Trauma & Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for primary OA?

A

obesity, advancing age, female gender, and manual labour occupations

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2
Q

Differentials for OA in the hands?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout

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3
Q

Differentials for OA in the hip?

A

trochanteric bursitis, radiculopathy, spinal stenosis, or iliotibial band syndrome

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4
Q

Differentials for OA in the knee?

A

meniscal or ligament tears, or chondromalacia patellae

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5
Q

General differentials for OA?

A

inflammatory arthropathies (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis), crystal arthropathies (e.g. gout or CPPD), septic arthritis, fractures, bursitis, or malignancy (primary or metastatic)

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6
Q

Classic radiological features of OA?

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral cysts
Subchondral sclerosis

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7
Q

Outline management of OA

A

Conservative:
weight loss, strengthening exercises, local heat packs, joint support, physio

Medical:
simple analgesics and NSAIDs
intra-articular steroid injections (can cause steroid flare)

Surgical:
mainstay of management is with arthroplasty, however other options include osteotomy and arthrodesis (joint fusion)

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8
Q

What is the most important adage to remember for the surgical management in traumatic orthopaedic complaints?

A

‘Reduce – Hold – Rehabilitate’

In the context of high-energy injuries, this is precluded by resuscitation following ATLS principles

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9
Q

Reduction involves restoring the anatomical alignment of a fracture or dislocation of the deformed limb.

Reduction allows for what 4 things to occur?

A
  1. Tamponade of bleeding at the fracture site
  2. Reduction in the traction on the surrounding soft tissues, in turn reducing swelling
  3. Reduction in the traction on the traversing nerves, therefore reducing the risk of neuropraxia
  4. Reduction of pressures on traversing blood vessels, restoring any affected blood supply

Fracture reduction is typically performed closed in ED. However, some fractures need to be reduced open intraoperatively

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10
Q

What are the clinical requirements for fracture reduction?

A

Analgesia
- where regional or local blockade is sufficient and easily provided (e.g. phalangeal/metacarpal/distal radius fractures), this is the method of choice

short period of conscious sedation often in anaesthetic room

3 staff members - one to perform the reduction manoeuvre and one to provide counter-traction, with a third person needed to apply the plaster.

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11
Q

What is meant by ‘hold’ in fracture management?

A

generic term used to describe immobilising a fracture

consider whether traction needed - e.g. where the muscular pull across the fracture site is strong and the fracture is inherently unstable

most common ways to immobilise a fracture are via simple splints or plaster casts

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12
Q

When applying a plaster cast, the most important principles to remember are what?

A

For the first 2-weeks, plasters are not circumferential: (not always the case in children)
- They must have an area which is only covered by the overlying dressing, to allow the fracture to swell; if not the cast will become tight (and painful) overnight, and if left the patient is at risk of compartment syndrome

If there is axial instability ( the fracture is able to rotate along its long axis), e.g. combined tibia-fibula metaphyseal fractures or combined radius-ulna metaphyseal fractures, the plaster should cross both the joint above and below:
- usually termed ‘above knee’ or ‘above elbow’ plasters, respectively, preventing the limb to rotate on its long axis

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13
Q

What is important to consider when initiating fracture immobilisation?

A

Can the patient weight bear?

Do they need thromboprophylaxis?
If the patient is immobilised in a cast and is non-weight bearing, it is common to provide thromboprophylaxis

Have you provided advice about the symptoms of compartment syndrome?

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14
Q

What is the most important investigation when investigating an acute monoarthritis?

A

joint aspiration

The aspirate can be sent for white cell count and MCS, as well as light microscopy (for crystals)

aspiration of prosthetic joints should be done in theatre due to infection risk

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15
Q

What will synovial fluid appear like in a non- inflammatory arthritis, inflammatory arthritis and septic arthritis?

A

non- inflammatory arthritis - clear/straw coloured
inflammatory arthritis - clear/cloudy yellow
septic arthritis - turbid

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16
Q

What will the WCC look like in a non- inflammatory arthritis, inflammatory arthritis and septic arthritis?

A

non- inflammatory arthritis - moderate <2000
inflammatory arthritis - high >2000
septic arthritis - very high >50,000

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17
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

infection of a joint most commonly caused by S. aureus

It is important that it is identified and treated quickly as it can cause irreversible articular cartilage damage or overwhelming sepsis and mortality

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18
Q

What are Spondyloarthropathies?

A

group of conditions comprising of Psoriatic Arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, Reactive Arthritis, and Enteropathic arthropathy

seronegative conditions (RF negative)
associated with HLA-B27

all can present with “axial arthritis” (those affecting the spinal and SI joints)

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19
Q

What is haemarthrosis?

A

Bleeding into a joint cavity

most commonly due to trauma although can also be caused by bleeding disorders and anti-coagulation

may also be a concurrent ligamentous or meniscal injury that has specifically caused the bleeding (e.g. ACL containing a genicular artery)

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20
Q

When is a fracture considered to be ‘open’?

A

when there is a direct communication between the fracture site and the external environment

most often through the skin – however, pelvic fractures may be internally open, having penetrated in to the vagina or rectum

may become open by either an “in-to-out” injury, ( sharp bone ends penetrate the skin from beneath) or an “out-to-in” injury, where a high energy injury (e.g. ballistic injury or a direct blow) penetrates the skin

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21
Q

What are the most common open fractures?

A

tibial, phalangeal, forearm, ankle, and metacarpal

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22
Q

Why is the rate of infection so high following open fractures?

A

direct contamination, reduced vascularity, systemic compromise (such as following major trauma) and need for insertion of metalwork for fracture stabilisation

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23
Q

What should you check for on examination of an open fracture?

A

neurovascular status
overlying skin / tissue loss
evidence of contamination - marine, agricultural, and sewage contamination is of the highest importance
identify need for plastics early

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24
Q

The Gustilo-Anderson classification can be used to classify open fractures. Outline Types 1 through to 3C

A

Type 1: <1cm wound and clean

Type 2: 1-10cm wound and clean

Type 3A: >10cm wound and high-energy, but with adequate soft tissue coverage

Type 3B: >10cm wound and high-energy, but with inadequate soft tissue coverage

Type 3C: All injuries with vascular injury

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25
Q

How can open fractures be managed?

