Trauma, Burns, and Sepsis Flashcards

0
Q

How is the initial airway evaluation performed? What signs are looked for?

A

determine whether the airway is clear or obstructed.

If a patient can talk, the airway is patent, at least at that particular moment.

Signs of airway obstruction include stridor, hoarseness, and evidence of increased airway resistance such as respiratory retractions (retraction of the soft tissues between the ribs during inspiration) and use of accessory respiratory muscles.

  • Clear visually
  • gag reflex indicates that the upper airway is most likely clear.
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1
Q

How are trauma patients evaluated initially in the ED?

A

primary survey for trauma patients. Most clinicians reassess patients again before proceeding to the secondary survey

Continual reassessment - is necessary during trauma surveys, looking for cardiovascular instability and other Significant changes, particularly neurologic changes.

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2
Q

ATLS initial evaluation recommends?

A

Airway
Breathing (ventilation)
Circulation
Disability (neurologic deficit)
Environment; expose patient (i.e., remove all clothing)

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3
Q

Blunt trauma may lead to what complication? How should it be managed?

A

Blunt trauma may also cause laryngeal edema, which may be mild when the patient is first admitted to the emergency department but become worse in the next few minutes or hours.

Hoarseness, a change in voice, or stridor are clues to this condition. If laryngeal edema is suspected, intubation is necessary, before airway obstruction occurs.

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4
Q

What are the indications for intubation?

A

–Laryngeal edema

  • inadequate respiratory effort
  • severely depressed mental status
  • a Glasgow Coma Score of eight or less
  • inability to protect the airway
  • severely com­promised respiratory mechanics
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5
Q

Treatment for simple pneumothorax?

A

treatment is insertion of a large-diameter chest tube. It is important to insert a finger into the pleural space prior to inserting the tube to be certain that it is in the correct space.

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6
Q

What is the management of a chest tube?

A

Youwouldplaceawatersealwithsuctionandtoallowreinflationofthelung. Serial CXRs are necessary. Removal of the tube may occur when the lung is fully inflated and no fur­ ther air leak is apparent.

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7
Q

examination indicates a laceration on the chest wall that penetrates through to the lung and “sucks” air as it moves in and out
during respiration. What is it? What is the treatment?

A

sucking chest wound. It should be sealed with an occlusive dressing, and a chest tube should be inserted at a different location.

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8
Q

After insertion of the chest tube and repeating the CXR, the lung does not fully inflate.

A

Either the chest tube is in the wrong location or not functioning properly. Tubes can be erroneously inserted into the subcutaneous tissues, have air leaks at their connections, or “clot off”

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9
Q

After insertion of a chest tube, a large amount of air continues to leak into the chest tube over the next 6 hours, and the lung remains only partially inflated.

A

major airway injury with disruption of a bronchus or the trachea . sometimes apparent on bronchoscopy, requires a thoracotomy and partial lung resection to repair the injury.

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10
Q

Can a small pneumothorax be observed

A

As long as it is small. Uncomplicated. Not enlarging there is no chest injury. There is no fluid in the plural space

If a surgery is required, a chest tube is always necessary, otherwise a small pneumothorax may turn into a tension pneumothorax.

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11
Q

You clear the airway of the patient in Case 1 2.1 . Absent breath sounds in the right chest are notable. The patient has a BP of 80/60 mm Hg. Distended neck veins are present.

A

hypotension and absent breath sounds, the suspected problem is a tension pneumothorax.

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12
Q

Treatment for tension pneumothorax?

A

If immediate insertion of a chest tube is not possible, needle aspiration of the left chest is nec­ essary. With a diagnosis of tension pneumothorax, the patient should experience immediate improvement in BP.

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13
Q

A patient presents with hypotension, normal breath sounds, distended neck veins. What is it? What is the treatment?

A

Pericardial tamponade. or myocardial contusion (usually causes arrhythmias)

Emergent pericardiocentesis or pericardial ultrasound examination, if immediately available in the trauma resuscitation unit, is necessary.

After initial drainage, the patient should go to the operating room for a pericardiaI window and examination of the pericardial contents to stop the source of bleeding

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14
Q

How is the initial blood loss estimated based on the patients presentation?

A

Blood losses of less than 15 % cause few physiologic changes;

losses of 15%-30% cause mild changes, including tachy­ cardia and increased pulse pressure.

Losses of 30%-40% cause severe changes in vital signs including hypotension, tachycardia, and decreased mentation.

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15
Q

Which stage of hemorrhage requires a blood transfusion?

A

Patients who suffer blood losses of 15%-30% (Class II) usually require blood transfusion, and those who suffer blood losses of 30%-40% (Class III) almost always require transfusion.

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16
Q

How is the adequacy of resuscitation determined?

A

Signs of adequate initial resuscitation include acceptable urine output and improvement in heart rate, mental status, and BP.

Other physiological variables to follow: anaerobic metabolism as measured by correction of lactic acidosis and normalization of venous oxygen saturation.

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17
Q

What do you do if a patient remains hypotensive despite adequate fluid resuscitation?

A

When a patient continues to remain hypotensive and unstable despite adequate fluid resuscitation, the most important priority is a search for the underlying cause. Urgent laparotomy or thoracotomy may be indicated.

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18
Q

Can a closed head injury cause hypotension?

A

A closed head injury typically does not cause hypotension as a result of the Cushing reflex.

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19
Q

Explain the Cushing reflex?

A

ischemic brain sends a sympathetic nervous system message to the peripheral circu­ lation to vasoconstrict, which maintains a normal or increased BP and thus regulates per­ fusion to the brain. Bradycardia also results, because the vagus nerves are unaffected by this message and respond to the increased BP with parasympathetic stimulation to the heart, causing the decreased heart rate.

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20
Q

How do you evaluate a cervical spine when the patient is awake and alert?

A

Cervical spine precautions include neck immobilization with a collar or a board, as used by paramedics. If no stabilization is in place, it is necessary to maintain in-line cervical stabilization

palpation of the neck along the posterior aspect to detect
tenderness, deformity, or other abnormalities. In addition, a rapid assessment of the basic motor and sensory function of the arms and legs is necessary.

Ask the patient to move his fingers and toes.
Lateral cervical spine radiograph

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21
Q

How do you evaluate the cervical spine of a patient who is comatose?

A

Cannot clear the cervical spine. Some surgeons will order a cervical spine MRI

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22
Q

The patient has loss of neurological function below the neck

A

neurologic deficits, radiologic abnormalities, or cervical spine tenderness are present, then a cervical spine injury should be suspected.

continued cervical spine precautions, a neurosurgical consultation, complete evaluation with imaging, and immediate administration of steroids to maximize recovery of the neurologic loss due to damage caused by edema to the adjacent areas of the spinal cord. Intubation requires extreme caution

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23
Q

Patient has priapism after a motor vehicle accident. What is it?

A

Priapism is a finding in patients with a fresh spinal cord injury. Other findings include loss of anal sphincter tone, loss of vasomotor tone, and bradycardia due to loss of pe­ ripheral sympathetic activity and intestinal ileus.

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24
Q

25-year-old man presents with a stab wound to the left chest lateral to the nipple. He is ver­ bally complaining of pain. His vital signs are BP, 120/60 mm Hg; heart rate, 90 beats/min; and respiratory rate, 20 breaths/min. What is it? Management?

A

very likely that the pleural space has been violated and that a hemopneumothorax exists.

Chest tube insertion or tube thoracostomy (> or =38F) should occur in the left side, fifth intercostal space.

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25
Q

You perform a tube thoracostomy, and 1700 mL of blood is evacuated. What is the next step in management?

A

emergent thoracotomy is usually based on where the stab wound is located (e.g., close to a vital structure such as the heart or great vessels) and the initial volume of blood evacuated. Generally, if a tube thoracostomy is placed with 1500 mL evacuated in a brief amount of time, a thoracotomy should be performed to evaluate for lung hilar injury or an injury to the heart.

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26
Q

When does a patient require a thoracotomy?

A

Usually, a blood loss of greater than 200 mL/hr for 3 hours also requires thoracotomy to evaluate the injury.

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27
Q

Stab want just below left nipple. What is the next step in management?

A

Diaphragmatic in­juries may be missed on initial survey, because herniation of intra-abdominal contents into the thorax may not occur in the initial period. For this reason, if suspicion of a diaphragmatic injury is high, exploration throughout the abdomen for related injuries, in­ cluding the stomach, small bowel, colon, pancreas, and other visceral organs, is necessary.

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28
Q

One is abdominal expiration justified?

A

Exploration of the abdomen is justified in patients with obvious, penetrating injuries such as gunshot wounds or deep penetrating lacerations, as well as in unstable patients with a rapidly expanding (distending) abdomen o r severe abdominal pain.

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29
Q

What is DPL? When is it most useful?

A

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage - small midline incision is made and the peritoneum is opened. The urinary bladder must be emptied prior to this test to avoid injury to the bladder. If 10 mL or more of gross blood is encountered on opening the peritoneum, the test is positive, and the ab­ domen is closed.

A positive DPL is an indication for exploration.
DPL is most useful in situations in which the diagnosis of abdominal injury is not clear and hemodynamic instability is present.

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30
Q

What are the drawbacks to a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?

A

may miss injuries to retroperitoneal structures such as the duodenum and pancreas if there is no communication between the injury and the peri­ toneal cavity.

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31
Q

What is a FAST test? When is it useful?

A

focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST). Complete an ultrasound examination of the four quadrants of the abdomen to check for the presence of fluid. Fluid, presumably blood, indicates the presence of an in­ jured organ.

technique is particularly useful for detecting blood and pericardial effusion

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32
Q

When is CT preferred over FAST and DPL?

A

CT scanning is used in stable patients with unclear abdominal injuries or a mechanism of injury that warrants further investigation.

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33
Q

A patient complains of severe diffuse abdominal pain. What is the best next step in management?

A

Severe pain, which is a sign of Significant irritation to the peritoneum from blood or in­ testinal contents, is an indication for exploration without further tests. In centers with FAST ultrasound examination or CT scanners in the trauma receiving unit, either FAST or CT is a useful method for determining whether fluid is present in the peritoneal cav­ ity, which would confirm an injury.

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34
Q

A CXR that shows the stomach in the left chest

A

ruptured diaphragm, which should be repaired in the operating room. Prior to surgery, the rapid evaluation of other major nonabdominal injuries is necessary.

35
Q

A CXR that shows free air in the abdomen

A

perforated viscus.

36
Q

Development of hypotension, with no obvious cause of blood loss

A

good candidate for FAST or DPL for diagnosis of an abdominal injury. If either procedure is positive, the patient should urgently proceed to the operating room. CT TOO SLOW!!

37
Q

Development of hypotension and a distending abdomen

A

major abdominal injury and should proceed to the oper­
ating room rapidly.

38
Q

Development of hypotension and an obviously fractured pelvis. Next step in management?

A

– Pelvic angiogram

  • significant bleeding from a branch of the internal iliac artery is evi­ dent, which is controlled by embolization.
  • Reduction and external fixation of the frac­tured pelvis is also an important aspect in the control of bleeding in certain types of pelvic fractures
39
Q

Splenic laceration with fluid adjacent to Organ. Management?

A

Preserve the spleen if possible to avoid postsplenectomy sepsis. Most surgeons also agree with the follow­ ing statement: Avoid blood transfusions if patients can be safely managed without them. The management of splenic injury represents a balance between these two prin­ ciples.

40
Q

What is the management of a liver laceration?

A

Abdominal exploration is necessary regardless of grade in unstable patients, par­ticularly in those with grade IV, V, and VI injuries.

41
Q

Management of injury to the mesentery?

A

may also tear or rupture the bowel. Leaking bowel is obviously a serious injury that requires operative intervention. It is particularly difficult to detect these injuries on CT. Therefore, they must be suspected based on either mechanism or associated injuries seen on CT scan

42
Q

What is the management of Rupture of the left kidney and an associated retroperitoneal hematoma around the kidney?

A

In unstable patients kidney rupture requires operative intervention

document the presence of two kidneys before removing the injured kidney. A single intravenous pyelogram obtained in the resuscitation area or op­ erating room can determine this. In stable patients, the injury can be assigned a grade. Angiography is useful for the study of high-grade disruptions or intimal tears to exam­ ine for major vascular injuries.

43
Q

Hematoma located centrally in the area of the superior mesenteric artery

A

suggest major injuries to either the upper abdominal aorta or major aortic branches or direct injury to the pancreas and duodenum. In unstable patients, urgent exploration is necessary. In stable patients, angiography and further assessment prior to exploration are appropriate.

44
Q

Partial transection of the pancreas

A

debrided and drained. With more complex in­ juries, resection of devitalized pancreatic tissue and repair of duodenal injuries is neces­sary.

45
Q

Hematoma of the duodenum, with no other injuries in the abdomen

A

Common in children who hit abdomen on handlebars of bicycle.
Diagnose with an upper G.I. series
No oral intake, should resolve within 5–7 days

46
Q

Management of a ruptured diaphragm

A

Surgical repair

47
Q

Next step in management for Free fluid i n the peritoneal cavity and no evidence of solid organ injury

A

could be blood or intestinal contents. One should be suspicious for bowel injury and confirm it either by surgical exploration or by serial examinations and imaging.

48
Q

Management of Free fluid i n the peritoneal cavity and no evidence of solid organ injury

A

could be blood or intestinal contents. One should be suspicious for bowel injury and confirm it either by surgical exploration or by serial examinations and imaging.

49
Q

What is the management of a retroperitoneal hematoma inZone 1 (central hematomas).

A

Usually abdominal exploration, preoperative angiogram maybe useful

50
Q

Management of it retroperitoneal structure inZone 2 (usually involve kidney)?

A

No exploration is warranted, unless hematoma is expanding.

Exploration is typically appropriate in unstable patients or in those with penetrating trauma to exclude major vascular in­ juries.

51
Q

Management of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage in zone three

A

These are pelvic hematomas

Blunt trauma - no exploration
Penetrating trauma – expiration acquired

No exploration is warranted in blunt trauma. Exploration is typically appropriate in patients with penetrating trauma to exclude major vascular injuries.
Angiographic embolization and pelvic fracture reduction are appropriate, especially in unstable patients after other sources of hemorrhage have been evaluated.

52
Q

When is hyperventilation recommended for patients with a head injury?

A

general hyperventilation is currently reserved for the patient has apparent signs of impending brain herniation such as the development of a blown pupil or lateralizing signs.

53
Q

GlasgowComaScoreof10andadilatedrightpupilthatsluggishly reacts to light

A

space-occupying CNS lesion. A immediate CT scan is necessary, and a neurosurgical consult is warranted.

54
Q

Blood behind the tympanic membrane

A

Basal skull fracture

55
Q

What is the concern if a patient’s temperature postop is 95°F

A

Hypothermia leads to coagulopathy from platelet dysfunction and prolongation of the prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTI).

56
Q

What is the management of a low platelet count?

A

Due to the severity of injury and the risk of ongoing bleeding, platelet transfusions to keep the platelet count above 6O,OOO/mm3 are necessary.

57
Q

Which conditions can cause a metabolic acidosis?

A

Hypothermia and hypovolemia causing hypoperfusion both of which require correction

58
Q

A trauma patient develops abdominal distention and oliguria. What is the likely cause?

A

continued hemorrhage from the liver and accumulation of intra-abdominal fluid and blood. The oliguria may be caused by de­ creased renal blood flow resulting from a tense abdominal compartment, so-called ab­ dominal compartment syndrome.

59
Q

After a surgery how should a patient’s fluids and blood we managed post operatively?

A

Blood losses should be replaced with packed RBCs ml for ml or with 0.9 normal saline (3 ml saline per ml blood loss)

60
Q

If a patient doesn’t respond to a 2 L fluid bolus challenge test, what is the next step?

A

measurement of his CVP is necessary to de­ termine if hydration is adequate. CVP provides an index of the preload of the right ven­ tricle. If the CVP is decreased, this indicates hypovolemia, and additional volume re­
placement is appropriate.

61
Q

What is the purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter?

A

pulmonary artery catheter permits measurement of the cardiac output, right atrial, pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), and systemic vascular resistance (SVR). These measure­ ments allow you to assess ventricular function and guide the administration of fluids or car­diac medications designed to enhance pump function

62
Q

How do you interpret pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

A

PCWP is low, hypovolemia and decreased left heart preload are present. If the PCWP is high (in the range of 20-25 mm Hg), pulmonary edema and fluid overload, caused by either left heart failure or overhydration, are present.

63
Q

What are the expected hemodynamic parameters in a patient with neurogenic shock?

A

hypotensive trauma patient with a normal or slow pulse and evidence for a spinal cord injury. Pulmonary artery catheter measurements typically demonstrate a low SVR, a low PCWP, and a low cardiac output due to decreased cardiac preload and contractility. Treatment is adequate replacement of intravascular volume.

64
Q

A patient is in respiratory distress. You increase her FI02 to 60%, which fails to increase the patient’s oxygenation above 56 mm Hg. What is likely going on?

A

worsening ARDS, a mucous plug, or possible malposition of the en­ dotracheal tube. It is necessary to repeat the CXR to determine placement of the endo­ tracheal tube. If the CXR shows massive atelectasis on one side, it could mean significant underventilation of that lung due to tube misplacement or occlusion of the tube by a mu­ cous plug. Treatment entails repositioning or suctioning the tube.

65
Q

Why does blood pressure reduce form adding PEEP pressure?

A

The addition of 10 cm H20 of PEEP causes the cardiac output to drop by impairing venous return to the heart. May also cause oliguria with decreased perfusion to kidney

66
Q

What are the initial steps in evaluation for a burn patient?

A

– Assess depth of burn
– Assess type of burn
– Assess percentage of body surface area burned

determine whether an airway burn is likely. Suggestive factors are carbonaceous sputum, facial burn, facial or nasal hair burns, hoarseness, low oxygen saturation, or dyspnea.

67
Q

How is the amount of fluid replacement estimated for a burn patient?

A

Total volume of lactated Ringer’s solution = % BSA burned X weight (kg) X 4 mL/kg

One-half of the solution is given over the first 8 hours, and the second half is given over the next 16 hours. In the next 24 hours, it is also necessary to give DsW to replace evapo­ rative water loss and maintain serum sodium at 140 mEq/L and administer 0.5 mL plasma/% BSA burned over 8 hours to maintain colloid oncotic pressure.

68
Q

Should colloid solution be given to a burn patient?

A

Colloid is not given in the first 24 hours, because the capillaries are “leaky,” and most of the fluid will leak into the extracellular space very quickly. Colloid is most effective for returning intravascular/ plasma volume to normal without adding edema.

69
Q

Used for topical treatment of burns

A

Silver sulfadiazine, mafenide, and povidone-iodine ointment are some of the topical antibiotics available for use.

70
Q

Are antibiotics given to burn patients?

A

Prophylactic systemic antibiotics are not used because they select for resistant organ­ isms. They should be used only for clearly documented infections. The most common in­ fections are Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas, Streptococcus, and Candida.

71
Q

A burn patient develop dark urine that is positive for blood. What is happening? What is the most appropriate step in management?

A

Microscopic analysis of the urine is necessary. If no RBCs are seen, the patient has myoglobinuria and is at risk for acute tubular necrosis if this condition goes unrecognized and inadequately treated.

Fluids should be administered to ensure a urine output two to three times normal. Alkalinization of the urine and osmotic diuretics (e.g., mannitol) may also be used in severe cases.

72
Q

How do you evaluate methemoglobinemia? Treatment?

A

Pulse oximetry is unreliable as a measure of oxygen sat­ uration, because it cannot differentiate between methemoglobin and hemoglobin

Use An ABG

Supplemental oxygen will usually resolve the problem in 24–72 hours. IV methylene blue. In extreme cases hyperbaric oxygen chamber.

73
Q

How can you prevent renal failure in electrical burns?

A

Maintain a high urine output. Alkalinization of the urine

74
Q

What is the composition of total parental nutrition?

A

provides calories, amino acids, electrolytes, vitamins, trace minerals, and fatty acids through a central venous catheter.

75
Q

What are not depleted patients?

A

Nondepleted” patients (those with a good nutritional status) are in a minor
catabolic state.

76
Q

What are depleted patients?

A

Depleted patients were malnourished before surgery.

77
Q

What are hypermetabolic patients?

A

Hypermetabolic patients are in a severely stressed catabolic state (i.e., due to trauma, burn, sepsis, cancer).

78
Q

What are the nutritional requirements for non-depleted patients?

A

nondepleted are approximately 1.0 g/kg/day, with total daily calories of 20% above basal energy expenditure.

79
Q

What are the nutritional requirements for hypermetabolic patients?

A

hypermetabolic patients may be 2.0-2.5 g/kg/day, with total daily calories of 50%-100% above basal energy expenditure.

80
Q

How do you determine if patients daily caloric requirement?

A

Indirect calorimetry

– Or estimated daily baseline caloric needs are about 30 kcal/kg/day X weight in kg

81
Q

How Can metabolic coma result from total parenteral nutrition?

A

Hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar, nonketotic coma is a common cause of coma in patients on TPN. This condition is secondary to dehydration following excessive diuresis due to hyperglycemia. This situation warrants discontinuation of TPN, administration of in­ sulin, and very close monitoring of glucose and electrolytes

82
Q

The patient is started on TPN and experiences elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes. Explain.

A

Liver function tests become abnormal in as many as 30% of patients on TPN. During the first 2 weeks, transaminases rise, and a gradual increase in alkaline phosphatase occurs. Rising enzyme levels normally respond to a modest reduction in the rate of infusion

83
Q

If patient develops Dry, scaly skin while on total parenteral nutrition. What is the likely cause? Management?

A

indicative of free fatty acid deficiency. Administration of lipids should correct the problem.

84
Q

What is the Harris–Benedict equation?

A

method used to estimate an individual’s basal metabolic rate (BMR) and daily kilocalorie requirements

Males
66 + (13.7 X weight [kg]) + (5 Xheight [cm]) - (6.7 Xage [years])

Females
665 + (9.6 X weight [kg]) + 0.8 Xheight [cm]) - (4.7 Xage [years])