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1
Q

What is a tuft fracture?

A

nail bed fracture

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2
Q

What do tuft fractures get? Why?

A

Abx

osteo

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3
Q

How long does it take for the tibia to heal?

A

10 weeks

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4
Q

What are the three sites for classic non-union?

A

anterior tibia

scaphoid

lateral femoral neck

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5
Q

What surgery screws with bone healing? What electrolyte is involved?

A

gastric bypass

calcium absorption

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6
Q

Is the tensile side of the tibia the anterior or posterior side?

A

posterior

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7
Q

What is SONK? Where does it happen? What type of fracture?

A

spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee

medial femoral condyle

insufficiency

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8
Q

What bone in the foot is similar to scaphoid in its risk for AVN? Eponym for kids? Eponym for adults?

A

Navicular

kohler = kids

muller weiss = adults

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9
Q

Do calcaneal stress fractures occur parallel or perpendicular to the trabecular lines?

A

perpendicular

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10
Q

What metatarsal is highest risk for high risk stress fracture?

A

5th metatarsal

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11
Q

What is a SLAC lesion? What causes it?

A

scapho-lunate advanced collapse

CPPD arthropathy

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12
Q

What is the first joint in the wrist to develop OA?

A

radio-scaphoid

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13
Q

What is DISI? What carpal bone is involved? What direction?

A

dorsal intercalated segment instability

lunate

dorsal tilt

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14
Q

What is a SNAC wrist? What causes it?

A

scaphoid non-union advanced collapse

scaphoid fracture

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15
Q

Perilunate dislocation is associated with a fracture of what carpal bone?

A

scaphoid

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16
Q

Greater displacement than what in the scaphoid may get a screw?

A

> 1mm

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17
Q

Which scapholunate ligament is most important for stabiity? what condition occurs if this breaks?

A

dorsal

DISI

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18
Q

What is the eponym for scaphoid AVN?

A

Prieser disease

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19
Q

Without a ligament, the lunate wants to rock dorsal or volar?

A

volar

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20
Q

What maneuver can worsen scapho-lunate dissociation?

A

fist clench

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21
Q

Which bones move during a peri-lunate dissociation? Which stays still?

A

lunate doesnt move

capitate is displaced.

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22
Q

Is the ulnar or radial side of the TFC more likely to heal?

A

ulnar

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23
Q

Which carpal bone develops cystic changes during ulnar impaction syndrome?

A

lunate

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24
Q

Is a colles a dorsal or volar angulation of the distal radius?

A

dorsal

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25
Q

Is a Smith a dorsal or volar angulation of the distal radius?

A

volar

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26
Q

What other fracture is associated with a smith or colles facture?

A

ulnar styloid

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27
Q

What is a barton fracture?

A

intra-articular fracutre of the distal, DORSAL radius

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28
Q

What is a reverse barton fracture?

A

intra-articular fracture of the VOLAR distal radius

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29
Q

What two ligaments are affected by de quarvain tenosynovitis?

A

aBductor pollicis longus

extensor pollicus brevis

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30
Q

Which extensor tendon can be affected by rheumatoid?

A

extensor carpii ulnaris

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31
Q

What three tendon groups are in the carpal tunnel?

A

FDP

FDS

FPL

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32
Q

Which FLEXOR tendon is not in the carpal tunnel?

A

flexor carpii radialis

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33
Q

What structure of the carpal tunnel will be enlarged on US?

A

median nerve

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34
Q

What bones make up guyons canal?

A

pisiform and hamate

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35
Q

Where are rice bodies found? Caused by what bug?

A

Within the fluid of a tendon sheath

TB

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36
Q

What is a rolando fracture?

A

comminuted fx of of base of the first metacarpal

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37
Q

What is a bennett fracture?

A

non-communinuted fx of the base of the 1st metacarpal

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38
Q

What tendon pulls on rolando and bennett fx?

A

aBductor pollicus longus

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39
Q

What is game keepers thumb? What ligament disruption is associated?

