Trigger 1 Flashcards

1
Q

how many pairs of nerves are there?

A

31

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2
Q

name the 4 sections of the spine

A

cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral

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3
Q

what is neural tube closing also known as?

A

Neurulation

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4
Q

explain the process of neurulation

A

ectoderm cells differientate into neuro-ectoderm, which thicken to form a neural plate
plate bends dorsally, curving with the neural plate boarders meeting to form the neural tube
neural tube disconnects the neural crest from the epidermus
neural crest cells differientate -> peripheral NS
neuroepithelial cells -> neuroblast, grey matter

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5
Q

Dermatomes

A

area of skin innervated by 1 spinal cord

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6
Q

what neuro trasmitter is relasesed from the terminal bouton in the somatic NS

A

acetylcholine

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7
Q

what receptor is on the target organ in the somatic NS

A

nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

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8
Q

Describe the pre ganglionic neurone in the symapethic NS

A

short pre-ganglionic

always releases Ach

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9
Q

what neurotransmitter does the post ganglionic symathetic neurone release

A

noradrenaline

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10
Q

Describe the pre ganglionic neurone in the parasympathetic NS

A

long preganglinic

release Ach

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11
Q

Describe the post ganglionic neurone in the parasympathetic NS

A

short
releases Ach
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor on target organ

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12
Q

which nervous system causes peeing

A

parasympathetic

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13
Q

what does the symathetic system do to the bladder

A

relaxs the bladder detrusor muscles

contracts the internal spincter

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14
Q

what is micurition

A

the act of passing urine

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15
Q

how is continence maintained

A

maintianed via the spincters of the bladdder and the abdominal pressure compressing the bladder neck

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16
Q

what type of muscle is the internal spincter

A

an oblique muscle, not well defined

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17
Q

what type of muscle is the urethral spincter

A

mixed smooth and skeletal muscle

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18
Q

what type of muscle is the external spincter

A

striated muscle under voluntray control

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19
Q

describe the inital phase of pressure

A

pressure rises rapidly to a small degree

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20
Q

descibe phase II of bladder pressure

A

rises slowly, receptice relaxation however most of the bladder fillls, no contractions occur until the bladders has been filled to 400ml

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21
Q

descibe phase III of bladder pressure

A

pressure rises steeply

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22
Q

which paprasympathetic nerves supply the bladder

A

pelvic S2-S4 nerves, mixed motor and sensory from the hypogastric and vesicle plexi

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23
Q

which sympathetic nerves supply the bladder

A

inferior mesenterric ganglia which pass via the hypogastric to the vesicle plexus

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24
Q

outline the steps of micturition

A

Bladder must be fill to 80% of its contents
the detrusor muscle relaxes which mechaninally opens the internal sphincter and reflexly inhibits the external spincter
flattens the floor of the bladder so the urethra is now open
fluid flows out as the detrusor contracts
flow through the urethra reinforces contracton via the pelvic plexus and spinal reflex
once the smooth muscle has maximally shortened the tension fails and the guard reflex is iniated as the bladder starts to refill

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25
Q

what is the sarcolemma

A

plasma membrane surronding the muscle

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26
Q

what are t-tubles

A

between muscle fibres, transmit electrical potential

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27
Q

what is the I band

A

actin only

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28
Q

what is the H band

A

myosin only

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29
Q

what is the A band

A

myosin and actin

30
Q

describe the excitiation phase of excitation contraction coupling

A

AP travels to pre-synaptic knob, influx of Ca2+
Ach released from vesicles via SNARE proteins
Ach binds to nicotinic recpetor on the motor end plate
influx of Na+
AP travels along scarolemma and T-tubule
depolaristaion of dihydropyridine receptor casing transformatonal change of L type channel
causes ryanodine receptor to open
CA2+ unbinds from calsequestin and pours into intracellular space
binds to troponin C

31
Q

outline the contraction phase of excitation contraction coupling

A

starts in the coked state
ADP+Pi bound to myosin head
Ca2+ enters, binds to troponin C, induces the release of Troponin I
allows troponin-tropomyosin complex to move, exposing myosin binding site on actin filament
myosin cross bridges form and the power stroke occurs
Pi released during
ADP released after stroke
ATPase site is free and binds another ATP molecule
binding of ATP reduces affintiy of myosin head for actin
cross bridges detach
CA2+ returned to lateral sacs via SERCA

