Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

trulearn questions > treatments > Flashcards

treatments Flashcards

1
Q

treatment for male vs female androgenic alopecia

vs alopecia areata

A

MALE: topical minoxidil +
oral finasteride

FEMALE: topical minoxidil + oral spironolactone (xmas tree pattern on head)

ALOPECIA AREATA: intralesional corticosteroid injections (patchy hairloss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

treatment for keloids vs hypertrophic scars

A

intralesional corticosteroids

i.e. triamcinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

topical treatment for atopic dermatitis or psoriasis

A

topical tacroimus (an immunosuppressant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment of diabetes in pregnancy

A

gestational diabetes =
BS is 95+ fasting, 140+ 1hr postprandial, 120+ 2 hr postprandial

fail lifestyle
1. insulin
2. metformin or sulfonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

54 yo plumber comes in for tremor and wrist drop, only supplement takes is daily miralax for chronic constipation. PE shows teeth with black lines on the edge.

dx and treatment?

A

lead poisoning

chelate with dimercaprol or succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

farmer comes to rural clinic in for really bad N/V/D and palpitations.
PE= patches of tan skin and hyperkeratosis, decreased sensation fingers and toes
EKG shows QRS 525,

dx and treatment

A

arsenic poisoning

chelate with dimercaprol or succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

34 yo WM comes in for N+D after returning from his food tour of japanese islands. pt also notes trouble sleeping and racing thoughts

PE shows red and inflamed lips and gums, which are painful.

dx and trx

A

mercury poisoning

trx w succimer and dimercaprol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pt comes from a rave w tachy, convulsions and respiratory depression. lots of other people from the same rave come in w similar sx

dx and trx

A

cyanide poisoning

trx = amyl nitrate first and then thiosulfate
OR hydroxycobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

middle aged WM w history of recently diagnosed anxiety and depression comes in with hematemesis .

PR shows jaundice and keyser flescher rings.

dx and trx

A

copper poisoning

trx= d-penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

keratosis pilaris

A

= benign keratosis of if individual hair follicles, +/- surrounding erythema

1st line = emollients
- keratolytics, like salicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

psoriasis 1st line

A

1st line = high dose corticosteroids

i.e. betamethisone, clobetasol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

acne vulgaris

A

topical retinoids
i.e. tretinoin, tazarotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

hydradenitis suppurativa

stage 1, 2, 3

A

= chronic follicular occluding ds
trx= abx (tetracyclines)

stage 1: assess with no sinus tract or scarring
- topical clindamycin

stage 2: abscess with sinus tract and scarring
- oral tetracycline

stage 3: diffuse abscesses with a bunch of sinus tracts that all connect
- oral tetracycline

refractory= combine clinda+rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

von willibrand ds

minor bleeds vs major bleeds

A

= dec/defective vWF (binds platelets to sub endothelial structures, carries Factor 8 to the scene)

minor bleeding
- 1st desmopressin
- 2nd line, transexamic acid, vWF concentrate

major bleeding:
- factor 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

acetaminophen toxicity

A

N-acetyl cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

anticholinergics toxicity

A

physostigmine, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

benzo toxicity

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

beta blocker toxicity

A
  1. atropine
  2. glucagon w IV fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

calcium channel blocker toxicity

A

calcium chloride
or
glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

dopamine toxicity

A

phentolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

heparin toxicity

A

protamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

isoniazid toxicity

A

pyridoxine (vitamin b6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

organophosphate toxicity

A

pralidoxime, atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

salicylate toxicity

A

sodium bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

TCA toxicity

A

sodium bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

warfarin toxicity

A

vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

magnesium toxicity

A

calcium glutinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia

what is MOA

A

imatinib, dasatinib

= tyrosine-kinase inhibitors = target gene rearrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

diverticulitis

A

IV ceftriaxone / IV metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

bacterial vaginosis

common AE of this treatment

A

metronidazole
= disulfiram-like reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

basal cell carcinoma

A

Mohs surgery = take out the afflicted cells and a minimal margin around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

89 yo female w hx of CABG 10 yo s/p MI and smokes 2ppd, presents with sudden onset SOB, dizziness, and confusion.

BP=71/45
HR= 31
RR=36
Osat= 85%

she is oriented to person only. breathing is shallow only.

