures

157
Q

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right colic flexure of the colon?

A. Right lateral
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. RAO
D. LAO

A

C

The RAO position best demonstrates the right colic flexure and the LAO best demonstrates the left colic flectores

158
Q

Which of the following tarsal bones articulates with the talus anteriorly?

A. Calcaneus
B. Cuboid
C. Cuneiform
D. Navicular

A

D

Study bones of the foot and hand

159
Q

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate a right pleural effusion?

A. Right lateral
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Right posterior oblique
D. AP semierect

A

B

Pleural effusion is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity. It is best demonstrated with the affected side down, in this case the right side

160
Q

What is the average pulse rate for an adult?

A. 30-40 beats per minute
B. 50-60 beats per minute
C. 70-80 beats per minute
D. 90-99 beats per minute

A

C

An adults pulse rate under normal conditions would be 70 beats per minute; higher when active or under stress

161
Q

Which of the following matrix sizes is necessary to produce adequate spatial resolution for digital chest radiography?

A. 256x256
B. 512x512
C. 1024x1024
D. 2048x2048

A

D

162
Q

How does the SNR affect the quality of a digital image?

A. SNR has no effect on image quality
B. When the signal and noise are equal, the quality is the best
C. The lower the SNR the better quality of the image
D. The higher the SNR the better the quality of the image

A

D

The signal refers to the x-ray exposure incident on the image receptor. Noise is the grainy appearance in an image. If the signal is high enough, the noise will be covered up

163
Q

How many phalanges are there in each foot?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 14
D. 24

A

C

There are two phalanges in the 1st digit and three phalanges in the 2nd-5th digits

164
Q

Which of the following will reduce patient exposure during fluoroscopy?

  1. Pulsed beam
  2. Intermittent beam
  3. Low kVp

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

A

165
Q

AEC was used for an erect abdomen but the SID was left at 72” SID instead of moving it to 40”. The image will be:

A. Underexposed
B. Overexposed
C. Properly exposed
D. Fogged

A

C

166
Q

Which of the following would best demonstrate a blow-out fracture of the orbit?

A. PA axial (Caldwell) projection
B. Parietoacanthial (waters) projection
C. Modified parietoacanthial (modified waters)
D. Lateral

A

C

Look at the waters and modified waters

167
Q

Inspiration and expiration PA projections of the chest may be used to demonstrate which of the following?

A. Pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Atelectasis
D. Emphysema

A

B

Other indications for inspiration and expiration views of the chest are foreign body localization, diaphragm movement or to distinguish between an opacity in the rib or lung

168
Q

Which of the digital radiography systems use exposure indicators to express the radiation dose received by the image receptor?

A. Direct digital radiography
B. Indirect digital radiography
C. computed radiography
D. Charge-coupled devices

A

C

Fuji calls it the s-number
Carestream calls it an exposure index
And Agfa refers to it as log-median

169
Q

Which of the following anatomical structures is (are) demonstrated in a 45 degree oblique view of the cervical spine?

  1. Pedicles
  2. Zygapophyseal joints
  3. Intervertebral foramina

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C

Zygapophyseal joints are best demonstrated in the lateral position

170
Q

A zygapophyseal joint is an articulation between which two vertebral structures?

A. Pedicle and pars interarticularis
B. Lamina and transverse process
C. Inferior and superior articular processes
D. Body and vertebral foramen

A

C

Cervical zygapophyseal joints best demonstrated in a lateral position

Thoracic best demonstrated in 70 degree oblique

Lumbar best demonstrated in a 45 degree oblique position

171
Q

Which of the following can be done to reduce the patients skin dose during prolonged fluoroscopic examinations?

A. Keep the image intensifier as close to the patient as possible
B. Keep the kVp as high as possible
C. Change the patinet position
D. All of the above

A

D

172
Q

Which of the following is NOT necessary for the production of x-rays?

A. Source of electrons
B. Acceleration of electrons
C. Magnetic field
D. Deceleration of electrons

A

C

173
Q

If ureteral reflux is suspected during cystography, which of the following radiographs is necessary?

