Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3. OrthoBullets (General Knowledge) > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Get Smarter flashcards
1
Q

What is the most common tendon ruptured with a fracture treated with volar plating?

A

FPL

Not EPL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 different types of hardware that can be used to fix the fibula when doing pilon ORIF?

A
  1. plate/screws
  2. intramedullary screw or wire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you treat a Galeazzi fracture?

A
  1. Consider closed treatment if stable after closed reduction
  2. Usually have to do ORIF radius with pinning of DRUJ. Most common bloack to reduction is interposed ECU.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Repeated visits to ER is a red flag for what?

A

Domestic abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What percentage of the humeral head does the posterior humeral circumflex artery provide?

A

64%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 ways to treat HO?

which has evidence supporting it?

A

NSAIDs (indomethacin)

Bisphosphonates

radiation (700cGy x 1 dose)

None have good evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 indicators HO is mature

A

Mature, thickened cortex

Distinct separation/demarcation from soft tissue

Presence of a trabecular pattern

*bone scan plays no role now…Charles- millers/orthobullets and recent studies say otherwise…good for early dx and to see if mature before resection

*Labs (ALP, CRP etc help with diagnosis, but not maturity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most important technical step of transfemoral amputation?

A

Addductor myodesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Components of TFCC (5)?

A

central articular disc

meniscal homologue

volar and dorsal radioulnar ligaments

ulnolunate and ulnotriquetral ligament origins

ECU subsheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is safer for a proximal A-P locking screw to be proximal or distal to the lesser troch?

A

Proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ideal length of BKA?

A

12-15 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the time cutoff after which you lose the improved outcomes with early repair of miltiligamentous knee injury?

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What approach is indicated for open reduction of a) anterior and b) posterior hip dislocations?

A

Anterior dislocation anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach

Posterior dislocation posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What types of plexus injuries does innervation to cervical paraspinal muscles on EMG differentiate between?

A

Pre and post ganglionic injury (brachial plexus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the only two strong or moderate reccomendations for osteoporotic spinal compression fractures?

A

Strong recommedation AGAINST vertebraoplasty

(cement without baloon expansion)

Intermediate recommendation FOR 4 weeks of calcitonin if presentation is within 5 days of onset of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Summarize BMP’s role in tibia fractures

A

Open tibia fracutres only

Increased union in all open tibia fractures

Decreased infection in grade II open tibias only

(risk of tumour?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Elderly patient presents 3 days after fall.

Diagnosed with femoral neck fracture.

What is the most relevant non-orthopedic investigation that is required?

A

Doppler ultrasound

Higher risk of DVT of presentation > 2 days from injury

This was a orthobullets question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blocks to reduction of lateral subtalar dislocation:

A

MEDIAL structures

  1. posterior tibialis tendon
  2. flexor hallucis longus
  3. flexor digitorum longus
  4. Talonavic joint capsule - talar head can buttonhole thru it
  5. tibial nv bundle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Indications for surgery with a GSW to the lumbar spine include? (3)

A

1) spinal instability
2) a neurologic deficit is present that correlates with radiographic findings of neurologic compression by the missile.
3) Lead missile is in contact with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which pelvic fractures can be treated with WBAT?

A

APC 1 (no posterior diasthasis)

LC 1 (no crescent fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Four risk factors for AVN in proximal humerus fractures?

A
  1. 4 part fracture
  2. head split
  3. short calcar segment
  4. disrupted medial hinge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mechanism of Bado 1?

A

Hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Should you use routine preop traction in elderly patients with hip fracture?

A

No

JAAOS CPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What nerve roots are more likely to be injured with sacral fractures?

A

S2-3 because they occupy a large amount of their foramina comparatively. Injury to S2-S5 will cause impairment of urinary/anal and sexual systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is the saline load test sensitive for traumatic knee arthrotomies?

A

Unacceptable low sensitivity, even with addition of methylene blue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name 5 risk factors for HO (all scenarios)

A

TBI (worse with decubitus ulcers)

SCI (worse with decubitus ulcers)

Amputation through a zone of injury (worse with blast mechanism)

High ISS

THA

  • psoas tenotomy
  • cementless
  • Smith-pete

TKA

  • Anterior femoral notching
  • quad trauma
  • MUA post-op

Antegrade femoral nail (piriformis start worse)

Distal femoral traction pins (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do you have to order in addition to standard things when someone has a delayed presentation for hip fracture?