EKG shows p waves that don’t match up with the QRS wave

A

shock in the setting of 3rd degree AV block

trx= transcutaneous pacing always
(even tho she is breathing!)

transcutaneous pacing is easy and quick, don’t need IV access, and will reverse the cause of shock
– afterwards might help to have IV atropine/dopamine/dobutamine
– eventually will need a pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pulmonary arterial hypertension
group 1

A

prostoglandins = epoprostenol
“-prost”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

acute pericarditis secondary to viral illness

A

NSAIDs i.e. ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

menopause

A

replacement with
-estrogen + progesterone
-venlafaxine
-or clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

patient is 36 weeks pregnant comes in for GBS testing and is found to be positive. what is the treatment?

A

intra-partum IV abx (during L&D)
- typically ampicillin/penicillin
- if allergic, cefzolin or erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

prinzemetal (variable) angina
vs.
stable angina
vs.
unstable angina

A

prinzemetal = CCB aka diltiazem, amlodipine, nifedipine

stable =
-ASA
-nitroglycerin
-ACE/ARB
-beta blocker
-statin
- lifestyle changes

unstable =
- all above for stable
- cardiac catheterization required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

first line for HTN in a patient with osteoporosis

A

thiazide diuretic = furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

first line for HTN in a patient with migraines

A

beta blocker or CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

first line for HTN in a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

alpha blocker i.e. prazosin, doxazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

56 year old male presents for 2 years of blistering and scarring of his hands. he works in construction, notes blistering and scarring is worse in the summer and better in the winter. patient has had 6 beers/day for 30 years.

PE reveals blisters and scarring on the back of his neck and ears which he did not know about.

vitals wnl.

dx?

A

porphyria cutanea tarda

= blisters and scarring in sun exposed areas associated with liver ds (alcohol use, cirrhosis, hep C, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

56 yo male presents for several years of worsening blistering on his face and back of the neck. notes severe pruritus. patient is retired but enjoys gardening when the weather is nice. PMH sign for HTN and DMT2, denies substance use history.

PE shows blisters on his face and back of the beck, no erythema or scarring.

dx?

A

polymorphic light eruption

= papules and plaques in sun exposed areas, common in spring and summer

NO scarring, super itchy blisters

43
Q

single agent coverage of anaerobic / enteric organisms

what about abx combos

A

i.e. e. coli, klebsiella, enterobacter (internal infections)

single = bactrim = piperacillin-tazobactam

multiple= metronidazole + ceftriaxone

44
Q

treatment of community acquired pneumonia in

<1 month old
1 mo-3 mo old
3 mo-5 yo
5-18 yo

A

comfortable but has respiratory sx (productive cough)

<1 = inpatient hospitalization
(GBS/E coli)

1mo-3mo = inpatient hospitalization
(c. trachomatis, strep pneu)

3mo-5yo = amoxicillin/ amoxicillin-clavulanate, a macrolide if allergic
( strep pneumo, staph aureus, strep pyogenes)

5yo-18yo = macrolide = azithromycin
( mycoplasma, chlamydia pneumo, strep pneumo)

45
Q

pt comes in with worsening migraines, that are no longer contained with triptan + naproxen

next step of management (name 4 possible meds)

A

-life style modifications
- preventative medications
- oral propranolol
- oral valproate (depakote)
- oral verapamil
- oral venlafaxine

46
Q

treatment of QRS widening

A

sodium bicarbonate

47
Q

cocaine intoxication and cocaine induced cardiac injury

A

IV benzos for the behavior and HTN = IV lorazepam, etc

if they BP is still high +/or they continue to complain of sx (i..e CP) give an IV alpha blocker
= IV phentolamine/nitroprusside/nitroglycerin
— also treat w ASA, nitroglycerine.. bc of potential ischemia

48
Q

acute pancreatitis

A

fluids
insulin
inpatient treatment

not always NPO, feed based on severity –> the earlier they can eat the better prognosis

49
Q

chronic treatment to prevent recurrence of high-triglyceride induced pancreatitis (2 meds)

A

statin + fenofibrate
- fenofibrate = good at lowering triglycerides

both meds have potential side effect of myopathy so be careful

50
Q

treatment of high total cholesterol with high LDL levels

A

= statin + ezetimibe
ezetimibe= decreased absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol

51
Q

ectopic pregnancy with rupture

A

emergent laparoscopy

  • surgery in any ectopic pregnancy with the beta hcg>5000, any fetal cardiac activity noted, or if the patient is hemodynamically unstable
  • if small ectopic pregnancy and stable, can use methotrexate and follow with serial beta hcgs