A
  1. rescucitation and stabilisation
  2. realignment and splinting
  3. reassess neurovascular status
  4. broad spectrum abx and tetanus vaxx if not up to date
  5. photograph wound and remove gross debris
  6. dress wound with saline-soaked gauze
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26
Q

Definitive surgical management of open fractures requires debridement of the wound and the fracture site, removing all devitalised tissue present.

When should this happen?

A

either immediately if contaminated with marine, agricultural, or sewage material, or <12-24 hours in all other cases

early surgical exploration by vascular if evidence of vascular compromise

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27
Q

When should soft tissue coverage of open fractures happen?

A

within 72 hours, or as guided by plastic surgeon advice

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28
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

critical pressure increase within a confined compartmental space

any fascial compartment can be affected, however the most common sites affected are in the leg, thigh, forearm, foot, hand and buttock

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29
Q

What is the pathophysiology of compartment syndrome?

A

typically occurs following high-energy trauma, crush injuries, or fractures that cause vascular injury
- can also be due to tight casts, DVT, and post-reperfusion swelling

Fascial compartments are closed and cannot be distended so extra fluid = increase in the intra-compartmental pressure

veins compressed first, then nerves, then arteries as pressure matches the diastolic pressure

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30
Q

The most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is severe pain. Describe this pain.
Aggravating factors?

A

severe pain, disproportionate to the injury

not readily improved with initial measures (such as analgesia, elevation to the level of the heart, and splitting a tight cast)

pain is made worse by passively stretching the muscle bellies traversing the affected fascial compartment

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31
Q

Compartment syndrome is a clinical diagnosis. What diagnostic test can be used when there is uncertainty?

A

intra-compartmental pressure monitor

used in atypical presentations or if the patient is unconscious / intubated

CK may also aid diagnosis

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32
Q

What are normal compartmental pressures?

A

0-8 mmHg

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33
Q

How should compartment syndrome be managed?

A

early recognition and immediate surgical treatment via urgent fasciotomies

other steps:
Keep the limb at a neutral level with the patient
High flow O2
Augment BP with bolus of IV crystalloid fluids ( transiently improves perfusion of the affected limb)
Remove all dressings / splints / casts, down to the skin
Opioid analgesia

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34
Q

What should be done post-fasciotomy?

A

skin incisions are left open and a re-look is planned for 24-48 hours - assess for any dead tissue that needs to be debrided

Monitor renal function closely, due to the potential effects of rhabdomyolysis or reperfusion injury

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35
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

infection of the bone - mostly acute bacterial origin

in adults, the vertebrae are the most commonly affected bones (in children, long bones)

caused by haematogenous spread, direct inoculation (such as following an open fracture or penetrating injury), or direct spread from nearby infection (such as a contiguous joint)

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36
Q

Most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?

A

staph aureus most common

P. aeruginosa - intravenous drug users
Salmonella spp - patients with sickle cell disease

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37
Q

Risk factors for osteomyelitis?

A

diabetes mellitus
immunosuppression (such as long term steroid treatment or AIDS)
alcohol excess
IVDU

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38
Q

What is Potts disease?

A

infection of the vertebral body and intervertebral disc by Mycobacterium tuberculosi

Patients will present with back pain +/- neurological features

MRI gold standard investigation

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39
Q

X-rays are often performed for osteomyelitis although they have poor accuracy - any signs tend to only be visible from ~7-10 days post-initial infection.

What might they show?
What other investigations can be performed?

A

osteopaenia, periosteal thickening, endosteal scalloping, and focal cortical bone loss

Definitive diagnosis can be achieved through MRI imaging

Gold standard diagnosis is from culture from bone biopsy at debridement (or curettage where there are associated ulcers) - important to check for TB and fungus in immunosuppressed

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40
Q

How can osteomyelitis be managed?

A

If the patient is clinically well, patients will require long-term IV abx (>4 weeks) tailored to any cultures available

If the patient clinically deteriorates, the limb shows evidence of deterioration, or imaging shows progressive bone destruction, then surgical management may be required

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41
Q

Complications of osteomyelitis?

A

septic arthritis or soft tissue infections
overwhelming sepsis
recurrence of infection - esp with early discontinuation of abx
children may develop growth disturbances as a result of premature physeal closure

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42
Q

How will patients with chronic osteomyelitis present?
How can it be managed surgically?

A

localised ongoing bone pain and non-specific infection symptoms (e.g. malaise or lethargy)

may be a draining sinus tract and they may have difficulties in mobility

Mx: local bone and soft tissue debridement for definitive source control, alongside extensive long-term abx

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43
Q

What is a radiculopathy?

A

a conduction block in the axons of a spinal nerve or its roots

motor axons = weakness
sensory axons = parasthesia

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44
Q

What is the distinction between radiculopathy and radicular pain

A

Radiculopathy is a state of neurological loss and may or may not be associated with radicular pain.

Radicular pain is pain deriving from damage or irritation of the spinal nerve tissue, particularly the dorsal root ganglion.

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45
Q

What can cause radiculopathy?

A

most commonly due to nerve compression

Intervertebral disc prolapse
- repeated minor stresses on lumbar spine that predispose to rupture of the annulus fibrosus and sequestration of nucleus pulposus

Degenerative diseases of the spine
– spinal canal stenosis
- 80% of the population over 55 years old have degenerative changes between C5/6 and C6/7

Fracture – either trauma or pathological

Malignancy – most commonly metastatic

Infection – extradural abscesses, osteomyelitis (most commonly TB (‘Pott’s disease’), or Herpes Zoster

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46
Q

What can you assess for on examination of cauda equina syndrome?

A

pinprick sensation in the perianal dermatomes (reduced)
anocutaneous reflex (diminished or absent)
anal tone (reduced)
rectal pressure sensation (reduced)

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47
Q

Red flags for CES?

A

Faecal incontinence
Urinary retention (painless, with secondary overflow incontinence)
Saddle anaesthesia

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48
Q

Red flags for infection as a cause of radiculopathy?

A

Immunosuppression
Intravenous drug abuse
Unexplained fever
Chronic steroid use

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49
Q

Red flags for fracture as a cause of radiculopathy?

A

Chronic steroid use
Significant trauma
Osteoporosis or metabolic bone disease

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50
Q

Red flags for malignancy/mets as a cause of radiculopathy?