A

Duplex doppler of bilateral lower extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common complication of elbow ORIF?

A

Elbow stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

post-discharge hip fracture in elderly, what should you prescribe (or at least set up) for patients (3)

A

PT: strong evidence for intensive PT

Interdisciplinary care for mild-mod dementia: strong evidence

Multimodal analgesia: strong evidence

Nutritional supplementation/dietetics consult: moderate evidence

Calcium/Vit D: moderate evidence

Osteoporosis evaluation and treatment: moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is needed to consider a SYme?

A

Post. Tib Pulse and a stable heel pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the benefits of fixing femur fractures within 24 hours?

A

decreased pulmonary complications (ARDS)

decreased thromboembolic events improved rehabilitation

decreased length of stay and cost of hospitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Jean mart method?

A

Using the angle between a line drawn tangential to the femoral condyles and a line drawn through the axis of the femoral neck to determine if there is rotational malalignment after fixation of a femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you splint/cast medial or lateral epicondyle elbow fractures?

A

Medial in pronation, Lateral in supination

**** Thumb towards the injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indications for glenoid fixation (fracture characteristics - 3)

A
  1. > 25% invovlement with subluxation of humerus
  2. > 5 mm step
  3. excessive medialization of glenoid (+1 cm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can use you flouro to get proper rotation of a tibial fracture?

A

Obtain perfect lateral of knee and then rotate c-arm internal by 105-120 degrees and this should give you a mortise view.

Think: From a lateral of knee to AP of ankle you would go internal 90 degrees so to get mortise you add another 15 (105).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In femoral IMN, is it safer for a proximal A-P locking screw to be proximal or distal to the lesser troch?

A

Proximal

distal=stress riser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the union rate of bisphosphonate fractures compared to conventional fractures when treated with IMN?

A

1:2 (54% v. 98%)

Also have higher complication rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most proximal amp. that gives children equivalent walking speeds?

A

Through knee amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common impediment to closed reduction of DRUJ?

A

Tendon of ECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What differentiates a Milch 1 from a Milch 2 fracture?

A

Whether or not the lateral intercondylar ridge is intact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What finding indicates an adequate inlet view?

A

Overlap of S1 and S2 sacral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Negative prognostic indicators for tibia fractures

A

high energy fractures

stainless steel nails vs titanium nails

fracture gaps

full postoperative weight bearing

open fractures treated with reamed nailing (?is this correct)

(SPRINT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the difference between the type of nec fasc seen in healthy vs. immunocompromised patients?

A

immuno = polymicrobial, much more common

healthy = beta hemo GAS, less common (S.Pyogenes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the activity that causes lateral process of talus fractures?

A

Snowboarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Name an antibiotic to add for the presence of:

a) fresh water contamination
b) salt water contamination

A

Fluoroquinolines: add if fresh or salt water injury

Can also use if allergy to cephalosporins

Doxycycline + ceftazidime: Can use for salt water wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When comparing operative to nonoperative management of displaced intra-articular calcaneus fractures, what 2 groups of people had better outcomes with surgery?

What was found with all comers?

A

Women

All-comers NOT on WSIB

All-comers: Equivalent outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the significance of roof arc measurements?

A

Show intact weight bearing dome if > 45 degrees on AP, obturator, and iliac oblique

Need for surgery or not.

Not useful for posterior wall fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

For a Lisfranc amputation what deformity is feared and how to avoid it?

A
  1. equinovarus
  2. preserve soft tissue around the base of the fifth MT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Initial abx for nec fasc (4)?

A

penicillin, clindamycin, metronidazole, and an aminoglycoside then tailor based on cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Wound Healing: Ischemic index should be greater than … ?

A

0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Calc fractures:

what is the constant fragment

what makes it constant?

A

Superomedial fragment (sustentaculum)

This remains “constant” due to medial talocalcaneal and interosseous ligaments (ie it’s attachments to the talus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Is pregnancy a surgical contra-indication for acetabular fractures?

A

no

Obtain a fetal U/S pre-op. Xrays are safe.