A

avulsion of base of 1st proximal phalanx

ulnar collateral ligament of thumb

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40
Q

What is a stener lesion?

A

when adductor aponeurosis gets caught in UCL of thumb

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41
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture?

A
  1. fracture of proximal ulna

2. dislocation of radial head.

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42
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A
  1. radial shaft fracture

2. dislocation of distal RU joint

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43
Q

What is Essex-Lopresti fracture?

A
  1. fracture of radial head
  2. dislocation of DRUJ
  3. interosseus membrane rupture
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44
Q

Epitrochlear lymphadenopathy is indicative of what disease?

A

cat scratch

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45
Q

What two fractures are most often associated with elbow dislocation?

A

radial head

coronoid process

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46
Q

What bundle of the UCL is most important?

A

anterior

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47
Q

Internal or external rotation to visualize a Hill Sachs?

A

Internal

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48
Q

What type of avulsion can occur with anterior dislocations?

A

greater tuberosity avulsion

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49
Q

What is the trough sign?

A

anterior impaction of humeral head 2/2 posterior dislocation

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50
Q

What is light bulb sign? When can it be seen?

A

internal rotation on all views

posterior dislocation

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51
Q

What direction of shoulder dislocation can cause nerve damage? What nerve?

A

inferior

axillary

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52
Q

What is a reverse bankart? When can it be seen?

A

posteior glenoid rim fx

posterior dislocation

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53
Q

Air hip dislocations anterior or posterior most often? Why?

A

posterior

dashboards

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54
Q

What component is most likely to loosen in a total shoulder?

A

Glenoid

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55
Q

What is an anterior escapse? What muscle has failed?

A

anterior migration of humeral head

subscapularis

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56
Q

Does a reverse total shoulder require an intact cuff? What muscle is used for stability?

A

no

Deltoid

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57
Q

What fracture can occur with a reverse total shoulder? Why?

A

posterior acromion

excessive deltoid tugging

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58
Q

A ‘hooked’ acromion is what type? What is the eponym?

A

Type III

Bigliani

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59
Q

What ligament degenerates during subacromial impingement?

A

coraco-acromial

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60
Q

What two structures pinch during a sub-acromial impingement?

A

lesser tuberosity and coracoid

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61
Q

Where is the critical zone of the supraspinatus? Why?

A

within 1-2 cm of footplate

relatively avascular

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62
Q

What two rotator cuff tendons make up the rotator cuff interval?

A

Supraspinatus

subscapularis

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63
Q

What rotator cuff structure is most often affected by adhesive capsulitis?

A

rotator cuff interval

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64
Q

What cuff structure inserts on a SLAP lesion?

A

long head of biceps

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65
Q

What is a Buford complex?

A

absent anterior/superior labrum at 1-3 o clock

thickened middle glenohumeral ligament

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66
Q

What ligament is thickened in a Buford complex?

A

Middle glenohumeral

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67
Q

What is a GLAD lesion? Stable or unstable?

A

Gleno-labral articular disruption

stable

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68
Q

What is a Perthes lesion? Periosteum intact or not?

A

detachment of anterior/inferior labrum

periosteum is intact

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69
Q

What is ALPSA?

A

Anterior Labral Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion

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70
Q

What is a Bennett LESION ?

A

mineralization of the posterior aspect of the inferior glenohumeral ligament

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71
Q

What does HAGL stand for?

A

humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament

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72
Q

What most often causes a HAGL?

A

anterior shoulder dislocation

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73
Q

What is the transverse ligament?

A

portion of subscapularis that keeps biceps tendon in place

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74
Q

What is more superior, suprascapular notch or spinoglenoid notch?

A

Suprascapular

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75
Q

What muscle (s) will be affetcted by a lesion in the suprascapular notch?

A

supraspinatus

infraspinatus

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76
Q

What muscle (s) will be affetcted by a lesion in the spinoglenoid notch?

A

infraspinatus

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77
Q

What are the four borders of the quadrilateral space?