A

New onset after 50 years old
Systemic symptoms
Hx of malignancy

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51
Q

The differential diagnosis for radicular pain should include pseudoradicular pain syndromes: these are conditions that do not arise directly from nerve root dysfunction, but cause radiating limb pain in an approximate radicular pattern.

Give some examples

*REVIEW CARD

A

Referred pain
Myofascial pain
Thoracic outlet syndrome
Greater trochanteric bursitis
Iliotibial band syndrome
Meralgia paraesthetica
Piriformis syndrome

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52
Q

Most IV disc prolapses can be managed non-operatively. What are the indications for surgery?

A

unremitting pain despite comprehensive non-surgical management
progressive weakness
new or progressive myelopathy (compression of the spinal cord)

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53
Q

What can be used for symptomatic mx of radiculopathy?

A

Amitriptyline is usually first line, or pregabalin and gabapentin as alternatives

benzodiazepines (often diazepam) or baclofen for muscle spasms

physio

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54
Q

What is degenerative disc disease?

A

the natural deterioration of the intervertebral disc structure

Often related to ageing :
Progressive dehydration of the nucleus pulposus
Daily activities causing tears in the annulus fibrosis
Injuries or pathology resulting in instability

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55
Q

What are the cascade of changes seen degenerative disc disease?

A
  1. Dysfunction – outer annular tears and separation of the endplate, cartilage destruction, and facet synovial reaction
  2. Instability – disc resorption and loss of disc space height, along with facet capsular laxity, can lead to subluxation and spondylolisthesis
  3. Restabilisation – degenerative changes lead to osteophyte formation and canal stenosis
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56
Q

What are the potential signs of degenerative disc disease?

A

local spinal tenderness or contracted paraspinal muscles, hypomobility, or painful extension of the back or neck

Further disease progression may demonstrate signs of worsening muscle tenderness, stiffness, reduced movement (particularly lumbar region), and scoliosis

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57
Q

What is Lasègue test?

A

also known as the straight leg raise , used to assess for disc herniation in patients presenting with lumbago

with the patient lying down on their back, the examiner lifts the patient’s leg while the knee is straight

A positive sign is when pain is elicited during the leg raising +/- ankle dorsiflexion or cervical spine flexion

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58
Q

When is imaging warranted for suspected degenerative disc disease?

A

Red flags present
Radiculopathy with pain for more than 6 weeks
Evidence of a spinal cord compression
Imaging would significantly alter management

MRI spine is the gold standard investigation however the majority of cases do not require imaging

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59
Q

When are spine radiographs recommended?

A

history of recent significant trauma, known osteoporosis, or aged over 70 years

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60
Q

Analgesia and physiotherapy is the mainstay of management. When would referral to pain clinic be indicated?

A

continued pain after 3 months despite analgesia

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61
Q

What is the most commonly used classification system for fractures of the cervical spine?

A

AO classification

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62
Q

Give some differentials for patients presenting with cervical neck pain

A

fracture, cervical spondylosis, cervical dislocation, or whiplash injury

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63
Q

What is a Jefferson fracture?

A

burst fracture of the atlas, usually unstable

It is caused by axial loading of the cervical spine resulting in the occipital condyles being driven into the lateral masses of C1.

They are often associated with head injuries - think ‘silly Jeff diving headfirst into the shallow end’

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64
Q

What is a Hangman’s fracture?

A

also called traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis

fracture through the pars interarticularis of C2 bilaterally, usually with subluxation of C2 on C3

caused by cervical hyperextension

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65
Q

What are odontoid peg fractures?

A

common cervical fractures, most common in older patients

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66
Q

What is the imaging for suspected cervical spine fractures?

A

Perform a CT scan in adults, if suggested by Canadian C-spine rules
Perform MRI for children, if suggested by Canadian C-spine rules

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67
Q

How should C-spine fractures be managed?

A

3-point C-spine immobilisation initially to prevent damage to spinal cord

Non-operative management can be appropriate for stable injuries:
Rigid collars or halo vests

Unstable fractures are usually treated operatively by fusing across the injured segment of the spine to the uninjured segments above and below

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68
Q

What is the most common area for a spinal fracture?

A

thoracolumbar junction (T11–L2)

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69
Q

What 3 columns can the spine be split into when assessing the stability of a fracture?

A

Anterior column – anterior longitudinal ligament and the anterior half of the vertebral body and disc

Middle column – posterior half of the vertebral body and disc, and posterior longitudinal ligament

Posterior column – comprised of the posterior elements (the posterior ligamentous complex, including the facet joint capsule, ligamentum flavum, and interspinous and supraspinous ligaments) and the intervening vertebral arches

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70
Q

What are the 3 types of thoracolumbar fracture according the AO classification?

A

Type A – compression injuries
Type B – distraction injuries
Type C – translation injuries

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71
Q

Which patient group do clavicle fractures occur in?

A

very common fractures

mainly adolescents and young people

second peak in 60+ age group due to osteoporosis

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72
Q

How can clavicle fractures be classified?

A

Allman classification

Type I (75%)– fracture of the middle 1/3 of clavicle (weakest segment)
- generally stable

Type II (20%)– fracture involving the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle
-when displaced, often unstable

Type III (5%) - medial 1/3 of the clavicle
- commonly associated with multi-system polytrauma
- as the mediastinum sits directly behind this fracture site, they can be associated with neurovascular compromise, pneumothorax, or haemothorax

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73
Q

How do clavicle fractures usually displace?

A

The medial fragment will often displace superiorly, due to the pull of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, whilst the lateral fragment will displace inferiorly from the weight of the arm

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74
Q

Due to the subcutaneous location of the clavicle, it is important to specifically look for open injuries or threatened skin. How does ‘threatened’ skin present?

A

tented, tethered, white, and non-blanching skin

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75
Q

How are clavicle fractures assessed?
How are they managed?
Healing time?

A

X-rays - both anteroposterior and modified-axial views

Tx: usually conservative
- sling to support elbow and improve deformity
- early mobilisation of shoulder to prevent frozen shoulder
- surgery for open fractures or bilateral fractures to enable weight bearing

Usually heal in 4-6 weeks

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76
Q

Major complication of clavicle fractures?

