tricky questions Flashcards

1
Q

In an SD-WAN network, what is the term describing the physical network upon which the SD-WAN logical network is constructed?

A

A Software Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) can create logical connections (using VPN technologies) between devices that are not physical adjacent. This allows an SD-WAN network to have a logical topology that looks quite different from the physical topology on which it is built.

The physical topology in an SD-WAN network is called an Underlay Network,
while the logical topology is called an Overlay Network.

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2
Q

Which technology can only operate through the line of sight?

A

IR (Infrared) is a type of wave that is invisible to the human eye and its ability to operate is only line of sight. Devices that use IR include TV remotes.

Bluetooth and Z-Wave can operate even when objects are in the way. RFID is a technology that uses electromagnetic fields to track objects. RFID enabled devices can’t be used in longer distances, and aren’t considered to only operate within the line of sight.

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3
Q

Which L2 protocol transfers data in fixed cells of 53 bytes?

A

ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is a technology used by service providers to switch data using fixed cells of 53 bytes. MPLS (MultiProtocol Label Switching) is a Service Provider technology used to switch data based on labels, instead of addresses. Frame Relay is a layer 2 protocol that specifies the framing and structure of Frame Relay frames on the perspective WAN (Wide Area Network) network. PPP (Point to Point Protocol) is a layer 2 encapsulation protocol that provides features such as authentication and compression, typically used on WAN (Wide Area Network) links.

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4
Q

Which type of encapsulation is used between DSL clients and the service provider to support features such as authentication with Ethernet?

A

PPPoE (Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet) provides features such as authentication over Ethernet networks, which is useful for ISPs (Internet Service Providers).

PPP (Point to Point Protocol) provides the features that PPPoE uses, but only for serial links.

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5
Q

What is a typical use case for Category 8 cabling?

A

Category 8 twisted pair cable can support speeds as high as 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps, with a distance limitation of 30 – 36 meters. With its high speed and its limited distance, Category 8 cabling is well suited for interconnecting components within a data center.

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6
Q

What connector is typically used with MMF fiber and uses a bayonet connector?

A

A ST (Straight Tip) connector is typically used with MMF (Multimode Fiber) and has a bayonet end.

LC (Lucent Connector) is typically used for single mode fiber. MT-RJ can be used with MMF but doesn’t have a bayonet end. An RJ-45 connector is used for Twisted pair copper cabling.

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7
Q

Which type of fiber transceiver has largely replaced GBIC largely due to its size?

A

A SFP (Small Form Factor Pluggable) has largely replaced a GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) largely due to size. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a protocol used to detect and prevent layer 2 loops through the use of BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units). ST and LC are types of fiber connectors.

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8
Q

Miranda, a network technician, was tasked with repairing the phone infrastructure of a company. The company wants to keep the existing, aging infrastructure. Which type of punch down block should she use for the older phone systems?

A

A 66 block is a variation of a punch block that is used to connect telephone wires to a telephone system. An application for a 66 block might be to use it to connect older telephone wires to an older phone system. A 110 block is a variation of a punch block that is used to terminate cable runs, typically used with Ethernet cable. 11 and 660 blocks don’t exist.

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9
Q

What type of VLAN allows voice over IP (VoIP) frames to be treated with higher priority than data frames?

A

A voice VLAN allows an IP phone that is daisy chained to an attached PC to mark voice frames with a higher Class of Service (CoS) marking than data frames sent by the attached PC. That allows both voice and data frames to flow over the same connection into a single switch port, while distinguishing between the voice and data frames.

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10
Q

A security engineer believes malicious traffic has been passing through the network. Because of this, he wants to monitor traffic on a specific VLAN. Which of the following features should he implement on the switch to best achieve this?

A

Port Mirroring also referred to as SPAN (Switchport Analyzer) allows a switch to copy frames sent/received on one port to be sent out a different port for traffic monitoring. A protocol analyzer is used to interpret network traffic originating from a port or another source of traffic. Vampire Taps were used in legacy networks when you wanted to connect a computer to a shared segment network. An air gap is a network that is physically and logically isolated from unsecured networks, such as the internet.

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11
Q

What field in an IP packet is used to set QoS settings?

A

QoS (Quality of Service) is a feature set used to engineer or prioritize various traffic types based on classifications marked in traffic.

QoS settings are set in what’s known as the ToS (Type of Service) Byte in an IPv4 packet (Traffic Class in IPv6).

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12
Q

You have been asked to secure network devices so that everyone must authenticate before modifying any parameters. You also want the access control to be granular and authorize only certain people to be able to change specific settings when necessary. You also need a centralized database to track usernames, device permissions, and accounting information. Which protocol should you use?

A

TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) works on the basis of the AAA framework to provide Authentication, granular Authorization, and accounting features. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial In User Service) offers many of the same features as TACACS+ but doesn’t offer authorization features. Single Sign-On (SSO) is used to allow a user to authenticate once and access various resources. Kerberos is an authentication protocol that leverages the use of tickets to authenticate network devices over unsecured networks.

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13
Q

!!! Which of the following features err-disables a switch port when a BPDU is received?

A

BPDU Guard is a Cisco feature that shuts down a port if a BPDU is received. BPDU filter is a switchport feature that prevents sending and receiving of BPDUs on a port. Root Filter doesn’t exist. BPDU detect and BPDU defender doesn’t exist.

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14
Q

Which backup type usually takes the lowest amount of time to backup the data but has the slowest restore time?

A

Incremental Backups only backup information that changed with the last full or incremental backup. With this in mind, this backup type requires the least amount of time to backup information, since it relies on full and previous incremental backups. Snapshots are a Virtual Machine (VM) only concept that is a backup of a VM’s current state. A full backup takes the longest amount of time of all backup types to backup information but takes the least amount of time to restore information. A Differential backup backs up information that changed since the last full backup. This backup isn’t as quic

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15
Q

You need to verify L3 host redundancy failover time after setting up a FHRP between 2 routers. You need to do this on a Windows host and need to continuously ping the virtual IP address, 192.168.1.1. Which of the following commands should you use?

A

ping -t 192.168.1.1

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16
Q

Which of the following commands releases an assigned DHCP address on a Windows host?

A

the command ipconfig /release is used to immediately release an assigned DHCP address on a Windows host.

17
Q

Which of the following cable types are used for very short-range high-speed applications, such as in SATA 3.0 cables and uplinks between two switches in the same rack-mounted enclosure?

A

Twinaxial cabling, or “Twinax”, is a type of cable similar to coaxial cable, but with two inner conductors instead of one. Due to cost efficiency, it is commonly used in very short-range high-speed differential signaling applications, such as SATA 3.0 cables and uplinks between SFP+ modules in switches or routers.

18
Q

Which type of cable uses an F-connector?

A

An F-type connector is a coaxial radiofrequency connector commonly used for cable television with an RG-6 cable. RG-6 is a type of coaxial cable used to transmit audio and video signals to devices such as television sets. It is also used with cable modems to transmit data.

19
Q

Which of the following network protocols is used to send email from one server to another server?

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a well-known application that uses port 25 for sending email from one server to another server.

20
Q

Which type of network device operates at layer 1 of the OSI model and requires connected devices to operate at half-duplex using CSMA/CD?

A

A hub is a network hardware device for connecting multiple Ethernet devices together and making them act as a single network segment. A hub operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model. All devices connected by a hub are in a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain, therefore they must use half-duplex for communication and CSMA/CD.

21
Q

Which of the following applies to data as it travels from Layer 1 to Layer 7 of the OSI model?

A

Data encapsulation and de-encapsulation in a computer network is a necessary process. De-encapsulation in networking is performed at the receiver side or destination side as data moves from layer 1 to layer 7 of the OSI model. As information travels up the layers of the OSI layer, information added from the sender’s encapsulation process is removed layer by layer.

22
Q

A new area being provisioned needs to have its hosts use a /21 subnet mask. How many subnets and hosts does this provide with the network 172.16.0.0?

A

A /21 mask provides a block size of 8, 32 subnets, and 2046 hosts when used in conjunction with

23
Q

What is a reflective dns attack?

A

A reflective DNS attack is a two-step attack used in DDoS attacks. The attacker sends a large number of requests to one or more legitimate DNS servers while using a spoofed source IP of the targeted victim. The DNS server then replies to the spoofed IP and unknowingly floods the targeted victim with responses to DNS requests that it never sent.