A

teres major

humeris

teres minor

long head triceps

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78
Q

What muscle will classically atrophy during quadrilateral space syndrome?

A

teres minor

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79
Q

What muscle (s) attaches to the ASIS?

A

sartorius

TFL

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80
Q

What muscle (s) attaches to the ASIS?

A

sartorius

TFL

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81
Q

What muscles originates at the AIIS?

A

rectus femoris

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82
Q

Where is the most common location for a hip labral tear?

A

anterior/superior

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83
Q

Is a cam type deformity an issue with the femur or acetabulum?

A

femur

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84
Q

Is a pincer type deformity an issue with the femur or acetabulum?

A

acetabulum

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85
Q

What is the sign for pincer type deformity?

A

cross over sign

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86
Q

What are the three classic associations for FAI?

A
  1. os acetabuli
  2. peri-labral cysts
  3. early arthritis
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87
Q

What is an os acetabuli?

A

unfused secondary ossification center

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88
Q

What group of patients are prone to heterotopic ossification?

A

Ank Spon

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89
Q

What is the threshold for aseptic loosening?

A

> 2mm

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90
Q

What is it called if a hip arthroplasty slides downwards?

A

subsidence

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91
Q

What distance defines subsidence?

A

> 1cm along femoral component

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92
Q

Does wear or creep occur along the long axis of the femoral component? Normal or not normal?

A

creep

normal

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93
Q

Does wear or creep occur along the superior aspect of the acetabular component? Normal or not normal?

A

wear

not normal

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94
Q

What is the primary underlying factor of particle disease?

A

Wear

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95
Q

Does particle disease occur in cemented or non-cemented hips?

A

non-cemented

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96
Q

What will be seen on an xray of particle disease?

A

endosteal scalloping

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97
Q

Will particle disease produce sclerosis?

A

no

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98
Q

Does a segond fracture happen with internal or external rotation?

A

internal

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99
Q

Where is a reverse segond located? Avulsion of what ligament?

A

medial tibial plateau

MCL bitch

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100
Q

What ligament is affected with a reverse segond?

A

MCL

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101
Q

Does a reverse segond occur with internal or external rotation?

A

external

102
Q

What is the arcuate sign? What ligament is associated?

A

avulsion of fibular head

PCL

103
Q

The deep intercondylar notch sign is indicative of what type of ligamentous tear? Medial or lateral plateau?

A

ACL

lateral

104
Q

What two structures form the conjoint tendon of the knee?

A

LCL and biceps femoris

105
Q

What inserts on Gerdy’s Tubercle?

A

IT band

106
Q

Is magic angle seen on sequences with short TE or long TE?

A

short

107
Q

Mucoid degeneration of the ACL predisposes to what lesion?

A

ganglion cyst

108
Q

The tibial tunnel of the ACL repair should parallel what structure?

A

roof of femoral intercondylar notch

109
Q

Does a cyclops lesions limit flexion or extension ?

A

extension

110
Q

What four structures compose the posterolateral corner?

A
  1. LCL
  2. biceps femoris
  3. IT band (???)
  4. popliteus tendon
111
Q

What is the most common finding on MRI for a posterior corner injury?

A

edema of fibular head

112
Q

Is the peripheral zone of the meniscus the red or white zone?

A

red

113
Q

Is the central zone of the meniscus the red or white zone?

A

white

114
Q

Is a discoid meniscus a variant of the medial or lateral meniscus? Prone to?

A

lateral

tear

115
Q

Double PCL sign proves what strcuture is intact?

A

ACL

116
Q

Is the ligament of humphrey anterior or posterior?

A

anterior

117
Q

Is the ligament of wrisberg anterior or posterior?

A

posterior

118
Q

Does the patella usually dislocate medially or laterally?

A

laterally

119
Q

What ligament can be torn with a lateral patellar dislocation?

A

medial patello-femoral ligament

120
Q

What is the opposite of patella alta?

A

patella baja

121
Q

What disease is associated with patella alta?

A

SLE

122
Q

“Bilateral patellar rupture” is associated with what condition?

A

chronic steroids

123
Q

Are medial or lateral plateau fractures more common?

A

lateral

124
Q

A tillaux fracture is what type of salter harris?

A

three

125
Q

Does a tillaux fracture require an open physis on the lateral or medial tibia?

A

Lateral

126
Q

Does the distal tibia fuse from medial to lateral or lateral to medial?

A

medial to lateral

127
Q

What type of salter harris fracture is a triplane fx?

A

SH four

128
Q

A triplane fx is a Tillaux plus what?

A

veritcal fracture through metaphysis

129
Q

What two structure can be involved distally in a Maisonneuve fracture?

A

medial tibial malleolus

distal tibial/fibular syndesmosis

130
Q

What is a casanova fracture? Other fracture associated with this?

A

bilateral calcaneal fractures

thoraco/lumbar compression fractures

131
Q

What is a normal Bohler’s angle? Would a fracture indicate greater or lesser degree?

A

20-40

<20 = fracture of calcaneus

132
Q

What fracture is associated with a lis franc ligament injury?

A

base of 2nd meta-tarsal (fleck sign)

133
Q

Does TDH occur A–>P or P–>A?

A

anterior to posterior

134
Q

Is the peroneus longus or brevis lateral?

A

Longus = lateral

135
Q

What is the Master Knot of Henry?

A

where FDL crosses FHL at ankle

136
Q

What tendon rupture can cause acute flat foot? Where does this insert?

A

posterior tibial tendon

navicular

137
Q

Sinus tarsi space is located between which two bones?

A

calcaneus and lateral talus

138
Q

How is sinus tarsi syndrome diagnosed on MRI?

A

obliteration of fat

139
Q

Spring ligament complex connects which two bones?

A

calcaneus to navicular

140
Q

Mortons neuroma occurs between which two bones?

A

3rd and 4th metaatrsal heads

141
Q

What two issues cause a Haglunds Deformity?

A

calcaneal bony prominence and achilles tendon bursitis

142
Q

What are the two most common locations of Looser Zones?

A

femoral neck and pubic ramus

143
Q

What is Z score adjusted for?

A

Age

144
Q

What is Osteochondritis Dissecans?

A

aseptic loosening of osteochondral fragment

145
Q

What is the age range for O.D. of the elbow? What specific part of the elbow?

A

12-16

capitellum

146
Q

What bone is affected by Kohler disease? What is the disease process?

A

Navicular

juvenile osteonecrosis

147
Q

What is the adult equivalent of Kohler disease?

A

Muller Weiss

148
Q

What bone is affected by Freiberg Infraction? What age group?

A

2nd metatarsal head

juvenile girls

149
Q

What is Sever’s disease?

A

calcaneal apophysitis

150
Q

Scheurmann’s Disease has to have a thoracic kyphosis greater than what angle?

A

40 degrees

151
Q

Which months do the physeal vessels close?

A

18 months

152
Q

What part of the vertebral body is vascular?

A

end plate

153
Q

What is better in the spine, gallium of In-111?

A

Gallium

154
Q

Which two infectious bugs spare the disc space?

A

TB

Brucella

155
Q

What are rice bodies?

A

infarcted, sloughed synovium

156
Q

What bug can cause dactylitis?

A

TB

157
Q

What two joints can get septic arthritis?

A

SI

sternoclavicular

158
Q

Where does a periosteal osteosarcoma like to grow from?

A

medial, distal femur

159
Q

What are the three diagnostic considerations for a fluid/fluid level on MRI?

A
  1. ABC
  2. Telangiectatic osteosarc .
  3. GCT
160
Q

What are the four epiphyseal lesions?

A
  1. Giant cell
  2. Chondroblastoma
  3. Infection
  4. ABC
161
Q

What is the normal angle of the femoral neck with the femur?

A

130

162
Q

Is coxa vara less then or greater than 130 degrees?

A

less than 130

163
Q

Is coxa valga less then or greater than 130 degrees?

A

greater than

164
Q

WHat are the two polyostotic fibrous dysplasia syndromes?