LMWH is the safest AC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Name 5 criteria for Gustillo 3 open fracture:

A

Close range shotgun injuries

High energy GSW

Presentation >24 hours

Contaminated barnyard injuries

Significant comminution or segmentation of fracture

Due to poorer prognosis

Wound >10cm

Vascular injury requiring repair

Injuries requiring soft-tissue coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

5 things to decrease intramedullary pressure during reaming:

A

Flexible reamers

Fluted reamers

Fast speed

Small increments

Venting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

7 indications for surgery in acetabular fractures

A

Roof arc angle >45 degrees

Subchondral bone 10mm deep on axial CT not intact

Posterior wall >40%

Displacement of roof >2mm

Marginal impaction

intra-articular loose bodies

irreducible fracture-dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Operative indications in lateral third clavicle fractures? (3 patterns)

A
  1. fracture is medial to ligaments (2a)
  2. fracture is through ruptured ligaments (2B)
  3. comminuted fracture (5)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Are the short and long term outcomes of displaced olecrenon fractures in elderly treated non-surgically good or bad?

A

Good - Duckworth et al. 2014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Predictors of poor outcome for acetabular fractures

A

Age greater than 55

Intraarticular comminution

Osteonecrosis

Delay of greater than 12 hours for reduction of an associated hip dislocation (<6 hours ideal)

Intraoperative complications

Femoral head injury

Non-anatomic reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the best view for ruling out acetabular perforation by screw?

A

Obturator oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Who benefits from operative intervention in intra-articular calc fracutres?

IN all comers, what is the outcomes of operative vs. nonop?

A

women

<29 years old

light workloads

Comminuted fracture

Bohler’s angle >0-14 degrees (Higher Bohler’s is better)

Anatomic reduction (i.e. if you can restore anatomy)

In all comers, no difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What finding indicates an adequate outlet view?

A

Symphesis shoulder overly S2 body

X-ray beam angled ~45 degrees cephalad (may be as much as 60 degrees)

adequate image when pubic symphysis overlies S2 body

ideal for visualizing:

  • vertical translation of the hemipelvis
  • flexion/extension of the hemipelvis
  • disruption of sacral foramina and location of sacral fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is optimal tip-apex distance?

A

< 25 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where does the deep deltoid insert of the MM?

A

Posterior colliculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

According to AAOS CPG, what shoud you use in an unstable IT hip fracture in elderly?

A

cephalomedullary nail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

WHat three joints are most predisposed to post-traumatic arthritis?

A
  1. ANkle
  2. Hip
  3. Knee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Radial nerve injury with humeral shaft fracture, 4 months out an EMG is done. What do fasciculations mean vs. fibrillations?

A

Fasciculations = healing nerve

Fibrillations = damaged nerve, indication for surgical exploration

(On NCS low amplitude and delayed potentials are bad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Indications for an arthrotomy in setting of GSW? (2)

A
  1. passage through gut
  2. retained bullet in joint (can lead to lead poisoning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Injuries asociated with clavicle fracture

(6)

A

Head injury

Scapular injury/SSSC/scapulothoracic dissociation

Pneumothorax

Vessel injury

Rib fracture

Brachial plexus injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What exam finding is consistent with peroneal neurapraxia post tibial nailing?

A

EHL weakness (dropped hallux syndrome)

B/c branch of deep peroneal nerve to EHL is usually the one affected by proximal interlocking

NOT superficial peroneal

(JBJS Br 1999)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Acetabular approach with highest risk of avn to femoral head?

A

Kocher-Langenbach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How long after a pilon fracture will post-traumatic arthritis typically set in?

A

1-2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What sort of knee dislocation shows a “dimple sign” and why is this significant?

A
  1. posterolateral dislocations
  2. medial femoral condyle buttonholed through the capsule. These are difficult to reduce closed so should be done open urgently.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Femoral Head Fracture Classification. Describe

A

Pipkin

I: infrafoveal, not involving weight bearing surface

II: suprafoveal, involving weight bearing surface

III: associated femoral neck fracture

IV: associated acetabular fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

JAAOS CPG Distal radius

Should you use vitamin C?

A

Yes - moderate evidence FOR use to prevent disproportionate pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is the most common Hoffa fragment located?

A

Coronal shear fracture of lateral femoral condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the 5 associated acetabular fracture types?

A
  1. T-Type
  2. Associated both columns (Spur sign)
  3. Anterior wall, posterior hemi-transverse
  4. Posterior column and wall
  5. Posterior wall and transverse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What substitute has the highest compressive strength for filling a bone void (i.e. in tibial plateau fractures)?