A

non-union - most associated with distal 1/3 fractures

also neurovascular injury and pneumothorax

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77
Q

Most common site of shoulder fracture?
Risk factors?

A

proximal humerus

majority of proximal humeral fractures are low energy injuries in elderly patients (FOOSH) due to osteoporosis

Same as for other osteoporotic fractures:
older female, early menopause, long term steroids, recurrent falls

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78
Q

How might proximal humerus fractures present?
How would you investigate?

A

elderly patient following FOOSH

pain around the upper arm and shoulder, with restriction of arm movement and an inability to abduct their arm

damage to the axillary nerve can result in loss of sensation in the lateral shoulder (“Regimental Badge”) and loss of power of the deltoid

Investigations:
trauma: urgent bloods incl G&S
pathology suspected: calcium and myeloma screen
X-ray: AP, lateral scapular, and axillary views

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79
Q

How should proximal humeral fractures be managed?

A

Most managed conservatively

initial immobilisation with early remobilisation including pendular exercises around 2-4 weeks
requires correctly applied polysling that allows their arm to hang- gravity will aid the reduction of the fragments

Surgical fixation is indicated in patients with displaced, open, or neurovascularly compromised fractures

80
Q

What surgical repair would be indicated for proximal humeral fracture patients with multiple segment injuries?

A

open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) - preferred in a head splitting fracture

intermedullary nailing -preferred if the fracture involves the surgical neck, or if the fracture is combined with a humeral shaft fracture

81
Q

Complications of proximal humeral fracture?

A

reduced range of motion - extensive physiotherapy required, often a year of rehab

avascular necrosis of the humeral head following an injury disrupting the blood supply (from the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex arteries) -hemiarthroplasty or reverse shoulder arthroplasty

82
Q

Shoulder dislocations account for over 50% of major joint dislocations which present to ED - if not managed correctly they can lead to chronic joint instability and chronic pain.

What is the most common type of dislocation?

A

anteroinferior (95%)
- classically caused by force being applied to an extended, abducted, and externally rotated humerus

posterior much less common
- seizures or electrocution

83
Q

How do shoulder dislocations present?

A

painful shoulder, acutely reduced mobility, and a feeling of instability

OE: asymmetry
loss of shoulder contours (from a ‘flattened deltoid’) and an anterior bulge from the head of the humerus

84
Q

What associated injuries can shoulder dislocations cause?

A

Bony:
1. Bony Bankart lesions - fractures of the anterior inferior glenoid bone, present in those with recurrent dislocations
2. Hill-Sachs defects- impaction injuries to the chondral surface of the humeral head, occur in anterior glenohumeral dislocations, traumatic dislocations

Labral, ligamentous, and rotator cuff:
1. Soft Bankart lesions- avulsions of the anterior labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament
2. Glenohumeral ligament avulsion
3. Rotator cuff injuries occur frequently in anterior dislocations

85
Q

How are shoulder dislocations investigated?
Management?

A

Investigations:
X-ray: a trauma shoulder series is required - at least 2 views performed - AP, Y-scapular, or axial views

(The Y view is very useful for differentiating between anterior and posterior dislocations)

If labral or rotator cuff injuries are suspected - MRI

Tx:
closed reduction, immobilisation and rehabilitation
broad arm sling for 2 weeks

86
Q

What sign on x-ray suggests posterior shoulder dislocation?

A

light bulb sign - humerus fixed in internal rotation

87
Q

Complications of shoulder dislocation?

A

chronic pain, poor mobility and recurrence
adhesive capsulitis
nerve damage
rotator cuff injury

88
Q

The rotator cuff is a group of 4 muscles that support and rotate the glenohumeral joint.

Name these muscles

A

Supraspinatus – abduction
Infraspinatus – external rotation
Teres minor – external rotation
Subscapularis – internal rotation

89
Q

Rotator cuff tears are common. How can they be classified?

A

acute (lasting <3 months) or chronic (lasting >3 months) tears

either partial thickness or full thickness tears

full thickness tears can be further classified into small (<1cm), medium (1-3cm), large (3-5cm), or massive (>5cm or involves multiple tendons) tears

90
Q

How do patients with rotator cuff tears present?
Differentials?
Risk factors?

A

pain over the lateral aspect of shoulder and an inability to abduct the arm above 90 degrees
more common in the dominant arm

OE: tenderness over the greater tuberosity and subacromial bursa

DDx: shoulder fracture, persistent glenohumeral subluxation, brachial plexus injury, or radiculopathy

Risk factors: age, trauma, overuse, and repetitive overhead shoulder motions

91
Q

What specific tests can be used to assess for rotator cuff tears?

A

Jobe’s test (the “empty can test”, tests supraspinatus)

Gerber’s lift-off test (tests subscapularis)

Posterior cuff test (tests infraspinatus and teres minor)

92
Q

How should rotator cuff tears be investigated?
Mx?

A

Investigations:
X ray to exclude fracture
USS for presence and size of tear
MRI

Mx:
< 2 weeks = conservative (physio and analgesia)
> 2 weeks = surgery - arthroscopically (allowing for earlier recovery) or via open approach (preferred in large/complex tears)

93
Q

Main complication of rotator cuff tears?

A

Adhesive capsulitis

94
Q

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) is a condition in which the glenohumeral joint capsule becomes contracted and adherent to the humeral head.

Who does it commonly present in?
How can it be categorised?

A

more common in women
peak onset is between 40-70yrs old

Primary adhesive capsulitis (idiopathic)

Secondary adhesive capsulitis – rotator cuff / biceps tendinopathy, subacromial impingement syndrome, previous surgery or trauma, or joint arthropathy

95
Q

How does adhesive capsulitis present?

A

progresses in three stages (an initial painful stage, a freezing stage, and finally a thawing stage)

generalised deep and constant pain of the shoulder that often disturbs sleep

OE: loss of arm swing and atrophy of deltoid
limited range of motion, mainly affecting external rotation and flexion of the shoulder

Adhesive capsulitis is a self-limiting condition, management is typically conservative and rarely requires surgical intervention

96
Q

DDx for adhesive capsulitis?