A

-McCune Albright

Mazabroud

165
Q

What are the cutaneous issue for McCune ALbright?

A

cafe au lait

166
Q

What are the cutaneous issue for Mazabraud?

A

soft tissue myxomas

167
Q

What can happen to the bone lesions in Mazabraud compared to McCune albright?

A

mazabraud = increased risk of malignancy

168
Q

Where is an adamantinoma located? What is it? What is the risk?

A
  • tibia
  • fibrous dysplasia
  • malignant transformation
169
Q

What joint do NOFs most commonly occur?

A

knee

170
Q

What size is an NOF?

A

> 3cm

171
Q

A ‘Floating Tooth’ should make you think what disease?

A

LCH/EG

172
Q

Giant cell tumor needs to meet what two conditons?

A
  1. Closed physis

2. abuts articular surface

173
Q

Painful scoliosis should make you think what lesion?

A

Osteoid osteoma

174
Q

Does the osteoid osteoma spinal convexity point towards or away from the lesion?

A

Convexity = away from lesion

175
Q

An osteoblastoma is bigger than what size?

A

2 cm

176
Q

What are the four epiphyseal equivalents?

A
  1. patella
  2. calcaneus
  3. carpals
  4. all the apophysis
177
Q

Is carcinoid blastic or lytic?

A

blastic

178
Q

Is medulloblastoma blastic or lytic?

A

blastic

179
Q

What is trevor diease?

A

multiple osteochondromas that point towards a joint

180
Q

What ligament is associated with an avian spur? What nerve can this compress?

A

ligament of struthers

median nerve

181
Q

What muscle in the neck can have hydroxyappatite deposition?

A

longus colli

182
Q

What are osteopoikilosis? What forms in the soft tissues over them?

A

bunch of bone islands

keloid

183
Q

Which anemia will obliterate the sinuses?

A

Thalassemia

184
Q

What are the three stages of pagets disease?

A

lytic –> mixed –> blastic

185
Q

What is the most common non-cancerous complication of pagets?

A

deafness

186
Q

Does fibrous dysplasia involve the inner or outer table?

A

outer

187
Q

Does pagets involve the inner or outer table?

A

both

188
Q

What bone gets spared during pagets?

A

fibula

189
Q

What long bone can bow during pagets?

A

tibia

190
Q

Is pagets a picture frame or rugger jersey vertebral body?

A

picture frame

191
Q

Is renal osteodystrophy a picture frame or rugger jersey vertebral body?

A

rugger jersey

192
Q

What is the differential for ‘H-Shaped’ vertebral body?

A

sickle cell

Gaucher

193
Q

What MRI sequence will differentiate pagets from osteosarc?

A

T1 pre gad

194
Q

What soft tissue tumor can be dark on T2?

A

MFH/PUS

195
Q

What is MFH/PUS prone to do?

A

spontaneously hemorrhage

196
Q

What are the two components of mazabraud?

A
  1. polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

2. intramuscular myxomas

197
Q

What do giant cell tumors require?

A

resection and arthroplasty

198
Q

Does PVNS have erosions?

A

no

199
Q

How is PVNS treated?

A

synevectomy

200
Q

Where are giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath usually located?

A

Palm

201
Q

Are giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath T2 dark or bright?

A

T2 dark

202
Q

Is PVNS or synovial chondromatosis associated with hemoarthrosis?

A

PVNS

203
Q

Which may calcify, PVNS or synovial chondromatosis?

A

synovial chondromatosis

204
Q

What are the two most common locations for diabetic myonecrosis? Biopsy?

A

thight and calf?

never biopsy

205
Q

Where is the most common location for lipoma arborescens?

A

supra-patellar fat pad

206
Q

Where is the typical location of a cortical desmoid?

A

posterior medial epicondyle of distal femur

207
Q

What two muscles contribute to a cortical desmoid?

A

medial head of gastroc

aDDuctor magnus

207
Q

What two muscles contribute to a cortical desmoid?