32
Q

What is CSF

A

a clear liquid that fills the subarachnoid space and ventricles

33
Q

where is CSF formed

A

choroid plexuses

34
Q

what are the choroid plexuses

A

capillary networks surronded by cuboidal epithelium

35
Q

how much CSF is produced daily

A

500ml a day

36
Q

how much glucose does the csf contain

A

3.3 mmol/L

60% of the blood

37
Q

mechanical functions of the CSF

A

dampen forces

volume of the CSF compartment can undergo minor changes to reduce the changes in intracranical pressure due to alterations in cerebral blood flow

reduces the weight of the brain

38
Q

metabolic functions of the CSF

A

maintain constant environment for the brain cells

acts as a lympathic system, draining unwanted metabolities into the venous blood via the arachnoid

provides some nutirents

39
Q

what are biomarkers

A

compounds or measurments that show normal functioning of the body, disease process or whether a individual has responded to treatment

40
Q

what are the properties of good biomarkers

A

easily obtainable
usually endogenous
sensitive and specific detection method
cost effective
quick results
reproducable and consistent across population
concentration or presence correlates with disease progression or in response to thearpy

41
Q

what can pass thorugh the blood brain barrier

A

anything that is a gas or lipophilic

42
Q

if glucose in the CSF decreses whats could this show?

A

cells within the CSF are metabolising glucose e.g white blood cells or bacteria

43
Q

if protein in the CSF increases what could this show?

A

mengingtis, tumor or white blood cells present

normal level >1%

44
Q

if IgG in the CSF increases what could this show?

A

mulitple sclerosis

45
Q

if WBC in the CSF increases what could this show?

A

bleeding in the brain

tumor

46
Q

if neutrophils in the CSF increases what could this show?

A

bacterial infection

47
Q

if lymphocytes in the CSF increases what could this show?

A

viral/myobacterical

48
Q

what is spina bifida

A

when a babys spine doesnt develop proplerly causing a gap in the spine

49
Q

symptoms of spina bifida

A

weakness/paralysis of the legs

bowel incontience

loss of skin sensations around the legs and bottom

50
Q

What is hydrocephalus

A

disturbance of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formation, flow, or absorption, leading to an increase in volume occupied by this fluid in the central nervous system (CNS)

51
Q

What is congential hydrocephalus

A

change in CSF and volume presnt from birth
casued by conditions such as spina bifida
most babies have pernament brain damage

52
Q

what is the sarcomere made up of

A

composed of long, fibrous proteins as filaments that slide past each other when a muscle contracts or relaxes. Two of the important proteins are myosin, which forms the thick filament, and actin, which forms the thin filament

53
Q

what is a myotome

A

the group of muscles that a single spinal nerve innervates.
Motor neurones transmit signals to the myotomes, which allows for movement. Each nerve pair in the spine in linked to one myotome causing the group of muscles to be innervated

54
Q

what is an odds ratio

A

An odds ratio is a measure of association between the exposure and the outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure

55
Q

what is relative risk?

A

Ratio of the probability of an event occuring in an exposed group to the probability of the event occuring, non-exposed group.

56
Q

what happens in phase I of clincal trails?

A

studies assess the safety of the drug or device.

Small sample group, couple months

57
Q

what happens in phase II of clincal trails?

A

studies test the efficacy of the drug or device

Large sample group, months to years

58
Q

what happens in phase III of clincal trails?

A

studies involved randomized and blind testing

Very large sample group, several years

59
Q

How do incontinence drugs work

A

They stop the impulses that tell the bladder to contract by blocking the receptors that receive the impulses. As the drugs can’t specifically target the receptors for the bladder the drugs block all receptors in the body which can lead to side effects.

60
Q

What nurones form from the alar plate

A

sensory neurones

61
Q

Function of Gas

A

activates adenylate cyclase, increases cAMP

activates PKA =, phosphorylates downstream target proteins

62
Q

Function of Gai

A

inhibits adenylate cyclase

63
Q

Function of Gq

A

Activates phospholipase C –> increase IP3
DAG + Ca2+ = PKC activation
(smooth muscle contraction)

64
Q

Funtion of Go

A

Activates K+ channels

Inhibits Ca2+ channels

65
Q

How is the Gq subtype targeted in the parasympathetic system to treat incontinence

A

Gq Muscarinic 3 antagonist (smooth muscle) viseral SM contraction
prevents contaction

66
Q

How is the Gs subtype targeted in the sympathetic system to treat incontinence

A

a1 adrencoceptor anatgonists - relax internal spinchter

B3 adrenceptor - enchances bladder relaxtion

67
Q

What is the pathophysiological mechanism of myasthenia gravis?

A

Depletion of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

68
Q

Which receptors would elicit the most rapid physiological response?

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

69
Q

Urinary incontinence is common in patients with spina bifida.
This is a consequence of damage to which structure?

A

Sacral nerve

70
Q

Mirabegron is a selective β3 adrenergic receptor agonist?

What effect will it have on bladder function?

A

Relax bladder destrusor muscle

71
Q

Darifenacin is a selective M3 muscarinic receptor antagonist.
What effect will it have on bladder function?

A

Relax bladder destrusor muscle