A

Acromioclavicular pathology – a more generalised pain may be present with weakness and stiffness related to pain

Subacromial impingement syndrome (rotator cuff tendinopathy, subacromial bursitis) – preserved passive movement and hx of repetitive overuse/external compression of subacromial space risk factors

Muscular tear – the weakness often persists when the shoulder pain is relieved

Autoimmune disease –polyarthropathy and systemic symptoms

97
Q

Neck of femur fractures are associated with a high one year mortality and the patient cohort are often elderly with multiple co-morbidities.

How do they present?

What key differential should be considered?

A

trauma (usually low energy)

acutely painful hip that is shortened and externally rotated with an inability to weight bear

pain may be in groin, thigh or referred to knee

DDx: alternative fracture -pubic ramus fractures, acetabulum, femoral head and femoral diaphysis

98
Q

Blood supply to the NOF is retrograde.

Which blood vessel is responsible for the majority of the supply?

A

medial circumflex femoral artery

lies directly on the intra-capsular femoral neck

displaced intra-capsular fractures disrupt the blood supply to the femoral head and can cause avascular necrosis

99
Q

How can intracapsular fractures be further classified?

A

Garden classification

I - Non-displaced , Incomplete
II - Non-displaced, complete
III - Complete fracture, partial displacement
IV- Complete fracture fully displaced

100
Q

Investigations for NOF fractures?

A

Bloods + CK if long lie suspected

Urine dip, CXR and ECG in elderly patients - cause of fall + pre-op workup

Imaging:
X rays - AP and lateral view of affected hip, AP pelvis

101
Q

Non-operative conservative management is rarely recommended for NOF fractures, as the benefits of surgical intervention nearly always outweigh the potential conservative management.

What is the surgical tx of displaced subcapital NOF fractures?

A

Hip Hemiarthroplasty - Replacement of the femoral head and neck via a femoral component fixed in the proximal femur

102
Q

What is the surgical tx of Inter-trochanteric and Basocervical NOF fractures?

A

Dynamic Hip Screw (or short IM nail) - lag screw into the neck, a sideplate, and bicortical screws. The lag screw is able to slide through the sideplate, allowing for compression and primary healing of the bone

103
Q

What is the surgical tx for Non-displaced intra-capsular NOF fractures?

A

Cannulated hip screws - Three parallel screws in an inverted triangle formation

104
Q

What is the surgical tx for Sub-trochanteric NOF fractures?

A

Anterograde Intramedullary Femoral Nail - titanium rod is placed through the medullary cavity of the femur for stabilisation

105
Q

How should NOF patients be managed post-op?
Complications?

A

jointly with ortho-geriatricians

early rehab with physios and OTs

Complications:
Immediate - pain, bleeding, leg-length discrepancies, and potential neurovascular damage
Long term - joint dislocation, aseptic loosening, peri-prosthetic fracture, and deep infection/prosthetic joint infection

106
Q

OA is the most common cause of disability in older adults in the Western World.

What are the risk factors for OA of the hip?

A

Systemic – Increasing age (>45 yrs), obesity, female gender, genetic factors, vitamin D deficiency

Local – History of trauma to the hip, anatomic abnormalities, muscle weakness or joint laxity, participation in high impact sports

107
Q

How does OA of the hip present?

A

Pain - most commonly groin, but can be lateral hip or deep buttocks
aggravated by weight bearing and worse at end of day, relieves with rest

stiffness, grinding, crunching

OE: antalgic gait, pain on passive movement, reduced ROM, may have fixed flexion deformity in end stage disease

108
Q

DDx for hip OA?

A

Trochanteric bursitis – lateral hip pain radiating down the lateral leg, with associated point tenderness over the greater trochanter

Gluteus medius tendinopathy – lateral hip pain with point tenderness over the muscle insertion at the greater trochanter

Sciatica – low back pain and buttock pain, often radiates down the posterior leg to below the knee. Diagnosis is made with the straight leg raise to produce Lasègue’s sign

Femoral neck fracture – history of trauma or known severe osteoporosis, the patient will be unable to weight bear due to pain and the limb will appear shortened and externally rotated

109
Q

Signs of hip OA on x-ray?

A

Narrowing of the joint space
Osteophyte formation
Sclerosis of the subchondral bone
Subchondral bone cysts

110
Q

Management of hip OA?
Surgical complications?

A

WL, exercise, pain control (WHO stepladder)
physio to slow disease progression and improve joint mechanics

Surgery: hip replacement (arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty)
Posterior Approach (to glut medius) – The most common approach as rehabilitation is often fast due to preservation of the abductor mechanism, but risk of sciatic nerve damage

Complications: thromboembolic disease / bleeding, infection, dislocation, loosening of the prosthesis, and leg length discrepancy

111
Q

How long do modern hip replacements last?

A

15-20 years

112
Q

The true pelvis contains the rectum, bladder and uterus in females, as well as the iliac vessels and the lumbosacral nerve roots.

Knowing this, what are the potential complications of pelvic fractures?

A

life-threatening haemorrhage, neurological deficit, urogenital trauma, and bowel injury

113
Q

Pelvic ring injuries are most often caused by high energy blunt trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from height.

What should you do during your examination?

A

full neurovascular assessment of the lower limbs including checking anal tone -sacral nerve roots and iliac vessels can frequently be injured

abdo injuries, urethral injuries, and open fractures (incl “internal open fractures” into the rectum or vaginal vault)

look for any surrounding ecchymosis or developing haematoma present (e.g. perineal, scrotal or labial)

114
Q

What can cause low energy pelvic fractures?

A

avulsion fractures - reported as a sudden severe pain, poorly localised to the hip/pelvis, felt whilst performing a rapid, powerful movement, such as starting to run

115
Q

How should suspected pelvic fractures be investigated?

A

3 X-rays needed to assess pelvic ring - AP, inlet and outlet view

However CT usually performed in trauma setting so negates need for x-ray

116
Q

Indications for operative management of pelvic fracture?

What may a haemodynamically unstable pelvic fracture patient require?

A

life threatening haemorrhage, unstable fractures, open fractures, and associated fractures with an associated urological injury

interventional radiology or trauma laparotomy +/- retroperitoneal packing

117
Q

What is the most commonly used classification for pelvic fractures?

A

The Young and Burgess classification

118
Q

Complications following pelvic fractures?