A

medial head of gastroc

aDDuctor magnus

208
Q

Where is a synovial herniation pit typically seen?

A

superior femoral neck

209
Q

Gull Wing deformity is indicative of what type of arthritis? What joint?

A

Erosive

DIP

210
Q

What joint does RA classically avoid?

A

DIP

211
Q

What is the first joint in the foot affected by RA?

A

5th metatarsal head

212
Q

What is caplan syndrome?

A

RA + pneumoconiosis

213
Q

What comes first, skin findings or osseus findings of RA?

A

skin

214
Q

Does RA or psoriasis have bone proliferation?

A
215
Q

Which favors the IP joints, RA or psoriasis?

A

psoriasis

216
Q

Is reiters syndrome common in the hands?

A

no

217
Q

What type of inflammatory arthritis can have lung findings? What are the lung findings?

A

A.S.

Upper lobe, cystic changes

218
Q

What type of inflammatory arthritis can have lung findings? What are the lung findings?

A

A.S.

Upper lobe, cystic changes

219
Q

What is the first joint hit by ank spon?

A

SI, bilaterally

220
Q

What two diseases can produce asymmetric SI inflammation?

A

psoriatic

reiter

221
Q

What two diseases can produce symmetric SI inflammation?

A

inflammatory bowel

A.S.

222
Q

Will gout tophus enhance?

A

yes?

223
Q

What is the first sign of gout?

A

joint effusion

224
Q

What are the two components of pseudogout?

A

synovitis

CPPD

225
Q

“Degenerative change in an uncommon joint” is indicative of what disease?

A

CPPD

226
Q

SLAC is commonly caused by what diease? What specific ligament is affected?

A

CPPD

Scapholunate ligament

227
Q

What two diseases have ‘hooked’ osteophytes? Where are these found?

A

CPPD and hemophilia

MCP

228
Q

What causes Milwaukee shoulder?

A

hydroxyappatite

229
Q

What osseus abnormality does hyper-PTH produce? Where?

A

subperiosteal bone resorption

radial aspect of 2nd and 3rd fingers?

230
Q

Brown Tumor are histologically identical to what other osseus lesion?

A

giant cell tumor

231
Q

‘Shiny Corners’ are indicative of what disease? Where are these loacted?

A

Early AS

Vertebral bodies

232
Q

What disease prodocues a bridging lateral osteophyte?

A

Psoriatic

233
Q

What two disease can cause cervical spine fusion in kids?

A

Klippel Feil

JRA

234
Q

What two disease can cause dens erosions?

A

RA

CPPD

235
Q

Does DISH effect the ALL or PLL?

A

ALL

236
Q

Does DISH effect the disc space?

A

no

237
Q

What part of the spine is effected by OPLL? Typical patient population?

A

cervical

old asian men

238
Q

What part of the spine is effected by destructive spondyloarthropathy? Caused by?

A

cervical

amyloid/dialysis

239
Q

What joint is most likely to become dislocated during SLE?

A

patella

240
Q

What is Jaccoud’s arthropathy similar to? What is it most commonly caused by?

A

SLE

post-rheumatic fever

241
Q

JIA has to occur by what age?

A

16

242
Q

Epiphyseal overgrowth is indicative of what disease?

A

JIA

243
Q

Is amyloid arthropathy usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

bilateral

244
Q

Does red marrow convert to yellow from distal to proximal or proximal to distal?

A

distal to proximal

245
Q

Within the long bones, what is the order of conversion of red to yellow marrow?

A

epi/apo –> diaphysis –> metadiaphysis

246
Q

What two places can red marrow be found normally in adults?

A

femoral and humeral heads

247
Q

What is tendon anisotropy on US?

A

tendon will look hypoechoic if sound beam isnt perpendicular

248
Q

How is tenosynovitis diagnosed on US?

A

fluid in tendon sheath

249
Q

How much Gd is used for joint infection?

A

0.1 cc

250
Q

What does air cause on MR?

A

blooming artifact

MSK trivia (1 decks)

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