CANNOT use MTX if -immunocomp, - multiple or viable pregnancy, - abn renal labs or CBC

52
Q

patient comes in for treatment of an NSTEMI, get a stent placed

what medications do they NEED to be on upon discharge (5)

A
  1. ASA
  2. clopidogrel (a P2Y12 inhibitor for x plt clotting
  3. statin
  4. ACE-I (lisinopril)
  5. beta blocker (metoprolol)

treatment of ACS requires ASA + clopidogrel = the DUAL ANTI-PLATELET THERAPY

53
Q

hyperkalemia

A

calcium gluconate

54
Q

candida esophagitis

A

oral flucanazole

(oral nystatin has a high failure rate)

55
Q

acute diverticulitis

give trx for
- inpatient single agent
- inpatient combo trx

-outpatient single agent
-outpatient combo trx

A

inpatient single agent =
- etanercept or piperacillin-tazobactam

inpatient combo=
- metronidazole + cefazolin/ceftriazone/ -floxacin

outpatient single=
- amoxicillin-clavulanate

outpatient combo =
- metronidazole + TMP-SMX/ -floxacin

56
Q

patient presents to ED and suddenly loses consciousness and pulses are absent. EKG shows vtach

trx?

A

defibrillation for pulseless V tach

if the patient had a pulse and had V tach, would do cardio version

57
Q

viral or idiopathic pericarditis

A

colchicine + NSAID (ibuprofen)

58
Q

methanol poisoning

A

fomepizole

59
Q

pt with severe cirrhosis comes in very sick and spontaneously started vomiting up blood

what three prophylactic treatments would you start

A
  1. for possible PUD = pantoprazole
  2. for possible SBP = ceftriaxone
  3. for the bleeding = octreotide
60
Q

animal bite of the hand that does not look infected

A

prophylactic amoxicillin-clavulanate bc the hand has so many small compartments

bite in another body area that does not look infected can get supportive care

61
Q

pertussis aka “whooping cough”

A

macrolide = azithromycin
/erythromycin/clarithromycin

62
Q

lice/nats

A

topical pyrethrin or permethrin

63
Q

a-fib that is stable but has tachy

A

rate control = diliazem or verapamil (non-dihydropyrodine CCB)

64
Q

a-fib that is stable but has tachy

A

rate control = diliazem or verapamil (non-dihydropyridine CCB)

65
Q

treatment of a flutter

A

stable patient = catheter ablation

unstable patient = synchronized cardioversion

66
Q

hyperosmolar hyperglycemia

A

presents with high serum osmolality, hypotension, and hypercglycemia (AMS and dehydration )

isotonic saline

67
Q

myxedema coma

A

IV fluids if hemodynamically unstable
IV levothyroxine
IV hydrocortisone until adrenal insufficiency has been rule out

68
Q

SIADH

A

fluid restriction first

demeclocycline = antagonist ADH in the collecting ducts

refractory SIADH = tolvaptan is a vasopressin antagonist

69
Q

exercise induced bronchospasm

A

cromolyn sodium

blocks mast cell degranulation

70
Q

acute lead poisoning

A

presents with neurotoxicity (poor prognosis with cerebral edema), microcytic anemia, vomiting

oral chelation with a succimer
OR parenteral chelation with dimercaprol or EDTA

71
Q

hypertensive emergency

A

> 180/120 + end organ damage

IV hypertensives continuos drip + ICU

72
Q

uncomplicated UTI empiric

A

TMP-SMX or cephalexin (1st/2nd gen cephalosporin)

73
Q

perianal abscess

A

drainage

empiric abx = amoxicillin-clavulanate OR metronidazole OR ciprofloxacin

74
Q

hypertensive emergency
aka BP > 180/>120 with end organ damage

A

IV antihypertensives

1st choice = IV nicardipine

no longer hydralazine bc of unpredictability and rebound tachy

75
Q

Vtach with faint pulses

A

synchronized cardioversion
- wide complex tachy is unstable tachy

if no pulse = not shockable
-adenosine, BB or CCB

76
Q

treatment of pseudogout

what does aspirate look like
birefringent positive or negative

A

NSAIDS or colchicine

= rhomboid shaped crystals, birefringent positive

77
Q

gout

immediate and preventative

A

immediate = NSAIDS , colchicine , steroids

preventative = allopurinol (urate lowering)

