Trauma NEW Flashcards
This brain micrograph of a 68 yo male nursing home resident who had a vague history of dementia and relatively rapid decline shows which of the following?
a. Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy
b. Pick’s Disease
c. Acute traumatic brain injury
d. Jakob-Creutzfeldt Disease
e. Subacute brain degeneration
a. Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy
A 65-year-old man presents with one week history of agitation and confusion. He sustained a generalized tonic-clonic seizure and is hallucinating. On exam, he is febrile, confused and has a left pronator drift with hyper-reflexia. An MRI of the brain is shown (figure). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Herpes simlex virus
b. Low grade glioma
c. Neurosyphilis
d. Hemorrhagic stroke
e. Sarcodosis
a. Herpes simlex virus
A 58-year-old male dies from respiratory failure after battling a disease for 3 years. Microscopic examination of the spinal cord is shown below. Which disease lead to the death of patient?
a. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
b. Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Spinal muscular bulbar atrophy (SMBA)
e. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
e. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
A 45 year old man presents with sudden onset of vomiting, dysarthria and ataxia and a CT scan demonstrating a cerebellar infarction. Thirteen hours after onset of symptoms, he develops abducens nerve palsy and depressed mental status. What is the most appropriate definitive management of this patient?
a. Intravenous tPA
b. Suboccipital craniectomy
c. Barbiturate coma
d. Hypertonic saline
e. High dose Dexamethasone
b. Suboccipital craniectomy
A 70-year-old man presents with new onset progressive confusion, expressive dysphasia, and right hemiparesis. MRI shows multiple enhancing intracerebral masses with surrounding edema that resolve after a short course of steroids. What is the most likely diagnosis of these lesions?
a. multiple metastases.
b. primary central nervous system lymphoma.
c. multifocal glioma.
d. multiple sclerosis.
e. central nervous system sarcoidosis.
b. primary central nervous system lymphoma.
A 47 year old man presents with confusion, agitation, fatigue, fever (104F), hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and hypotension after resection of a right frontal metastasis lesion 3 weeks ago. Phenytoin and steroids were discontinued at 2.5 weeks post-operatively. Head CT reveals no acute abnormality. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
a. Fosphenytoin
b. Heparin
c. Haloperidol
d. Hydrocortisone
e. Fludricortisone
d. Hydrocortisone
A 21-year-old male presents to the emergency department after being involved in a gunfight. His GCS is 15 with a non-focal examination but several bullet holes are noted in his scalp with protruding cerebral tissue. His CT scan of the head is shown in the figure. What is the BEST definitive management strategy for this injury?
a. Surgical removal of all bullet fragments
b. 14-day course of antibiotics
c. Bedside laceration repair
d. Surgical durotomy repair
e. Cranioplasty and removal of accessible fragments
e. Cranioplasty and removal of accessible fragments
A patient with a baclofen pump presents with a temperature of 104 degrees F and hyperreflexia. What is the next appropriate treatment?
a. Broad spectrum antibiotics
b. Intravenous acetaminophen
c. Intravenous dantrolene
d. Intrathecal baclofen administration
e. Cooling blanket
d. Intrathecal baclofen administration
A 17 year old sustains a gunshot wound to the head. On examination, he has decorticate posturing on the right and he localizes on the left. His left pupil is 2 mm larger than the right but is still reactive. His non-contrast head CT (see figures) demonstrates metal and bone fragments within the left frontal region with an associated subdural hematoma with midline shift. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
a. Superficial debridement of wound
b. Right frontal ventriculostomy placement
c. Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, removal of all bone and metal fragments
d. Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, superficial debridement
e. Expectant care
d. Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, superficial debridement
What characteristic imaging finding on MRI would best differentiate neuromyelitis optica from multiple sclerosis?
a. Presence of high burden of periventricular, juxtacortical and infratentorial demyelinating lesions.
b. An intramedullary spinal cord lesion spanning 3 or more segments.
c. Multiple enhancing intramedullary spinal lesions spanning 1-2 segments.
d. Optic nerve enhancement.
e. Multiple non-enhancing intramedullary spinal lesions spanning 1-2 segments.
b. An intramedullary spinal cord lesion spanning 3 or more segments.
An 18 year old man who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is admitted to the ICU and intubated and sedated on high dose continuous propofol infusion (4mg/kg/h). Ten days later, he is following command in all four extremities. Suddenly, on hospital day 12, he becomes acutely altered. CT head is stable from admission. Laboratory studies reveal a markedly profound hypertriglyceridemia, metabolic acidosis and rhabdomyolysis. Which one of the following is the next step in management?
a. Obtain 12 lead EKG and troponin
b. Stop propofol infusion immediately
c. Start hemodialysis
d. Order MRI brain
e. Obtain CT-angio of chest
b. Stop propofol infusion immediately
A 22 year-old woman presents after a motor vehicle collision with neck pain. She is neurologically intact. She has a non-displaced C4 lamina fracture. CTA of the neck shows a Biffi Grade 2 injury to the right internal carotid artery. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
a. Initiation of aspirin
b. Transcranial Doppler with emboli detection
c. OMRI of the brain
d. Carotid Doppler
e. Diagnostic cerebral angiogram
a. Initiation of aspirin
Based on the Guidelines for the Acute Management of Severe Traumatic Brain Injury, in patients with severe head injury, what should the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP, mmHg) should be maintained between?
a. 50-70
b. 70-90
c. 30-50
d. 90-110
e. 10-30
a. 50-70
An 18 year-old college basketball player suffers from transient disorientation, dizziness, and imbalance following a hard foul. Her symptoms resolve after approximately 1 minute. What is the most appropriate management for this athlete regarding return-to-play?
a. Refrain from all physical activity and external stimulation for 1 week before full return to play.
b. Brief period of rest with graduated increase in physical activity, followed by return to play if asymptomatic at each activity level.
c. Return to full physical and cognitive activity in 24 hours if asymptomatic.
d. Emergent head CT.
e. Return to play immediately since symptoms have resolved.
b. Brief period of rest with graduated increase in physical activity, followed by return to play if asymptomatic at each activity level.
What combination of findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of central diabetes insipidus?
a. Urine output of 40 cc/hr, urine specific gravity of 1.002 and serum sodium of 135.
b. Urine output of 40 cc/hr, urine specific gravity of 1.010, and serum sodium of 145.
c. Urine output of 300 cc/hr, urine specific gravity of 1.030 and serum sodium of 145.
d. Urine output of 100 cc/hr, urine specific gravity of 1.030 and serum sodium of 135.
e. Urine output of 300 cc/hr, urine specific gravity of 1.002, and serum sodium of 145.
e. Urine output of 300 cc/hr, urine specific gravity of 1.002, and serum sodium of 145.
A 50 year old man who was intubated for acute respiratory distress syndrome develops flaccid and symmetric weakness in the lower greater than upper extremities and more distally than proximally. There is no cranial nerve involvement. What is the most likely diagnosis for the weakness?
a. Critical illness myopathy and neuropathy
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Acute intermittent porphyria
d. Myasthenia gravis
e. Guillain-Barré syndrome
a. Critical illness myopathy and neuropathy
An ABG with PCO2 25 mmHg, pH 7.55, HCO3- 24 mEq/L is most consistent with which diagnosis?
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
c. Respiratory alkalosis
A 36 year old woman with a known history of epilepsy treated with phenytoin presents in convulsive status epilepticus. After administration of lorazepam and supplementation with IV phenytoin, convulsions cease. Two hours later she remains unresponsive despite a normal head CT and normal serum electrolyte levels and blood counts. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
a. Electroencephalogram
b. Angiogram
c. Repeat serum sodium
d. Lumbar puncture
e. MRI of the brain, including diffusion imaging
a. Electroencephalogram
You are called about a 14 year old girl with severe intractable spasticity in whom you placed a baclofen pump 6 months ago. She presents with increase in tone and agitation due to severe itching. Pump interrogation reveals normal telemetry and indicates it is not due for a refill. Her temperature is 40.0 C. She is confused and hypertonic. Pump X-rays do not show evidence of a disconnection. What is the next appropriate step in management?
a. Replacement of baclofen via oral administration and admission to ward
b. Emergent surgery for pump exploration and replacement
c. Replacement of baclofen via intrathecal administration and admission to ICU
d. Treatment with IV benzodiazepines and admission to ICU
e. Replacement of baclofen via oral administration and discharge with clinic follow up
c. Replacement of baclofen via intrathecal administration and admission to ICU
A 40 year old male develops left facial droop and left hemiparesis 48 hours after a motor vehicle accident despite initially being neurologically intact after the accident. A non-contrast head CT at the time of deterioration is negative. The most appropriate next diagnostic evaluation is:
a. Cerebral perfusion study.
b. CT of the cervical spine.
c. CT angiogram of the cervical spine.
d. Flexion Extension C-spine XRay
e. ICP monitoring.
c. CT angiogram of the cervical spine.
Which of these treatments influences the incidence of chronic subdural hematoma (cSDH) recurrence?
a. External subdural drain
b. Tranexamic Acid
c. Burr hole drainage
d. Amount of irrigation
e. Craniotomy
a. External subdural drain
What monitoring modality has the greatest sensitivity for detection of a venous air embolus?
a. Precordial Doppler
b. Pulmonary artery pressure
c. Pulse oximetry
d. EKG
e. Transvenous intracardiac echocardiography
e. Transvenous intracardiac echocardiography
In addition to the negative effects on cerebral blood flow, hyperventilation should be avoided in the management of severe closed head injury for which of the following reasons?
a. Increased pH and potential for increased oxygen delivery
b. Right shift of hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve and potential oxygen delivery impairment O
c. Right shift of hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve and potential CO2 removal impairment
d. Left shift of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve and potential oxygen delivery impairment
e. Left shift of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve and potential CO2 removal impairment
d. Left shift of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve and potential oxygen delivery impairment
Which symptomatic hormone deficiency is most common after pediatric moderate-to-severe traumatic brain injury?
a. Prolactin
b. Thyroid Hormone
c. Cortisol
d. Gonadotropic Hormones
e. Growth Hormone
e. Growth Hormone
A 29 year old female presents after a motor vehicle accident with left hemiplegia, weak localization on right, and a dilated unreactive right pupil. Her head CT is shown. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
a. Placement of brain tissue oxygenation and ICP probe.
b. Temporal burr hole and hematoma drainage.
c. Craniotomy and hematoma evacuation.
d. Placement of ventriculostomy.
e. Decompressive right hemicraniectomy.
c. Craniotomy and hematoma evacuation.
A patient with severe closed head injury is suspected of having diabetes insipidus. What electrolyte and volume profile best fits this diagnosis?
a. Diminished blood volume, hyponatremia.
b. Increased blood volume, hypernatremia.
c. Diminished blood volume, hypernatremia.
d. Increased blood volume, hyponatremia.
c. Diminished blood volume, hypernatremia.
A 24 year old patient with a gunshot wound to C2 is resuscitated after a PEA code and found to have fixed and dilated pupils, absent corneal reflexes, and absent cough and gag reflex. A head CT reveals diffuse cerebral edema with loss of grey-white differentiation. He is normothermic and normotensive and his urine toxicology screen and electrolyte panels are within normal limits. Which component of the brain death examination cannot be used in this patient to evaluate for brain death?
a. Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography
b. Cold caloric testing
c. EEG
d. Nuclear cerebral blood flow study
e. Apnea testing
e. Apnea testing
A chronic alcoholic presents in acute withdrawal with hypoglycemia and altered mental status. Administraton of glucose must be preceded by which of the following?
a. Insulin
b. Fosphenytoin
c. Thiamine
d. Ativan
e. Labetaolol
c. Thiamine
A 30-year-old male cyclist presents wtih complete C5 quadriplegia after a motor vehicle collision. Work up reveals right wrist fracture and C5 fracture involving the left transverse foramen associated with a large spinal cord contusion. CT angiography of the neck is negative for vascular injury. Two hours after presentation, the patient becomes confused, bradycardic, and hypotensive. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
a. Fat embolism from the patient’s bony injuries.
b. Delayed hemothorax due to thoracic trauma.
c. Occult dissection of the vertebral artery with associated brain stem infarction.
d. Pulmonary contusion resulting respiratory failure.
e. Disruption of spinal sympathetic outflow due to spinal cord injury.
e. Disruption of spinal sympathetic outflow due to spinal cord injury.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has issued limits on the per dose and daily dose recommended for acetaminophen to prevent what complication?
a. Kidney toxicity
b. Steven-Johnson syndrome
c. Liver toxicity
d. Myositis
e. Aplastic anemia
c. Liver toxicity
What tumor histology is associated with highest risk of cerebral hemorrhage in patients receiving therapeutic anticoagulation for deep vein thromboses and pulmonary emboli?
a. Renal Carcinoma
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma
d. Melanoma
e. Glioma
e. Glioma
The nurse calls you to see an intubated postoperative patient noting worsening oxygenation with oxygen saturation of 85%. ABG shows PaO2 of 50 and PaCO2 of 43. While the patient was previously following commands, he has stopped responding to the nurse. Upon your arrival, the patient’s blood pressure drops suddenly from 110/62 to 76/40, with a CVP of 1, and his oxygen saturation drops further to 79%. What is the next most appropriate step in management of this unstable patient?
a. Take the patient for a STAT CT of the Chest, PC protocol
b. Initiate heparin for presumed pulmonary embolism
c. Take the patient for a STAT head CT
d. Initiate norepinephrine for pressor support
e. Increase the patient’s FiO2 and ventilator rate
e. Increase the patient’s FiO2 and ventilator rate
A 40 year old obese patient with a history of diabetes mellitus presents unresponsive to the ER and is subsequently intubated and admitted to the ICU. The patient’s basic metabolic panel reveals a glucose level of 500. The ABG reveals a PCO2 40 mmHg, pH 7.25, and HCO3- 18 mEq/L. With which condition is this ABG most consistent?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
c. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
d. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
An open, comminuted, and depressed skull fracture over what region of the dural venous sinus system has the lowest risk of venous infarct?
a. Anterior 1/3 of the superior sagittal sinus
b. Left transverse sinus
c. Right sigmoid sinus
d. Posterior 1/3 of the superior sagittal sinus
e. Middle 1/3 of the superior sagittal sinus
a. Anterior 1/3 of the superior sagittal sinus
What is the MOST common organism isolated in ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Acinetobacter
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Haemophilus
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a. Staphylococcus aureus
A hypertensive 50 year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 230/110 mmHg with a heart rate of 50 bpm. Physical exam reveals a fixed and dilated right pupil, and CT scan shows a large right subdural hematoma with midline shift. What is the most likely cause of the hypertension?
a. Peripheral vasoconstriction and catecholamine release
b. Shunting of blood flow from the myocardium to the brain
c. Decreased blood flow to the medulla
d. Exacerbation of baseline hypertension due to pain
e. Failure to comply with antihypertensive regimen
a. Peripheral vasoconstriction and catecholamine release
A 26 year old male presents to the emergency room after a motor vehicle accident. He is orally intubated, does not open his eyes to verbal or painful stimuli but does localize briskly with his right upper extremity. What is this patient’s GCS?
a. 7T
b.10T
c. 6T
d. 5T
e. 3T
a. 7T
A 25 year-old man presents to the emergency room with a GCS of 3 after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He undergoes a hemicraniectomy and evacuation of a large left hemispheric subdural hematoma. On postoperative day 4, he develops a fever with increasing oxygen requirements on the ventilator. Chest X-ray shows bilateral lung opacities. What finding best supports the diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
a. Brain natriuretic peptide level >600 pg/mL
b. Lung biopsy showing interstitial fibrosis
c. Ejection fraction of 55-60% consistent with normal cardiac function
d. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) specimen showing 45% eosinophils
e. PaO2/FiO2 ratio >500 mm Hg
c. Ejection fraction of 55-60% consistent with normal cardiac function