A. Erect
B. Right lateral
C. Voiding
D. Post void

A

C

174
Q

According to the code of federal regulations title 21 (21 CFR) for fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006, the AKR nor the cumulative air Kerma shall not deviate from the actual values by more than______percent

A. 15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 45

A

C

Compliance shall be determined over the range of 6 mGy/min and 100 mGy to the maximum indication of AKR and cumulative air kerma

175
Q

When using anatomically programmed technique (APT) with a digital system and an average size patient, the radiographer changes the density control to -2. Which of the following would result?

  1. Decreased brightness
  2. Appropriate brightness
  3. Increased quantum noise

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

D

176
Q

First-stage entrance-shutters of a variable-aperature collimator are designed to reduce which of the following?

A. Primary radiation
B. Secondary radiation
C. Exit radiation
D. Off-focus radiation

A

D

177
Q

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the coronoid process of the elbow?

A. AP
B. Medial oblique
C. Lateral oblique
D. Lateral

A

B

The medial oblique shows the coronoid free from superimposition. The lateral oblique shows the radial head

178
Q

At a 40” SID, the collimator light-to-x-ray field must be accurate to within how many inches?

A. 0.4”
B. 0.8”
C. 1.6”
D. 4.0”

A

B

2% OF 40” EQUALS 0.8”

179
Q

Which of the following complications of diabetes results when a patient has an excess amount of insulin in his/her bloodstream?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Ketoacidosis
C. Respiratory distress
D. Hyperosmolar

A

A

The radiographer response would be to get the patient something with sugar immediately

180
Q

Where should the CR be located for an AP projection of the shoulder joint?

A. Acromion process
B. Coronoid process
C. Coracoid process
D. Glenoid fossa

A

C

The coracoid process is assumed to be at the center of the shoulder joint

181
Q

To demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus, which of the following would be correct?

A. Supinate the hand
B. Internally rotate the arm
C. Abduct the arm
D. Flex the elbow

A

A

182
Q

Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?

A. Gallbladder
B. Spleen
C. Pancreas
D. Liver

A

B

The main function of the spleen is to store blood

183
Q

What is the process of “boiling off” electrons called?

A. Space charge production
B. Electron emission
C. Thermionic emission
D. Heat production

A

C

184
Q

The fill factor for each detector element is equal to:

A. 10-40%
B. 20-50%
C. 50-80%
D. 70-99%

A

C

The fill factor represents the fraction of each detector element that efficiently collects charges from the energy deposited by the x-ray signal. Dead areas of the detector element include the TFT and the capacitor electronics

185
Q

Which of the following DICOM standards assures digital images will look the same on various monitors?

A. DICOM LCD
B. DICOM encoding scheme
C. DICOM grayscale standard
D. DICOM capture system

A

C

The DICOM grayscale standard display function assures that the pixel values are displayed at the proper luminance, producing a more consistent image on various monitors

186
Q

Which of the following can be done to reduce the entrance skin dose during pediatric fluoroscopy?

A. Remove the anti-scatter grid
B. Decrease added filtration
C. Decrease kVp
D. All of the above

A

D

Remove the grid for pediatric fluoroscopy

187
Q

Which of the following will cause visible grid lines on an image that was exposed in a Bucky device?

A. Backup time set too long
B. Bucky device not selected
C. Wrong ionization chamber selected
D. Poor patient positioning

A

B

If the Bucky device is not selected then it will not blur out the grid lines

188
Q

Which of the following is a major factor in contributing to a patient contracting an infection while in the hospital?

A. Unsterile instruments
B. Coming into contact with infected patients
C. Soiled linen
D. Poor health

A

D

189
Q

How much should the patient be rotated for an RPO position during intravenous urography?

A. 10 degrees
B. 20 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. 45 degrees

A

C

The elevated kidney will be parallel with the IR WITH A 30 DEGREE OBLIQUE

190
Q

Primary radiation can be produced by which of the following methods when electrons interact with the anode?

  1. Bremsstrahlung
  2. Characteristic
  3. Compton

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

B

X-rays are produced by one of two methods (brem, characteristic) when electrons interact with the anode

191
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered a type of transmission based precaution?