78
Q

staph scalded skin syndrome

A

aka pemphigus neonatum, presents 3-7 days old with diffuse rash and flaccid blisters due to exotoxin A and B breaking up the desmogleins

the staph aureus strain that causes this is penicillin resistant SO..
oxacillin
nafcillin
vancomycin

79
Q

the flu aka influenza

A

oseltamivir

80
Q

methanol poisoning

A

fomepizole or ethanol

81
Q

guillan barre trx

A

IVIG or plasma exchange

82
Q

osteoporosis
(4 options)

A

FIRST LINE- bisphosphonates like alendronate
-teriparatide
-SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulators)
-intranasal calcitonin

dx w DEXA, but also fragility fractures are diagnostic enough to start medication treatment and not need a DEXA scan

83
Q

pre-eclampsia

most serious possible AE to this trx is?

A

magnesium sulfate

hypermagnesemia can cause neuromuscular changes leading to RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION

84
Q

empiric treatment for a spinal epidural abscess

A

MC cause is s. aureus (MRSA and MSSA)

  • IV vanc and IV cefepime
85
Q

lyme ds

in pregnant/lactating ppl?

A

doxycycline

preg/lactating = amoxicillin > doxy

86
Q

uncomplicated short bowel obstruction

perforated SBO

A

conservative trx which could include NPO, nasogastric tube, IV fluids

perforated = emergency surgical consult

87
Q

BP control for pheochromocytoma while waiting for surgery

A

alpha blockade = phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin

+ beta blocker if needed for HR = propranolol

88
Q

hydatidiform mole

A

= trophoblastic ds presenting with abnormally high hcg and uterine sac LGA and snowstorm pattern on US

trx = D&C to “evacuate” the uterus

if suspicion for malignancy can get one dose of MTX

89
Q

trx for gonnorrhea and chlamydia

A

G = ceftriaxone

C = doxycycline

90
Q

pseudomonas coverage

A

cefepime, floroquinolone

91
Q

neurotrophic fever

A

= fever 101.5+ and WBC < 1500

= cefepime = pseudomonas coverage

92
Q

reverse warfarin

A

vitamin K = takes time

prothrombin complex concentrate = in an emergency i.e. before emergent surgery

93
Q

pt w hx of cirrhosis comes in w severe hematemesis and melena. pt becomes obtunded, hypotensive, hgb 5

treatment (6)

A

for varices bleeding

IV blood transfusion
IV fluid rescucitation
IV proton pump inhibitor
IV octreiotide
IV ceftriaxone
consult GI for EGD

94
Q

TCA overdose

A

sodium bicarbonate

= cardiac, convulsions, coma

95
Q

which cranial technique is used for babies that have trouble latching on for breastfeeding

A

condylar decompression

96
Q

acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

– mild
–what is the feared complication and how do you treat?

A

—amoxicillin +/- clavulanate

if allergic to penicillin, then do azithromycin

– spread of infection –> orbital cellulitis
- get a CT
- eval by optho
- trx IV with MRSA and G- coverage = IV ceftriaxone + IV vancomycin + IV metronidazole

97
Q

PCOS for ovulation induction

A

clomiphene citrate or letrozole

98
Q

patient with pain with urination, inc frequency, and suprapubic fullness

A

cystitis (NOT UTI, which also has systemic signs)

= nitrofurantoin is first line empiric
other first line options = fosfomycin and TMP/SMX

99
Q

outpatient trx in acute DVT, no comorbid complications

A

3 months of a Xa inhibitor

=rivaroxaban, etc

100
Q

what is the equation for the hourly fluid maintenance amount for kids

A

4-2-1 rule : 4 mL/kg for the first 10, 2 ml/kg for the next 10, and 1 mg/mL for the next 20 kilograms

101
Q

tularemia

A

streptomycin/gentamicin
doxycycline
ciprofloxacin

102
Q

necrotizing fasciitis

A

meropenem OR piperacillin-tazobactam = G- and anaerobes

vancomycin = MRSA

clindamycin = anti-toxin effect

103
Q

which 4 meds improve mortality in heart failure

A

beta blockers
ace-i
arbs
spironolactone

104
Q

myxedema coma

A

IV levothyroxine
IV hydrocortison

bc they present with bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia

trulearn questions (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions