Tricky Review - MBE Flashcards

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1
Q

Difference b/w Fifth and Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel . . .

A

5th:

  • not offense specific
  • right to remain silent = asking about unrelated crime is ok
  • right to counsel (pre-formal charges) = once invoked ALL question must cease (asking about unrelated crime = NOT ok.
  • only applies when D knows he’s being questioned by gov’t agent
  • informant in cell ok if D doesn’t know he’s a cop or working for cops

6th:

  • offense specific
  • starts after formal proceedings commence
  • applies at all critical stages
  • does NOT apply to pretrial + precharge detention or custodial interrogation
  • CAN be interrogated about a different charge outside of presence of counsel
  • occurs when police deliberately elicit an incriminating statement from a defendant about the crime D is charged with, without first obtaining a waiver of the defendant’s right to have counsel present
  • informant in cell ok if doesn’t elicit questions about crime he is charged with
            • -NOTES - - - - - -

The Fifth Amendment, applicable to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment, provides that no person “shall be compelled to be a witness against himself . . . .” This has been interpreted to mean that a person shall not be compelled to give self-incriminating testimony. At any time prior to or during interrogation, the detainee may also invoke a Miranda (i.e., Fifth Amendment) right to counsel. If the detainee invokes this right, all questioning must cease until the detainee is provided with an attorney or initiates further questioning himself. [Edwards v. Arizona, 451 U.S. 477 (1981)]. Once the detainee invokes his right to counsel under Miranda, all questioning must cease; the police may not even question the detainee about a totally unrelated crime, as they can where the detainee merely invokes the right to remain silent.

The Sixth Amendment provides that in all criminal prosecutions, the defendant has a right to the assistance of counsel. The right protects defendants from having to face a complicated legal system without competent help. It applies at all critical stages of a criminal prosecution after formal proceedings have begun. [Rothgery v. Gillespie, 554 U.S. 191 (2008)] The right is violated when the police deliberately elicit an incriminating statement from a defendant without first obtaining a waiver of the defendant’s right to have counsel present. [See Fellers v. United States, 540 U.S. 519 (2004)] Since Miranda, below, the Sixth Amendment right has been limited to cases where adversary judicial proceedings have begun (e.g., formal charges have been filed). [Massiah v. United States, 377 U.S. 201 (1964)] Thus, the right does not apply in precharge custodial interrogations.

The Fifth Amendment is not offense specific, but the Sixth Amendment is offense specific. Thus, if a defendant invokes his right to counsel, under the Fifth Amendment the police cannot interrogate the defendant about any charge without counsel. But under the Sixth Amendment, the defendant can be interrogated regarding a different charge. The difference is significant when a defendant requests counsel after being charged and is put into a cell with an informer. The Sixth Amendment right to counsel applies to any post-charge interrogation—whether or not the defendant knows he is being interrogated by a government agent. The Fifth Amendment right to counsel, on the other hand, applies only when the defendant knows that he is being interrogated by a government agent. Thus, an undercover informer in the defendant’s cell can question the defendant about anything without violating his Fifth Amendment right to counsel, and under the Sixth Amendment, the informer can question the defendant about any crime but the one with which he is charged. Therefore, if the cellmate informer questions the defendant and obtains information regarding a crime different from the one with which the defendant was charged, the questioning violates neither the Fifth nor the Sixth Amendment.

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2
Q

T/F. A preliminary hearing need not be held if the arrest is pursuant to a grand jury indictment.

A

T

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3
Q

If a charging grand jury determines probable cause to prosecute, it will return a bill of indictment as a “_____.”