A. AIDS
B. Contact
C. Airborne
D. Droplet

A

A

Contact isolation prevents the spread of diseases like staphylococcus, airborne isolation prevents the spread of airborne diseases like tuberculosis, and droplet precautions prevents the spread of diseases like influenza

192
Q

Which of the following definitions describes effective dose limit?

A. The maximum dose a body can tolerate
B. The maximum dose a film badge records
C. A dose that is not expected to produce significant effects
D. The dose a radiation worker will receive per year

A

C

The effective dose limit for a radiation worker is 50 mSv/year

193
Q

If a patient is known to be infected with a pathogenic organism or communicable disease, which of the following is applied?

A. Personal precautions
B. Isolation precautions
C. Reverse precautions
D. Transmission-based precautions

A

D

Standard precautions are used in any situation, but if a patient is known to have a specific disease then the necessary precautions are used to prevent its transmission

194
Q

What is the unit for air kerma?

A. Brem
B. Collision kerma
C. Roentgen
D. Gray

A

D

The unit for air kerma is joule per kilogram (gray, Gy)

195
Q

What is the kVp range for imaging a sthenic patients ribs above the diaphragm?

A. 45-50 kVp
B. 55-60 kVp
C. 65-70 kVp
D. 75-80 kVp

A

C

70 kVp would be the maximum. The 65-70 range works well with digital imaging

196
Q

Which of the following should be used to detect quantum noise in a digital image?

  1. Evaluate exposure indicator numbers
  2. Use window level and window width features
  3. Magnify the digital image

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C

197
Q

What is a health care proxy?

A. Someone who picks a health care for you
B. A document that appoints someone to make medical decisions for you if you are unable to make them yourself
C. A person who picks your resuscitation, hydration, and mechanical ventilation for you
D. A way of picking your values and beliefs

A

B

Can also be refered to as a durable power of attorney for health care

198
Q

If the software CANNOT recognize three collimated borders, which of the following would most likely occur?

  1. The image would be distorted
  2. The image would be too dark
  3. The image would lack spatial resolution

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

B

The image would be to dark because the software tries to make the light area outside the collimated border the same brightness as the anatomy, making the anatomy too dark

199
Q

Which of the following digital imaging systems requires the least amount of exposure to produce the digital image?

A. Direct capture, DR systems
B. Indirect capture, DR systems
C. Photostimulable phosphor system
D. CR system

A

B

The indirect capture, DR system uses a cesium iodide phosphor to intensify the x-ray image before it is captured by the amorphous silicon

200
Q

What are x-rays called that have undergone a change in direction after interactions with atoms?

A. Scatter
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Remnant (exit)

A

A

201
Q

Excessive noise suppression of a digital image can result in which of the following problems?

A. Loss of spatial resolution
B. Loss of brightness
C. Loss of contrast
D. Overexposure

A

A

Smoothing the pixels together causes a loss of spatial resolution

202
Q

What is the normal range for systolic pressure in an adult?

A. 40-80 mm Hg
B. 60-70 mm Hg
C. 80-120 mm Hg
D. 90-140 mm Hg

A

D

Anything over 140 would be considered hypertension

203
Q

What is the purpose of the photodetector in a CR reader?

A. It guides the laser light in a raster system
B. It scans the surface of the image plate
C. It converts the analog data to digital data
D. It converts photostimulable luminescence into an electric current

A

D

When the laser excites trapped electrons, photostimulable luminescence (light) is produced; the light is directed through a light guide to the photodetector where it is converted to an electric current; the analog to digital converter (ADC) converts the electric current into digital data.

204
Q

A flat panel detector is exposed with nothing between the X-ray tube and detector. 5 images were acquired on 5 different days using the same exposure. The pixel readings within a region of interest (ROÍ) are compared. What quality control test was performed?

A. Detectability
B. Linearity
C. Repeatability
D. Uniformit

A

C

Repeatability checks the stability of the pixel readings over time

205
Q

Bone marrow is the largest producer of blood cells in the human body. Which of the following bone types contain the most bone marrow?

A. Flat bones
B. Irregular bones
C. Long bones
D. Short bones

A

A

The pelvis, skull, ribs, and sacrum are flat bones that contain blood producing marrow and should be avoided or shielded when imaging a patient if possible.

206
Q

A test pattern should be used to evaluate which of the following monitor qualities?