A

Calcium phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Benefits of Hemiarthroplasty over THA in femoral neck fractures

A

Lower incidence of post-operative dislocation

lower blood loss

lower operative time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Benefits to TEA in intra articular, comminuted distal humerus fractures in the elderly?

A

McKee et al RCT:

Quicker procedure, improved DASH scores at 6 months, improved elbow ROM, and decreased revision rates.

Frankle et al reccomend TEA if over 65 and: Arthritis, osteoporosis, or other diagnoses requiring steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What did the COTs trial tell us about clavicle fractures (shaft)?

A

They found that Constant and DASH scores were improved in the operative fixation group at all points in time, with union time being 28 weeks in the nonoperative group and 16 weeks in the operative group. Malunion was higher in the nonoperative group as well. This is for 100% displaced fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

2 options for ORIF of coronoid (technique)?

A
  1. A suture passed through 2 drill holes
  2. Posterior to anterior lag screws
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Grade 1 open tibia treated staged with definitive management 48hrs later with BMP

What are the effects?

A

Decreased non-union only

Decreased infection rates only for grade III open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In what order should things be fixed in a terrible triad injury?

A

(1) restore coronoid stability through fracture fixation or capsular repair
(2) restore radial head stability through fracture fixation or replacement with a metal prosthesis
(3) restore lateral elbow stability through repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex
(4) repair the medial collateral ligament (MCL) in patients with residual posterior instability
(5) apply a hinged external fixator when conventional repair did not establish sufficient joint stability to allow early motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the biggest contraindication to using a piriformis start point?

A

Pediatric patients.

It can cause AVN of the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a risk for HO in BBFA fractures and when can you safely excise it post-op?

A
  1. use of a single incision
  2. 6 months post op

(don’t worry about bone scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

4 types of proximal tib-fib instability

A

Anterolateral - most common

posteromedial

superior

Atraumatic subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the 1 year mortality following hip fracture?

A

14-36%

Also 50% loss of independance

Highest for Intertrochs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What approach is used for thigh fasciotomy?

A

Anterolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A laterally displaced scapula is a radiologic clue to what serious injury?

A

Scapulothroacic dissociation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Describe the radiographic union score for tibial fractures (RUST)

A

Look at each cortex on AP and lateral x-ray (4 in total)

Each one given a score

1: fracture line with no callus
2: callus with fracture line
3: callus with no fracture line

Radiographic healing is when bony callus is evident on 3 cortices AND score >/= 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does serendipity view assess?

A

Sternoclavicular joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the characteristic deformity with malunited proximal tibia fractures?

A

Valgus and procurvatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the most stable type of sacral fixation?

A

Combined iliosacral and lumbopelvic fixation (triangular osteosynthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What serious condition is often found in conjunction with a posterior hip dislocation?

(not orthopaedic)

A

Thoracic aortic rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Predictors of poor outcome of polytraumatized patient (5)

A

Base deficit: most important predictor of morbidity and mortality

Elevated IL-6

High ISS

Elevated serum lactate

Intra-operative hypotension In polytrauma patients with severe brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How much humeral head depression is an indication for hemi-arthroplasty?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Three main surgical steps when there is a vascular injury requiring repair following knee dislocation.

A
  1. reduce and stabilize e.g. Ex fix first
  2. vascular repair - remove damaged area and use reverse saphenous graft (or bypass, etc as per vascular sx)
  3. perform prophylactic fasciotomies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Most important fragment in calcaneus fractures?

A

Constant fragment - sustentaclum tali

Work off of this fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

5 indications for acetabular fracture fixation?

A

displacement of roof (>2mm)

posterior wall fracture involving > 40-50%

marginal impaction

intra-articular loose bodies

irreducible fracture-dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the surgical approaches for an a) axillary or b) subclavian artery injury in an unstable patient with a scapulothoracic dissociation?

A

a) high lateral throacotomy with vascular repair
b) median sternotomy with vascular repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Describe dynamic vs. static tension band

A

Dynamic: produces more compression force with loading

ie: olecranon, patellar

Static: produces a relatively constant force

ie: medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Hip fractures in the elderly should have OR within what time frame?

A

48 hours

JAAOS CPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Treatment for transabdominal GSW with intra-articular contamination?

A

Urgent I and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Wound Healing: ABI should be greater than … ?

A

0.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Factors for poor outcome post ORIF calcanues

A

age > 50

obesity

manual labor

workers comp

smokers

bilateral calcaneal fractures

multiple trauma

vasculopathies

men do worse with surgery than women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Secondary stabilizers of elbow (3)

A

Radiocapitellar joint capsule

origins of flexors and extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How do you investigate for urologic injury in pelvic fractures and what are the indications (3)?

A

retrograde urethrocystogram

indications for retrograde urethrocystogram include:

  1. blood at meatus
  2. high riding or excessively mobile prostate
  3. hematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Outcomes of spinal vs. GA in elderly with hip fractures?

A

Similar outcomes

Strong evidence

AAOS CPG 2014

Now you can tell your patients it doesn’t matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Femoral neck fractures treated under what time frame have better outcomes

A

NO association between time to treatment of femoral neck fractures and outcome

outcomes based on QUALITY of reduction

Nonanatomic reduction leads to higher rates of AVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

With DRUJ instability associated with distal radius fractures, what is a sign on xray, what is the intra-operative test and what structure is most likely damaged if testing is positive?

A
  1. ulnar styloid fracture
  2. shuck test
  3. Radioulnar ligaments of TFCC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the rate of posterior mal fractures with a) spiral distal third fracture and b) any tibial shaft fracture ?

A

a) 40%
b) 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How long after fracture fixation before CRP starts to decrease in cases of no infection?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What part of the urethra is most commonly injured in pelvic trauma?

A

Bulbous (or bulbomembranous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

JAAOS CPG Distal radius

What is the role for PT and early wrist ROM?

A

PT: limited evidence for

Early ROM: moderate evidence against - NO early ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Cemented or uncemented stems in arthroplasty for hip fractures in the elderly?

A

Moderate evidence supports preferential use of cemented femoral stems in patients undergoing arthroplasty for femoral neck fractures

AAOS CPG Sept 2014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Indications for tibial plateau ORIF

A

Articular stepoff >3mm (controversial)

Condylar widening >5mm

Varus/valgus instability

All medial plateau fractures

(These are like knee dislocations)

All bicondylar fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the two advantages of IM nail of tibia over casting?

A
  1. shorter time to union
  2. shorter time to weight bearing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Where does the saggital Poller screw go with proximal tibia fractures?

A

In the lateral aspect of the proximal fragment - it directs the nail medially to prevent valgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Where does the coronal Poller screw go with proximal tibia fractures?

A

In the posterior aspect of the proximal fragment - prevents procurvatum deformity by directing nail anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the cut off of over-stuffing RH replacement and how do you assess it (give 3 ways)

A

No more than 2.5 mm

  1. Best assessed under direct visual examination of lateral UHJ.
  2. take intra-op xrays. Asses by visualising the lateral aspect of the ulnohumeral joint when the radial head is resected and comparing this to when the trial radial head is reduced in place. The lateral UH joint shouldnt be divergent with the radial head.
  3. size radial head replacement with excised anatomic head (if possible)

One study shows it shouldn’t go more than 1 mm proximal that the lateral aspect of coronoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the symptoms of Fat Emboli Syndrome?

A

The major clinical features of FES include hypoxia, pulmonary edema, central nervous system depression, and axillary or subconjunctival petechiae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What nerve at risk with AIIS screws?

A

LFCN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Outcomes of locking vs. nonlocking plates in tibial plateau fractures

A

equivalent complications and outcomes vs. non-locking plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Three indications for plate fixation of olecrenon fracture?

A
  1. comminution
  2. extension past the coronoid
  3. in the setting of associated instability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Three risk factors for malunion after treatent of femur fracture with IM nail?

A
  1. night time surgery
  2. use of a fracture table
  3. fracture comminution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

TEA vs. ORIF for comminuted distal humerus fractures in elderly.

Name important Outcomes

4 things

A

TEA has:

  • Less OR time
  • Better functional outcomes at 2 years
  • No difference in reoperation rates
  • No difference in ROM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Indications for Damage control orthopaedics (7):

A

ISS Score:

  • ISS > 40 in a patient WITHOUT thoracic trauma
  • ISS > 20 in patient WITH thoracic trauma

Blood loss:

  • Multiple injuries with severe pelvic/abdominal trauma and hemorrhagic shock

Bilateral femoral fractures

Pulmonary contusion on CXR

Hypothermia

Head injury with AIS greater than or equal to 3

Any patient “in-extremis”Indications of patient in extremis: 3 out of 4 of:

  • BP
  • Platelets
  • Temperature
  • Major soft tissue injuries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Name 6 risks of radioulnar synostosis

(there are 13)

A

Trauma related

Monteggia fracture

both bone forearm fractures at the same level

open fracture,

significant soft-tissue lesion

comminuted fracture

high energy fracture

associated head trauma

bone fragments on the interosseous membrane

Treatment related

use of one incision for both radius and ulna

delayed surgery > 2 weeks

screws that penetrate interosseous membrane

bone grafting into interosseous membrane

prolonged immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Where does the blood supply for patella come from chiefly?

A

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Distal radius fractures: Predictors of loss of reduction

A

Lafontaine’s Criteria

Dorsal angulation >20 degrees

Comminution:

  • Dorsal comminution >50%
  • Palmar comminution
  • Intra-articular comminution

Initial displacement >1cm

Initial radial shortening >5mm

Associated ulnar fracture

Severe osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Primary stabilizers of elbow? (3)

A

Anterior bundle of MCL

LCL

Ulnohumeral articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Braking time post lower extremity fractures are decreased until when? Base line at?

A

Significantly decreased for 6 weeks after initiation of weight bearing

Baseline at 8-9 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What single patient factor nearly doubles the mortality of patients 2 years following hip surgery for fracture?

A

Chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Acceptable alignment parameters for humeral shaft fracture?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does the Cierny calssification describe?

A

Osteomyelitis:

  1. medullary
  2. superficial
  3. local
  4. diffuse

** 3 and 4 are indications for I and D along with sinus tract and abscess and failure of conservative treatment

Also host type:

Host Type

Type A = Normal

Type B = Compromised

Type C = Treatment is worse to patient than infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is a Holstein-Lewis fracture?

A

A spiral fracture of the distal one-third of the humeral shaft commonly associated with neuropraxia of the radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Advantages of ORIF clavicle fracture

Midshaft displaced

A

Advantages:

Improved results with ORIF for clavicle fractures with >2cm shortening and 100% displacement

Improved DASH and Constant scores with operative management at all time points

Improved functional outcome/less pain with overhead activity

Faster time to union

Decreased symptomatic malunion rate

Improved cosmetic satisfaction

Improved overall shoulder satisfaction

Increased shoulder strength and endurance

Decreased overall complications (JBJS2012 - McKee)

Disadvantages

Increased risk of need for future procedures

Removal of hardware COMMON (30%)

Debridement for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

4 xray findings of DRUJ injury?

A
  1. ulnar styloid fx
  2. widening of joint on AP view
  3. dorsal or volar displacement on lateral view
  4. radial shortening (≥5mm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Indications for surgery for clavicle fractures

A

Absolute:

Unstable group II (IIA, IIB, V)

Displaced fracture with skin tenting

Subclavian artery or vein injury

Floating shoulder

Symptomatic nonunion

Posteriorly displaced group III fractures (posterior displaced medial fracture)

Displaced Group I (middle 1/3) (100% displaced) with >2cm shortening

Relative:

Brachial plexus injury

Questionable b/c 66% have spontaneous return

Closed head injury

Seizure disorder

Polytrauma patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

After you fix the radius in a Galeazzi fracture (radius), what do you do?

A

Assess DRUJ:

If reduced and stable: 6 weeks casting in supination

IF reduced but not stable: pin for 6 weeks

IF not reduced: Dorsal capsulotomy, remove interposed tissue, usually ECU, fix any large styloid boney fragments, pin for 6 weeks in supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How much fluid do you bolus in a paediatric trauma patient?

A

20mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Which direction of subtalar dislocation is more common? More likely to be open?

A

Medial more common

Lateral more likely to be open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

4 indications for fixation of sacral fractures

A
  1. displaced fractures >1 cm
  2. soft tissue compromise
  3. persistent pain after non-operative management
  4. displacement of fracture after non-operative management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

How much do you want to preserve for great toe amps?

A

1 cm proximal phalanx. This preserves plantar fascia, sesamoids and FHB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What combination of pressure and solution type should you use for open fracutre I&D?

A

Saline better than soap (soap had increased reoperation rates)

Pressure doesn’t matter - can be very low, low or high pressure

(FLOW study NEJM 2015)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What has to be elevated out of the way when using an anterolateral approach for talar neck orif?

A

EDB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Most important predictor of 1 year survival after femoral neck fracture in elderly

A

Preoperative mobility

Other risks for mortality include:

Male sex

preoperative cognitive impairment

CRF

Delay in surgery > 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

TIbial plateau fractures with highest rate of vascular injury?

What must you do?

A

Shatzker IV: represents medial fracture dislocation

Must do ABI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the three factors that influence development of post traumatic OA in the long term?

A

Congruity

Instability

Alignment

JAAOS 2014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the primary treatment for delayed EPL rupture following closed treatmnet of DR fracture?

A

EIP to EPL transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Best order for insertion of cannulated screws?

A

1-inferior screw along calcar (posterior aspect)

2-posterior/superior screw

3-anterior/superior screw

Starting point at or above level of lesser troch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Where is characteristic location for a bipartite patella?

A

Superolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Risk factors for wound problems after operative management of calcaneus fracture? (3)

A

Open fractures

>

Diabetes

>

Smoking

154
Q

2 absolute indications for amputation following trauma

A

crush injury with warm ischaemia time >6hrs

Non-repairable arterial injury

155
Q

How long should DM patients be immobilized post ankle ORIF?

A

Twice as long as normal

156
Q

What is the danger of using a retrograde entrypoint posterior to Bloomensats line?

A

Damage to cruciate ligaments.

157
Q

Do you need to give prolonged ABx for a low velocity GSW to femur when planning for a nail?

A

No

158
Q

What is the union rate of bisphosphonate fractures compared to conventional fractures when treated with IMN?

A

1:2 (54% v. 98%)

Also have higher complication rate.

159
Q

Components of LRINEC system?

A
  • CRP (mg/L) ≥150: 4 points
  • WBC count (×10^3/mm3): <15: 0 points, 15–25: 1 point, >25: 2 points
  • Hemoglobin (g/dL): >13.5: 0 points, 11–13.5: 1 point, <11: 2 points
  • Sodium (mmol/L): <135: 2 points
  • Creatinine (umol/L): >141: 2 points
  • Glucose (mmol/L): >10: 1 point
  • score > 6 has PPV of 92% of having necrotizing fasciitis
160
Q

Which Denis zone of the sacrum has the highest rate of neurologic injury?

A

Zone 3, medial to foramina

(Transverse is even higher but isn’t in the Denis classification)

(Zone 1 is lateral and Zone 2 is through foramina)

161
Q

5 indications for DCO ortho

A

ISS > 40

ISS > 20+ thoracic/abdominal injury

Bilateral lung contusion

Bilateral femur fracture

Evidence of shock

  • Decreased urine output (<50mL/hr)
  • sBP < 90mmHg

Lactate >2.5

Triad of Death

  • Coagulopathy (Fibrinogen <1)
  • Hypothermia (T < 35C)
  • Acidotic (pH < 7.2), base excess >8mmol/L

Massive Transfusion Protocol (Transfusion > 4U)

Exaggerated inflammatory response: IL-6 > 800pg/mL

Initial mean pulmonary arterial pressure >24mmHg

Increase of >6mmHg in pulmonary arterial pressure during IM Nailing

Presumed OR time >6 hours

Arterial injury & hemodynamic instability

Increased ICP

162
Q

Three risk factors for malunion after treatent of femur fracture with IM nail?

A
  1. night time surgery
  2. use of a fracture table
  3. fracture comminution
163
Q

What is the Sanders classification based on?

A

Number of articular fragments seen on the coronal CT image at the widest point of the posterior facet

164
Q

What is a specific technique to prevent varus collapse when doing a proximal humerus locking plate?

A

Placement of an inferomedial calcar screw

165
Q

What is the biggest risk fracture for non-union in open tibia fractures?

A

Gapping at fracture site.

Also transverse fracture.

(some would use BMP-2 - however some new literature disagrees… something about cancer)

166
Q

What nerve branch will serve as a landmark to the radial nerve during a paratricipetal approach?

A

Lateral brachial cutaneous

167
Q

4 characteristics of bisphosphonate related fractures?

A
  1. lateral cortical thickening
  2. transverse or short oblique fracture orientation
  3. medial spike
  4. lack of comminution
  5. subtroch (not always)
168
Q

What are the 5 simple acetabular fracture types?

