Trauma/Airway obstruction Flashcards

1
Q

why can it be fatal if a newborn gets a blocked nose?

A

they are obligate nasal breathers, they cannot breathe through their mouth

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2
Q

what features of a new borns anatomy makes them more at risk of airway obstruction?

A
  • large heads, small nasal openings
  • nasal breathers
  • relatively large tongue
  • small, soft larynx
  • weak neck muscles, floppy head
  • narrow subglottis
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3
Q

how narrow is a neonates subglottis at the cricoid?

A

3.5mm

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4
Q

signs and symptoms of airway obstruction?

A
  • SOB
  • coughing
  • choking
  • stridor/stertor
  • sternal/subcostal recession
  • tracheal tug
  • palor
  • dysphagia
  • dysphonia
  • cyanosis
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5
Q

what is stridor?

A

high pitched harsh noise due to turbulent airflow resulting from airway obstructions

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6
Q

what is stertor?

A

low pitched sonorous sound arising from nasopharyngeal airway (snoring)

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7
Q

what is the problem with adenoid-tonsillar hypertrophy?

A

can cause airway obstruction

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8
Q

what causes recurrent respiratory papillomatosis?

A

HPV infection

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9
Q

where is recurrent respiratory papillomatosis seen?

A

on vocal cords

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10
Q

most common cause of adult subglottic stenosis?

A

vasculitis

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11
Q

should a tracheostomy be perfomed in a child or baby?

A

no, avoided at all possibilities

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12
Q

what are the important things to ask in a history of nasal trauma?

A
  • mechanism of injury
  • when
  • loss of consciousness
  • epistaxis
  • breathing
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13
Q

why do young children not tend to break their noses?

A

as it is all cartilage

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14
Q

when does the nasal cartilage begin to ossify in children?

A

8/9/10 years old

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15
Q

what nerve can be damaged in a nasal trauma that can cause unilateral numbness of the nose and cheek?

A

infraorbital nerve

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16
Q

what problem should be excluded in a nasal trauma?

A

septal haematoma

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17
Q

why is it important to recognise and treat a septal haematoma fast?

A

it can cut off the blood supply to the cartilage and cause necrosis

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18
Q

how is a septal haematoma managed?

A

excised and the layers are stitched back together again

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19
Q

how is a nasal fracture diagnosed?

A

clinically

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20
Q

when is a nasal fracture reviewed in the ENT clinic after the injury?

A

5-7 days post-injury

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21
Q

why must you wait 5-7 days to see ENT after a nasal fracture?

A

so it can be assessed without all the swelling

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22
Q

managment of nasal fracture?

A

either no intervention or may have to put back into place

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23
Q

complications of a nasal fracture?

A

epistaxis, CSF leak, meningitis, loss of smell due to cribriform plate fracture

24
Q

if a nosebleed does not stop in 15-20 mins, what should be given?

A

vasospasms

25
how long can a rapid rhino pack stay in for?
a day or two
26
why should sedation not be considered in nose bleeds?
airway will be compromised and they can aspirate blood
27
CSF leaks often settle spontaneously but after how many days do they need repaired?
within 10 days
28
what can happen if a pinna haematoma isnt treated?
AVN of the cartilage of the pinna, becomes deformed
29
managment of a sub-perichondrial haematoma?
aspirate or incision and drainage and a pressure dressing
30
what is battle sign?
bruising behind the ear
31
what else should you examine in a temporal bone fracture?
ear, TM and ear canal
32
what nerve is likely to be damaged in a fracture of the temporal bone?
CN VII
33
2 classifications of a temporal bone fracture?
-otic capsule involved -optic capsule spared or longitudinal or transverse
34
what makes up the otic capsule?
labyrinth, inner ear and facial nerve
35
what % of temporal bone fractures are longitudinal fractures?
80%
36
what direction does the blow come from in a longitudinal temporal bone fracture?
laterally
37
what causes conductive deafness in a longitundinal fracture?
blood in tympanic cavity and ossicular chain disruption
38
what direction does the blow come from in a transverse fracture?
frontal
39
where is the fracture in a transverse fracture?
at right angles to the long axis of the petrous pyramid
40
where is the fracture in a longitudinal fracture?
fracture line parallels the long axis of the petrous pyramid
41
what does a transverse fracture damage if it crosses the internal acoustic meatus?
auditory and facial nerves
42
why is there sensorineural HL in a transverse fracture?
damage to the 8th cranial nerve
43
what % of patients get facial nerve palsy in a transverse fracture?
50%
44
causes of conductive hearing loss?
- fluid - effusion, blood, CSF - TM perforation - ossicular disruption/fixation - stapes fixation - otosclerosis
45
what structures are in Zone I in the neck trauma classification?
trachea, oesophagus, thoracic duct, thyroid, vessels, spinal cord
46
what vessels are in zone I?
brachiocephalic, subclavian, common carotid, thyrocervical trunk
47
what structures are in Zone II in neck trauma?
larynx, hypopharynx, CN 10,11,12, carotids, internal jugular, spinal cord
48
what structures are in zone III in neck trauma?
pharynx, cranial nerves, carotids, IJV, vertebral artery, spinal cord
49
what is the most common zone for injuries and least likely to cause catastrophic injuries?
zone II
50
when is an injury classed as a penetrating neck injury?
when it goes through the platysma
51
what is the platysma?
a muscle of the neck that goes all the way round the neck
52
what type of force causes maxillary fractures?
a high-energy blunt force injury to facial skeleton
53
what is the second most common midfacial fracture?
orbital floor fractures
54
where do most fractures of the orbital floor occur? and why?
posterior medial region, compromised of the thinnest bones
55
what does the 'tear drop' sign on CT suggest?
a blow out fracture - medial wall and floor