A

urological injury, venous thromboembolism, and long-standing pelvic pain

119
Q

The knee joint is the most commonly affected joint by osteoarthritis. How should it be managed?

A

Initial management is with analgesia and physiotherapy, however total knee replacement (TKR) is the standard treatment for advanced osteoarthritis

TKR lasts for at least 10 years

Partial (unicondylar) replacement may be indicated for those with disease localised to either the medial or lateral compartment

120
Q

How does patellofemoral OA present?

A

Anterior knee pain, worse with activities that put pressure on the patella, such as climbing a flight of stairs

121
Q

How do ACL tears present?
Specific clinical tests?

A

athlete with a history of twisting the knee whilst weight-bearing

rapid joint swelling (highly vascular ligament rupture = haemarthrosis)
significant pain

Lachman’s Test (more sensitive) and Anterior Drawer Test

122
Q

How should ACL tears be investigated and managed?

A

Investigations:
- plain film radiograph (AP and lateral) - exclude bony injuries, any joint effusion, or a lipohaemarthrosis
- Segond fracture (bony avulsion of the lateral proximal tibia) is pathognomic
- MRI scan GOLD STANDARD

Mx:
- RICE
- strength training of quads and cricket pad knee splint for comfort
- surgical reconstruction following ‘prehabilitation’

123
Q

Complications of ACL tear / surgery?

A

post-traumatic OA

124
Q

Which is the most commonly injured ligament of the knee? What is the usual mechanism of injury?

A

MCL - valgus stabiliser

external rotational forces are applied to the lateral knee, such as a impact to the outside of the knee

MCL injuries can be graded from one to three:

Grade I – mild injury, minimally torn fibres and no loss of MCL integrity
Grade II – moderate injury, incomplete tear and increased laxity of the MCL
Grade III – severe injury, complete tear and gross laxity of the MCL

125
Q

How does an MCL tear present?
On examination?

A

hearing a ‘pop’ with immediate medial joint line pain
swelling after a few hours

OE:
increased laxity when testing the MCL via valgus stress test
extremely tender along joint line but may be able to weight bear

126
Q

Management of MCL tear?
Complications?

A

Grade1 : RICE
Grade 2: analgesia, knee brace, return to full exercise in 10 weeks
Grade 3: analgesia with a knee brace and crutches, any associated distal avulsion = surgery considered, return to full exercise in 12 weeks

Complications: instability in the joint and damage to the saphenous nerve.

127
Q

What is a Colles’ fracture?

A

extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with dorsal angulation and dorsal displacement, within 2cm of the articular surface

also includes an avulsion fracture of the ulnar styloid

typically fragility fracture caused by FOOSH

128
Q

What is a Smith’s fracture?

A

extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with volar angulation of the distal fragment (the reverse of a Colles fracture), with or without volar displacement

caused by falling backwards and planting the outstretched hand behind the body, causing a forced pronation type injury

129
Q

What is a Barton’s fracture?

A

intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dislocation of the radio-carpal joint

described as volar (more common) or dorsal (less common), depending on whether the volar or dorsal rim of the radius is involved

130
Q

The neurological examination for a suspected distal radius fracture should include the following nerves being assessed:

A

Median nerve:
motor – abduction of the thumb
sensory – radial surface of distal 2nd digit
Anterior interosseous nerve: opposition of the thumb and index finger (OK sign)

Ulnar nerve:
motor – adduction of the thumb (‘Froment’s Sign’) sensory – ulnar surface of the distal 5th digit

Radial nerve:
motor – extension of IPJ of thumb
sensory – dorsal surface of 1st webspace

131
Q

DDx for distal radius fractures?

A

Forearm fracture (such as Galeazzi or Monteggia fractures)
Carpal bone fractures
Tendonitis or tenosynovitis
Wrist dislocation

132
Q

Which 3 measurements on X-ray help to diagnose distal radius fractures?

A

Radial height <11mm
Radial inclination <22 degrees
Radial (volar) tilt >11 degrees

CT or MRI can be used for more complex fractures

133
Q

Management of distal radius fractures?

A

traction and manipulation under anaesthetic - under conscious sedation with a haematoma block or Bier’s block

Stable and successfully reduced fractures = below-elbow backslab cast, then radiographs repeated after 1 week to check for displacement

Significantly displaced or unstable fractures can require surgical intervention (or intra-articular step of the radiocarpal joint >2mm) = open reduction and internal fixation

134
Q

The main complications following distal radius fractures are:

A

Malunion- poor realignment leads to a shortened radius compared to the ulnar, leading to reduced wrist motion, wrist pain, and reduced forearm rotation
- can be treated with corrective osteotomy

Median nerve compression, more common in patients who heal in a significant degree of malunion

Osteoarthritis, especially with intra-articular involvement from the original fracture

135
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Risk factors?

A

compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel of the wrist, due to a raised pressure within this compartment

pain, numbness, and paresthesia in the lateral 3½ digits

palm is often spared, due to the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve branching proximal to the flexor retinaculum and passing over the carpal tunnel

RF: female gender, increasing age, pregnancy, obesity, and previous injury to the wrist

136
Q

Aggravating and relieving factors for carpal tunnel?

A

worse during night

symptoms can often be temporarily relieved by hanging the affected arm over the side of the bed or by shaking it back and forth

137
Q

What can be seen on examination of carpal tunnel?

A

sensory symptoms can be reproduced by either percussing over the median nerve (Tinel’s Test) or holding the wrist in full flexion for one minute (Phalen’s Test)

late stages- weakness of thumb abduction (due to denervation atrophy of the thenar muscles) and / or wasting of the thenar eminence

138
Q

DDX for carpal tunnel?

A

Cervical Radiculopathy
- C6 nerve root involvement may produce similar sxs however will likely have an element of neck pain / involve the entire arm length

Pronator teres syndrome (median nerve compression by pronator teres)
- extend to the proximal forearm and sensation of the palm will also be reduced

Flexor carpi radialis tenosynovitis
- distinguished by tenderness at the base of the thumb

139
Q

Investigation and management of carpal tunnel?
Complications of surgery?

A

Clinical diagnosis
uncertain cases - nerve conduction studies

Mx:
wrist splint at night
hand therapy
steroid injections
carpal tunnel release surgery in persistently symptomatic pts

Complications of carpal tunnel surgery include recurrence, persistent symptoms (from incomplete release of ligament), infection, scar formation, nerve damage, or trigger thumb.

140
Q

Ankle fractures are a common injury, more common in younger males or older females. How can they be classified?

A

isolated lateral malleolar fractures, isolated medial malleolar fractures, bimalleolar fractures and trimalleolar fractures (medial + lateral + posterior)

Weber classification for lateral fractures:
Type A = below the syndesmosis
Type B = at the level of the syndesmosis
Type C = above the level of the syndesmosis

more proximal = more unstable so Type C almost always need surgery

141
Q

Investigations and management of ankle fractures?

A

X-ray (ankle must be fully dorsiflexed for this)- AP and lateral view, check for evidence of talar shift
If complex fracture - CT

Mx:
immediate fracture reduction, below knee back slab

Conservative management will often be opted for in:
Non-displaced medial malleolus fractures
Weber A fractures or Weber B fractures without talar shift
Those unfit for surgical intervention

Surgery: ORIF
- for displaced or open or talar shift

142
Q

What are ankle sprains?

A

ligamentous injuries

classified into high ankle sprains (which are injuries to the syndesmosis) or low ankle sprains, which are injuries to the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) and the calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)

present following an inversion injury on a plantarflexed ankle with fingertip tenderness distal to the malleoli

143
Q

What is Achilles tendonitis?
RF?

A

inflammation of the Achilles (calcaneal) tendon

The classical case of tendonitis or rupture occurs in an unfit individual who has a sudden increase in exercise frequency - ‘weekend warriors’

Other risk factors include poor footwear choice, male gender, obesity, or recent fluoroquinolone use (for tendon rupture)

144
Q

What are the most commonly used indicators of a clinical Achilles tendon rupture?
How can it be diagnosed?

A

Simmonds test (loss of plantarflexion) and a palpable ‘step’ in the Achilles tendon

Clinical diagnosis or USS

145
Q

What is the most common cause of infracalcaneal pain?
How can it be diagnosed?
Mx?

A

Plantar fasciitis

Clinical diagnosis
X ray to look for plantar heel spur - abnormal loading
MRI for fascial thickening

Initial management is conservative, however corticosteroid injections or plantar fasciotomy can be considered if no improvement

146
Q

Features of L3 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss over anterior thigh
Weak hip flexion, knee extension and hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test

147
Q

Features of L4 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus
Weak knee extension and hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test

148
Q

Features of L5 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss dorsum of foot
Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion
Reflexes intact
Positive sciatic nerve stretch test

149
Q

Features of S1 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot
Weakness in plantar flexion of foot
Reduced ankle reflex
Positive sciatic nerve stretch test

150
Q

When should sciatica be referred for an MRI?

A

4-6 weeks of conservative management and no improvement

151
Q

how may supraspinatus tendonitis (subacromial impingement) present on x-ray?

A

calcification of the supraspinatus tendon consistent with prolonged inflammation

patient will likely exhibit the ‘painful arc’

152
Q

Twisting sporting injuries followed by delayed onset of knee swelling and locking are strongly suggestive of what?

A

menisceal tear

McMurrays test will be positive

Arthroscopic menisectomy is the usual treatment

153
Q

rupture of which ligament will cause the tibia to lie back on the femur?

A

PCL rupture
mechanism = hyperextension injuries (e.g. knee hitting dash)
paradoxical anterior drawer test

154
Q

How does Chondromalacia patellae present?

A

Teenage girls, following an injury to knee e.g. Dislocation patella
Typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest
Tenderness, quadriceps wasting

155
Q

How do tibial plateau fractures occur?

A

Occur in the elderly (or following significant trauma in young)
Mechanism: knee forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture
Varus injury affects medial plateau and if valgus injury, lateral plateau depressed fracture occurs

156
Q

In a child with an asymptomatic, fluctuant swelling behind the knee the most likely diagnosis is what?

A

Baker’s cyst

157
Q

How does facet joint pain present?

A

May be acute or chronic
Pain worse in the morning and on standing
On examination there may be pain over the facets. The pain is typically worse on extension of the back

158
Q

How does spinal stenosis present?

A

Usually gradual onset
Unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness which is worse on walking. Resolves when sits down. Pain may be described as ‘aching’, ‘crawling’.
Relieved by sitting down, leaning forwards and crouching down
Clinical examination is often normal
Requires MRI to confirm diagnosis

159
Q

Any patient presenting with symptoms of intermittent claudication not worsened by increasing exertion =

A

neurogenic not ischaemic

160
Q

Severe sharp back pain worse on movement with positive straight leg raise test - what is the diagnosis and mx?

A

prolapsed disc
arrange physio, no need to scan unless red flags

161
Q

How should discitis be investigated?

A

MRI imaging

Assess for endocarditis e.g. with transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo

162
Q

A 23-year-old rugby player falls directly onto his shoulder. There is pain and swelling of the shoulder joint. The clavicle is prominent and there appears to be a step deformity. Dx?

A

Acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) dislocation

163
Q

Dupytren’s contracture presents with thickening of the palm and an inability to full extend the metacarpophalangeal joints, usually the little and ring fingers. What can cause it?

A

manual labour
phenytoin treatment
alcoholic liver disease
diabetes mellitus
trauma to the hand

164
Q

commonly used method of analgesia for patients with a neck of femur fracture?

A

iliofascial nerve block

aim of this is to reduce the use of opioids analgesics e.g. morphine, which is particularly helpful in elderly patients

165
Q

Increasing hip pain at rest, together with increased serum calcium and alkaline phosphatase are most likely to represent what?

A

metastatic tumour to bone

Chondrosarcomas do occur in the pelvis but are not associated with increased serum calcium and typically have a longer history

166
Q

A 73-year-old man presents with pain in the right leg. It is most uncomfortable on walking. On examination he has a deformity of his right femur, which on x-ray is thickened and sclerotic. His serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated, but calcium is within normal limits.

This is a typical hx of which condition?

A

Paget’s disease

167
Q

Likely cause of bone pain with:
1. normal ALP and calcium
2. raised ALP but other parameters normal
3. raised ALP and calcium

A
  1. osteoporosis
  2. paget’s disease of the bone
  3. mets to bone
168
Q

What is an essential part of the management for all ankle fractures?