A

true bill

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4
Q

A _____ hearing (not report) is a hearing to determine probable cause to hold a detainee who was arrested without a prior finding of probable cause

A

Gerstein

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5
Q

A witness subpoenaed to testify before a grand jury has no right to:

A
  1. receive Miranda warnings
  2. no right to have an attorney present, but she may consult with an attorney outside the grand jury room
  3. a witness who is under investigation and may well become a defendant has no right to a warning that she is a “potential defendant” when called to testify before the grand jury
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6
Q

2 prongs of deficient performance by counsel claim:

A

An ineffective assistance of counsel claimant must show deficient performance by counsel and but for the deficient performance the result would have been different.

An adverse ruling by the judge without actual prejudice to the defendant would not be sufficient to show ineffective assistance of counsel.

The fact that the defense attorney was appointed by the court is irrelevant.

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7
Q

In a criminal jury trial, if state law allows a sentence to be increased beyond the statutory maximum sentence on proof of aggravating circumstances, the jury must find those aggravating circumstances proven:

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt

NOTE: jury . . . not judge. Judge can’t do this.

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8
Q

The Sixth Amendment right to trial by jury applies to the states through the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. There is, however, no constitutional right to a jury trial for petty offenses; it exists only for serious offenses. An offense is considered serious, making a jury trial a constitutional right, when _____.

A

more than six months’ imprisonment is authorized

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9
Q

Defendant signed a confession to a crime at the police station shortly after his arrest.
Is this confession sufficient in and of itself to convict Defendant?

A

No, a criminal conviction cannot rest entirely on an uncorroborated extrajudicial confession. If the defendant does not admit guilt in court, the prosecution must introduce extrinsic evidence that, at the least, tends to establish the trustworthiness of the admission.

It is not sufficient that the confession was voluntary or that it admits all the elements of the crime; the confession must be shown to be trustworthy.

Likewise, Miranda warnings do not obviate the trustworthiness requirement.

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10
Q

Under what circumstances is a defendant accused of an interracial crime entitled to question prospective jurors on potential racial bias?

A

In capital cases only

In noncapital cases, regardless of whether they involve felonies or misdemeanors, the interracial aspect of the crime alone is not sufficient to allow questioning on racial bias.

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11
Q

Under what circumstances may a co-defendant’s confession be admitted against a defendant in a criminal trial?

A

If the co-defendant takes the witness stand and subjects himself to cross-examination about the statement

The right of confrontation generally prohibits the introduction of a co-defendant’s confession because of the inability of the nonconfessing defendant to compel his co-defendant to take the stand for cross-examination. However, a statement of the confessing defendant is admissible if the confessing defendant takes the stand and subjects himself to cross-examination with respect to the truth or falsity of what the statement asserts.

The fact that the judge instructs the jury that the statement is to be used as evidence of guilt only as to the defendant who made the statement would not allow admission of the statement. It is still a violation of the right of confrontation.

That the other defendant also gave a statement to the police that is admitted into evidence, and the two statements corroborate each other, does not satisfy the Confrontation Clause requirement; the opportunity to cross-examine is the key.

A statement may be admitted if all references to the nonconfessing defendant are eliminated. However, merely blacking out any mention of the other defendant is insufficient, as the jury may conclude the blacked out name is that of the defendant.

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12
Q

T/F. Constitutional right to a jury trial only applies to felony offenses.

A

F

serious offense = more than 6th months.

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13
Q

Under what circumstances can a police officer rely on a tip from an informer to establish reasonable suspicion sufficient for a Terry stop?

A

When the tip is accompanied by adequate indicia of reliability

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14
Q

What do you need for each of the following:

a. Terry Stop (stopped for investigative purposes)
b. Search Incident to Arrest (no warrant)
c. Felony arrest w/out warrant
d. dog sniff
e. Police search an automobile (vehicle)
f. Exceptions to warrant requirement when quick action is needed
g. Roving patrol inside US border stopping an auto for questioning
h. Arrest made in a public place without a warrant
i. Arrest made without a warrant in a home

A

a. Terry Stop =
TO STOP - reasonable suspicion based on articulable facts (need not rise to PC)
TO FRISK - reasonable suspicion that armed and dangerous (need not rise to PC; CANNOT frisk just b/c officer has reasonable suspicion that person is hiding evidence of the crime on his person)
LIMIT TO FRISK - pat down of outer clothing

b. Search Incident to Arrest (no warrant) = exception that generally for officer safety, but officer need not be in fear for safety before conducting (ex. protective sweep of house and finds in plain view in closet is ok; within suspect reach is ok; NOT OK if search vehicle while D in squad car); NOTE: must be Constitutional arrest
c. Felony arrest w/out warrant = Probable cause need not be based on personal observations, but the officer must reasonably believe that the suspect has committed or is committing a crime
d. not a search (may be seizure)
e. if they have PC that it contains contraband or fruits, instrumentalities, or evidence of a crime, they may search the vehicle without a warrant. Can search passenger’s stuff too. They can tow it and search it later. Can look anywhere where it could be (usually entire vehicle). Can also search person of all occupants. LIMIT: If PC is for something recently placed in the vehicle, then can only look in there, not whole car.
f. Hot pursuit of a fleeing felon; evanescent evidence; emergencies that threaten health or safety
g. roving patrol = if officer reasonable suspects car contains illegal aliens. (can’t search; just stop)

h. arrest made without a warrant in a public place
Felony = reasonable grounds to believe that a felony has been committed and that the person before her committed it

Misdem = An officer may make a warrantless arrest for a misdemeanor committed in her presence. A crime is committed in the officer’s “presence” if she is aware of it through any of her senses.

NOTE: valid even if they had time to get a warrant

i. Arrest made without a warrant in a home = Presumed unreasonable; gov’t have to provide exigent circumstances (emergency)

If in home of third party, need to get a search warrant for third party’s home, but if arrest is made of D, no evidence suppressed. Only evidence suppressed is anything found that is to be used against third party if that third party is tried.

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15
Q

Search warrant must be based on ____.

A

PC

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16
Q

If a defendant was convicted after a trial in which unlawfully obtained evidence was used against her, the conviction will be overturned unless the government can show __________ that the admission was harmless.

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt

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17
Q

A confession obtained in violation of Miranda may be used for ______.

A

Impeachment purposes

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18
Q

If the police arrest a suspect without a warrant or probable cause (i.e., an unconstitutional arrest), give him Miranda warnings, interrogate him, and obtain a confession, must the confession be suppressed from use in the prosecution’s case in chief?

A

Yes, because the confession is the fruit of the poisonous tree

Example: D was arrested without probable cause and brought to the police station. The police read D his Miranda warnings three times and permitted D to see two friends. After being at the station for six hours, D confessed. The confession must be excluded because it is the direct result of the unlawful arrest—if D had not been arrested illegally, he would not have been in custody and would not have confessed. [Taylor v. Alabama, 457 U.S. 687 (1982)]

Compare: Police have probable cause to arrest D. They go to D’s home and improperly arrest him without a warrant, in violation of the Fourth Amendment. D confesses at home, and the police then take him to the station. D confesses again at the station. The home confession must be excluded from evidence because it is the fruit of the illegal arrest, but the station house confession is admissible because it is not a fruit of the unlawful arrest. Because the police had probable cause to arrest D, they did not gain anything from the unlawful arrest—they could have lawfully arrested D the moment he stepped outside of his home and then brought him to the station for his confession. Thus, the station house confession was not an exploitation of the police misconduct; i.e., it was not a fruit of the fact that D was arrested at home as opposed to somewhere else. [New York v. Harris, 495 U.S. 14 (1990)]

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19
Q

If a suspect invokes his right to remain silent, the police __________ reinitiate questioning ___________. For example ______.

A

May; if they scrupulously honor his request to remain silent

For example, the Supreme Court has allowed the police to reinitiate questioning where: (i) the police ceased questioning immediately upon the detainee’s request and did not resume questioning for several hours; (ii) the detainee was given a fresh set of Miranda warnings; and (iii) the questioning was limited to a crime that was not the subject of the earlier questioning.

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20
Q

Which of the following is an example of the type of evidence the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination protects?

a. The defendant must sign his name to be used to compare his signature on a document
b. The defendant is ordered to list his bank account numbers
c. The defendant must give a blood sample

A

b

21
Q

The privilege against self-incrimination is waived by a D when __________.

A

by a defendant when she takes the stand, but only to the extent that she is subject to cross-examination

22
Q

Under the Blockburger test, two crimes do not constitute the same offense if __________.

A

each crime requires proof of an element that the other does not

23
Q

Example of collateral estoppel (double jeopardy)

A

Collateral estoppel prohibits a defendant from being tried or convicted of a crime if a prior prosecution resulted in a factual determination inconsistent with one required for conviction. For example, if a defendant was charged with robbing an individual poker player and acquitted for insufficient evidence as to identity, the defendant cannot afterward be charged with robbery of a different poker player at the same table.

24
Q

Elements for a merchant’s firm offer:

A
  1. A merchant offers to sell goods,
  2. in a signed writing, AND
  3. that writing gives assurances that the offer will be held open

NOTE: If no specific time frame is stated in the offer, a merchant’s firm offer will remain open for a reasonable time (but in no event may such period exceed three months).

NOTE: For a merchant’s firm offer, it is not necessary that the offer be made to another merchant; only the offeror must be a merchant.

NOTE: A merchant’s firm offer differs from a traditional option contract in that no consideration need be paid to keep the offer open.

25
Q

A unilateral contract may be accepted . . .

A

ONLY by full performance.

26
Q

If a seller accepts a buyer’s offer to purchase goods without an exact price term included, the price will be _____.

A

The price will be a reasonable price at the time of delivery

27
Q

Article 2 Battle of the Forms

a. Effect of the proposal of additional or different terms by the offeree in a definite and timely acceptance
b. How decide whether the additional terms b/c part of the contract?

A

NOTE: analysis is 1. Is there a contract? 2. Terms added to contract?

a. does not constitute a rejection and counteroffer, but rather is effective as an acceptance, UNLESS the acceptance is expressly made conditional on assent to the additional or different terms. (ex. “I accept; deliver it to my house by noon tomorrow.” vs. “I accept, but only if you agree to deliver the car to my house by noon tomorrow.”)

If expressly made conditional, then NO CONTRACT and its seen as a counter offer.

NOTE: When an acceptance is made expressly conditional on the acceptance of new terms, it is a rejection of the offer. It can be considered a counteroffer only to the extent that the original offeror may expressly assent to the new terms and thus form a contract. It is not considered a counteroffer that may be accepted by performance. If the parties ship or accept goods after a conditional acceptance, a contract is formed by their conduct, and the new terms are not included. The contract consists of all terms on which their writings agree, plus supplementary terms supplied by the U.C.C. [U.C.C. §2-207(1), (3)]
Example: Same facts as in the above example, except that after Sally’s e-mail making her acceptance conditional on Harry’s consent to the delivery term, Harry does not reply but delivers the car to Sally’s house two days later. Sally accepts the delivery. Harry is not in breach because Sally’s conditional acceptance was not a counteroffer that could be accepted by performance. When Sally conditioned her acceptance on consent to the delivery term, there was no contract. The contract was not formed until Harry delivered the car and Sally accepted it. The contract was formed by performance and its terms are those to which the parties agreed (e.g., $1,000 for the car) plus the terms supplied by their course of performance (delivery two days later at Sally’s house) and the U.C.C.

b.

NON MERCHANT -
If ANY party to the contract is NOT A MERCHANT, the additional or different terms are considered to be mere proposals to modify the contract that do not become part of the contract unless the offeror expressly agrees.

MERCHANTS and ADDITIONAL and DIFFERENT TERMS:
If both parties to the contract are merchants, additional terms in the acceptance WILL be included in the contract UNLESS:

(i) They materially alter the original terms of the offer (e.g., they change a party’s risk or the remedies available);
(ii) The offer expressly limits acceptance to the terms of the offer; or
(iii) The offeror has already objected to the particular terms, or objects within a reasonable time after notice of them is received.

28
Q

Termination of offer in CL - remember to distinguish b/w . . .

A

An inquiry into changing the terms of the offer (does not terminate offer) and an acceptance conditional upon additional terms

29
Q

If either party dies or is adjudicated insane prior the acceptance of an offer, ______.

An offer is terminated by the death of the offeror unless:

A

the offer is terminated by operation of law.

The offeree has paid consideration to keep the offer open

30
Q

A vague term in a contract can be cured by _____.

A

part performance

31
Q

Conditional promises are generally enforceable, unless the __________.

A

condition is entirely within the promisor’s control

NOTE: can be based on subjective standard

32
Q

A suretyship contract is supported by proper consideration:

A

If the surety is compensated or makes the suretyship promise before (or at the same time as) the creditor performs or promises to perform

33
Q

When the amount due on a debt is undisputed, what will not be considered sufficient consideration for a promise by the creditor to discharge the debt?

A

payment in a different medium
payment to one other than the creditor
payment before maturity

34
Q

Modification of an original contract requires:

A

UCC - no consideration; good faith

CL - consideration

35
Q

An otherwise valid debt that is barred by a technical defense to enforcement (such as the statute of limitations) ___________ be enforced if the debtor makes a new ____________.

A

Will; promise in writing to pay the debt or it has been partially performed. Only enforce to the extent of the new promise. ORAL is not enough. Must be in writing.

Debtor owed Creditor $2,000, but the statute of limitations had run on the debt. Debtor won some money in her state lottery and wrote to Creditor, explaining that she had just won some money and promising to pay Creditor $1,000. The promise to pay is enforceable—at least to the extent of the $1,000—despite the lack of new consideration.

36
Q

Pre-existing legal duty rule and exceptions:

A

CL =

pre-existing legal duty not consideration

EXCEPTIONS:
1. new or different consideration promised (almost any change to performance will be ok. ex. acceleration, perform longer, perform sooner, any variation in the pre-existing legal duty

  1. ratification of contract by minor
  2. pre-existing owed to a third party - (ex. Paul Simon says not coming unless 5k more, in violation of the contract with A. B says I’ll pay the 5k and Paul Simon shows up. Can enforce agreement with B.
  3. if the scope of the legal duty is in honest dispute, then can modify the contract

UCC =

no consideration needed for modification - MUST be in good faith. (My costs have increased would you mind paying .50 more per vs. hahaha, you’re stuck with me, going to make you pay more.

37
Q

Courts will look primarily at the __________ of the surety’s promise in determining whether a gratuitous suretyship contract is supported by proper consideration.

A

Timing

38
Q

What is an “illusory” promise?

A

A promise where the promisor is not bound to perform

39
Q

After a bystander rescued a dog from an icy lake, the dog’s owner said, “To thank you, I’m going to pay you $1,000.”

If, despite the fact that the benefit was conferred on the dog owner before his promise, this promise is enforced by a court following the material benefit rule, it will be because:

A

The bystander did not intend to confer the benefit as a gift

40
Q

A promise that contains a right to cancel or withdraw at any time may be valid consideration if:

A

The right is in any way restricted

41
Q

The promise to refrain from suing on a claim may constitute consideration provided that __________.

A

the claimant reasonably and in good faith believes his claim to be valid

42
Q

CONTRACTS/DEFENSES: When both parties entering into a contract are mistaken about an existing fact relating to the agreement, __________.

A

the contract is voidable if the mistake concerns a basic assumption on which the contract is made

43
Q

CONTRACTS/DEFENSES: Mutual mistake can be a defense to the formation of a contract if:

A

The mistake concerns a basic assumption on which the contract is made

44
Q

CONTRACTS/DEFENSES: Statute of Frauds

Applies to . . .