A. Contrast
B. Spatial resolution
C. Luminance
D. All of the above

A

D

Noise can also be evaluated with a test pattern

207
Q

Which of the following anatomical structures is at the level of the iliac crest?

A. T10
B. L2-3 interspace
C. Body of L3
D. L4-5 interspace

A

D

T10 is at the level of the xiphoid tip and L2-3 interspace is at the lower costal margin

208
Q

What post-examination instructions should be given to a patient following a myelogram?

A. Lie supine for six hours
B. Take a mild laxative to help rid the body of the contrast agent
C. Remain NPO for 24 hours
D. Elevate head 30 degrees for six hours

A

Elevating the patients head may prevent him from getting a severe headache

209
Q

A female gonadal shield should be placed with:

A. The upper margin covering the breasts
B. The upper margin at the iliac crests and the lower margin at the symphysis pubis
C. The lower margin at the symphysis pubis and the upper margin on the pelvic inlet
D. The lower margin at the symphysis pubis and the upper margin at the level of the ischial spines

A

C

210
Q

Which of the following bones is in the proximal row of carpals?

A. Trapezoid
B. Triquestrum
C. Capitate
D. Hamate

A

B

The proximal row of carpals is scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform

211
Q

Which of the following bones has a medial condyle?

A. Fibula
B. Mandible
C. Radius
D. Tibia

A

D

212
Q

Arrange the following organs in order, from most radiosensitive to least radiosensitive

  1. Liver
  2. Brain
  3. Testes

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 1
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 1, 3, 2

A

C

The male sperm are most sensitive and nerve cells are least

213
Q

Which of the following is appropriate when radiographing a patient with a newly fractured forearm?

  1. Remove the splint
  2. Support the wrist and elbow joints
  3. Notify the patient before moving the injured forearm

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C

Do not remove splint without permission of the physician

214
Q

Scatter radiation will increase with an increase in which of the following?

  1. Patient size
  2. KVp
  3. Atomic number of tissue

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

A

215
Q

When using AEC, which of the following changes could be made to reduce the patients entrance skin dose?

A. Increase kVp
B. Increase focal spot size
C. Decrease collimation
D. Decrease SID

A

A

Increasing kVp will allow more x-rays to penetrate the patient so the exposure will shut off sooner

216
Q

When checking the safety of protective leaded apparel with a calibrated test object on a cassette, which of the following is correct?

A. The test object is lighter than the apron
B. The test object is darker than the apron
C. The test object should not be visualized
D. The apron should not be visualized

A

B

217
Q

Which of the following radiographic qualities affects the sharpness of details of a digital image?

A. Receptor exposure and contrast
B. Spatial resolution and distortion
C. Receptor exposure and spatial resolution
D. Contrast and distortion

A

B

The sharpness of details are improved when spatial resolution is increased and distortion is decreased

218
Q

How much must the CR be angled for a carpal canal projection of the wrist if the long axis of the fingers and metacarpals are vertical to the cassette?

A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees

A

B

219
Q

How will an air-gap technique affect contrast?

A. Produce a longer scale of contrast
B. Produce a shorter scale of contrast
C. Contrast will be eliminated
D. Contrast will remain the same

A

B

220
Q

What is the point where the two nasal bones and the frontal bone join together?

A. Nasal septum
B. Nation
C. Mental point
D. Lambda

A

B

221
Q

Which of the following have an effect on the size of the effective focal spot?

A. Size of focusing cup
B. Size of tungsten disk
C. Size of filament wire
D. Distance between cathode and anode

A

C

222
Q

If using a high frequency x-ray generator, which of the following will have the greatest effect on increasing exposure to the image receptor?

A. 15% increase in kVp
B. 25 % increase in SID
C. 50% increase in mAs
D. 75% increase in grid ratio

A

A

A 15% increase in kVp will increase the exposure to the image receptor by 100%

223
Q

Which of the following would describe an x-ray photon?

A. High speed electron
B. High speed neutron
C. High speed proton
D. High speed bundle of energy

A

D

Since an x-ray photon is alternating electric and magnetic fields with no mass nor charge, they are often described as a bundle of energy

ARRT preperation (1 decks)

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