A

they should be promptly reduced to remove pressure on the overlying skin and subsequent necrosis

169
Q

Extracapsular hip fracture (subtrochanteric fracture) should be managed using what?

A

intramedullary device

170
Q

In paediatric practice, fractures may also involve the growth plate and these injuries are classified according to the Salter-Harris system.

Outline Salter Harris classes 1-5

A

I - Fracture through the physis only (x-ray often normal)
II - Fracture through the physis and metaphysis
III - Fracture through the physis and epiphysis to include the joint
IV - Fracture involving the physis, metaphysis and epiphysis
V - Crush injury involving the physis (x-ray may resemble type I, and appear normal)

Straight through physis
Above
Lower
Through all 3
Everything crushed

171
Q

injury pattern of a greenstick fracture?

A

Unilateral cortical breach only

172
Q

How may fat emboli present?

A

post-trauma esp long bone fractures

Respiratory:
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea, dyspnoea, hypoxia usually 72 hours following injury
Pyrexia

Dermatological:
Red/ brown impalpable petechial rash
Subconjunctival and oral haemorrhage/ petechiae

CNS :
Confusion and agitation
Retinal haemorrhages and intra-arterial fat globules on fundoscopy

173
Q

Simmonds’ triad is used to examine for an Achilles tendon rupture. What does it include?

A

It includes palpation of the Achilles tendon (examining for a gap), observing for an abnormal angle of declination (i.e. the foot is more dorsiflexed than the other), and performing the calf squeeze test.

174
Q

Investigation for Cauda Equina?

A

MRI spine within 6 hours

175
Q

Phalen’s test is used to asses carpal tunnel syndrome. What does this involve?

A

The patient’s wrist is held in maximum flexion (reverse prayer sign) for 30-60 seconds. The test is positive if there is numbness in the median nerve distribution

176
Q

Children and young people with unexplained bone swelling or pain:

A

consider very urgent direct access X-ray to assess for bone sarcoma (within 48 hours)

177
Q

Colle’s key points?

A

Dorsally Displaced Distal radius → Dinner fork Deformity

178
Q

Colle’s complications?

A

early:
median nerve injury: acute carpal tunnel syndrome presenting with weakness or loss of thumb or index finger flexion
compartment syndrome
malunion
rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon

late:
osteoarthritis
complex regional pain syndrome

179
Q

common cause of lateral knee pain in runners?

A

iliotibial band syndrome

180
Q

If scaphoid fracture is suspected, but imaging is inconclusive, how should you proceed?

A

Referral to orthopaedics and repeat imaging in 7-10 days

181
Q

Leriche syndrome is atherosclerotic occlusive disease involving the abdominal aorta and/or both of the iliac arteries.

How does it present?

A

Classically, it is described in male patients as a triad of symptoms:

  1. Claudication of the buttocks and thighs
  2. Atrophy of the musculature of the legs
  3. Impotence (due to paralysis of the L1 nerve)
182
Q

A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture, typically arises as a result of a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH).

Why are they so high risk?

A

80% of the blood supply is retrograde - derived from the dorsal carpal branch (branch of the radial artery)

risk of avascular necrosis

183
Q

How do patients with scaphoid fractures present?

A

pain over the radial aspect of wrist (base of thumb) and loss of grip strength

OE:
maximal tenderness over anatomical snuffbox
wrist joint effusion
pain on telescoping of thumb
pain on ulnar deviation of wrist

184
Q

How should scaphoid fractures be investigated and managed?

A

Investigations:

X-ray: ‘Scaphoid views’: posterioranterior (PA), lateral, oblique (with wrist pronated at 45º) and Ziter view
MRI definitive to confirm dx

Mx:

immobilisation with a Futuro splint or standard below-elbow backslab

review by orthopods
undisplaced = cast for 6-8 weeks
displaced = surgery

185
Q

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a common condition in which the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons is inflamed. It typically affects females aged 30 - 50 years old.

How does it present? Mx?

A

pain over radial styloid process and painful abduction of thumb against resistance

Mx:
analgesia
steroid injection
immobilisation with a thumb splint (spica) may be effective

186
Q

Which drug tx can cause Dupytren’s contracture as a side effect?

A

phenytoin

187
Q

Outline the different types of hip dislocation

A

Posterior dislocation (90%): affected leg is shortened, adducted, and internally rotated

Anterior dislocation: affected leg is usually abducted and externally rotated. No leg shortening

Central dislocation

188
Q

Mx of hip dislocation?

A

ABCDE
Analgesia
Reduction under GA within 4 hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis
Long-term management: Physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles

189
Q

Complications of hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic or femoral nerve injury
Avascular necrosis
Osteoarthritis: more common in older patients
Recurrent dislocation: due to damage of supporting ligaments

190
Q

What is meralgia parasthetica?

A

syndrome of paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Hx:
Sxs over upper lateral aspect of thigh
Burning, coldness, tingling, or shooting pain
Numbness
Deep muscle ache
Usually aggravated by standing, and relieved by sitting

OE:
Symptoms reproduced by deep palpation just below the ASIS (pelvic compression) and by hip extension

191
Q

What is the most common upper limb injury in children under the age of 6? Mx?

A

Subluxation of the radial head (pulled elbow)
distal attachment of the annular ligament covering the radial head is weaker in children at this age

Mx:
analgesia and passive supination of the elbow joint whilst the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees

192
Q

Which finger joint most commonly dislocates?

A

PIP

193
Q

In what ways can a PIP joint dislocate?

A

Laterally - damages collateral ligaments
Dorsally - damages flexor tendon , can cause swan neck deformity
Volarly - damages extensor tendon

194
Q

How can you investigate and manage phalanx dislocations?

A

examine : Elson’s test, lateral stress test, sensation testing
X-ray
Splinting

195
Q

What causes knee dislocations? How should you investigate and manage?

A

usually high energy injury e.g. knee hitting dash - high risk of neurovascular damage e.g. to popliteal artery

neurovascular assessment and x-ray

Mx:
reduce and stabilise ASAP
assess limb perfusion - cap refill and peripheral pulses, can do doppler USS
can do delayed ligamentous reconstruction