CL

Exceptions

Requirements of writing . . .

UCC

Exceptions . . .

Requirements of writing . . .

A

Applies to . . .

  1. contracts that cannot be performed within one year (if its possible to perform from one year from the date of the agreement, then doesn’t have to be in writing)
  2. sale of goods for 500 or more

CL

Exceptions . . .

  1. Land
    - PAYMENT FOR SELLER: If the seller conveys to the purchaser (i.e., fully performs), the seller can enforce the buyer’s oral promise to pay.
    - CAN GET SPECIFIC PERFORMANCE FOR BUYER: Similarly, the purchaser may be able to specifically enforce a land contract if the “part performance doctrine” is applicable. Under the doctrine, conduct (i.e., part performance) that unequivocally indicates that the parties have contracted for the sale of the land will take the contract out of the Statute of Frauds. What constitutes sufficient part performance varies among the jurisdictions. Most require at least two of the following: payment (in whole or in part), possession, and/or valuable improvements.

Requirements of writing . . .

  1. writing or writings
  2. material terms
  3. signed by D

UCC
Exceptions:

  1. specially manufactured goods -
    a. circumstance reasonably indicate its for the buyer
    b. substantial beginning or commitments for their purchase b/f repudiation received.
  2. If goods are either received and accepted or paid for, the contract is enforceable. However, the contract is not enforceable beyond the quantity of goods accepted or paid for. If an indivisible item is partially paid for, most courts hold that the Statute of Frauds is satisfied for the whole item.
    ex. Joe orally contracts to buy a car from Suzette for $15,000. Joe gives her a $1,000 down payment. Although Joe has only partially paid for the car, most courts would hold that the contract is enforceable.
  3. Admission in pleadings or in court

REQUIREMENTS OF WRITING . . .

  1. confirmatory memo rule:
    a. In contracts between merchants,
    b. if one party,
    c. within a reasonable time after an oral agreement has been made,
    d. sends to the other party a written confirmation of the understanding
    e. that is sufficient under the Statute of Frauds to bind the sender, it will also bind the recipient if:
    (i) he has reason to know of the confirmation’s contents; AND
    (ii) he does not object to it in writing within 10 days of receipt.

(NOTE: binds the sender ONLY if in writing and signed by sender)

45
Q

Provisions prohibiting oral modification . . .

A

CL: ineffective
UCC: given effect
- K b/w merchant and non-merchant and provision is on merchant’s form = must be individually signed by non-merch

UCC NOTE: If the parties attempt to orally modify a contract that requires written modification (either because of a contract clause or the Statute of Frauds), it is technically ineffective as a modification, but can operate as a waiver. Such a waiver will be found whenever the other party has changed position in reliance on the oral modification.

46
Q

The implied warranty of merchantability is ______________.

A

Implied in every contract for the sale of goods by a merchant who deals in goods of the kind sold

47
Q

Under Article 2, if goods are so defective that the buyer has a right to reject them the risk of loss __________.

A

risk of loss does not pass to the buyer until the defects are cured or the buyer accepts the goods despite the defects

48
Q

Article 2 has gap-filler provisions to fill in certain missing terms in a contract.

If the price is left open to be agreed upon by the parties and they fail to agree, the price is _____.

If the place for delivery is not specified, the place is _____.

If the time for payment is not specified, payment is due ______.

If the quantity term is not specified, _____.

A

a reasonable price at the time for delivery

the seller’s (not the buyer’s) place of business if he has one; otherwise, it is the seller’s house

at the time and place at which the buyer is to receive the goods

there is no contract; the quantity term will not be supplied by a gap-filler

49
Q

How may an implied warranty of merchantability be disclaimed?

A

By a specific disclaimer mentioning merchantability or by general language such as “as is”