A
  1. Posterior wall (Gull Sign)
  2. Posterior Column
  3. Anterior wall
  4. Anterior column
  5. Transverse
169
Q

How do you reduce a subtalar dislocation?

A
  1. sedation
  2. Flex knee and plantarflex foot
  3. Inversion/Eversion depending on direction of dislocation
  4. Get a post op CT to look for fractures or intraarticular bodies.
170
Q

How far is sublime tubercle from tip of coronoid?

A

18 mm

171
Q

Foot compartments and what is is them?

A

9 main compartments

  1. medial
    1. abductor hallucis
    2. flexor hallucis brevis
  2. lateral
    1. abductor digiti minimi
    2. flexor digiti minimi brevis
  3. interosseous (x4)
  4. central (x3)
    1. superficial
      1. flexor digitorum brevis
    2. central quadratus plantae
    3. deep
      1. adductor hallucis
      2. posterior tibial neurovascular bundle
172
Q

How do you assess DRUJ on xray?

A

Lateral with arm in neutral rotation.

An unstable DRUJ will displace dorsally by full width of ulna

Can also do dynamic CT

173
Q

Which has superior union rates post open tibia fracture, autogenous ICBG vs. BMP2?

A

Equivocal

174
Q

JAAOS CPG Distal radius fracture

What is operative criteria?

A

Post-reduction:

radial shortening >3mm

dorsal tilt >10 degrees

or intra-articular displacement or step-off >2mm

175
Q

If fixing at sternoclavicular dislocation, what are the principle of surgical management?

A
  1. If acute perform closed reduction with entire chest prepped, have throacic surgery on backup
  2. If chronic (> 3 weeks) do open reduction, can use towel clamp to help reduction, consider repair of soft tissues

*** Put bump between shoulders. Push POSTERIORLY on the shoulder to reduce while pulling anteriorly on the clavicle with a towel clamp.

*** With chronic injuries there is a worry that there is fibrous tissue connecting the clavicle to mediastinum so dont do closed reduction.

176
Q

Distla 1/3 tib/fib fracture

Outcomes of fibular plating in addition to tibial fixation (doesn’t matter what type)

A

Early: increased nonunion

Late: decreased late malalignment

177
Q

What views for placing AIIS screws and why?

A

obturator outlet to get start point

obturator inlet to see the path between the tables

iliac inlet to ensure you dont go into GSN

there is no single view (just think about pelvis anatomy). also see JAAOS

178
Q

What is the main indication for posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach with digastric osteotomy? (i.e. what traumatic condition(s))

A

Femoral head fracture with posterior wall fracture. If posterior wall is small can just leave it and fix head via anterior approach

179
Q

What approach is used with posterior wall, posterior column and most t-type/transverse fractures?

A

Kocher-Langenbach

180
Q

What is the salvage option post femoral neck fixation with:

a) nonunion or b) AVN >50%?

A

a) Valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy
b) Free vascularized fibula graft

181
Q

Which types of Monteggia should be casted in supination?

A

1 and 3 (anterior and lateral)

182
Q

How many segmental rib fractures needed for a flail chest?

A

3 or more

183
Q

Which view allows for assesment of Screw position between the inner and outer tables of the ilium?

A

Obturator-oblique inlet view

184
Q

Advantages to plating of humerus vs. nailing?

A
  1. fewer complications overall
  2. less impingement
  3. equivalent union
185
Q

What did the SPRINT trial say about reamed vs. unreamed nails for tibia fractures?

A

Reamed possibly superior to unreamed nails for treatment of closed tibia fxs for decrease in future bone grafting or implant exchange

186
Q

What is the difference between a tongue type Essex Lopresti fracture and a calcaneal tuberosity avulsion fracture?

A

In tongue type, there is a primary fracture line that runs obliquely through the posterior facet forming two fragments

and then there is a secondary fracture line that causes the classic “tongue”

In avusion, there is only 1 fracture line and does not have to go into the posterior facet

187
Q

Risks for wound complications following calc fracture after ORIF?

A

Open injury (most important)

smoking

DM

188
Q

Most common cause of Gas Gangrene? And abx required?

A

Clostridium

Abx should be Pen G and Clindamycin

189
Q

How do you assess intraop for rotational reduction in a femur fracture?

A

Clinical assessment of other leg - prep it in

Compare LT profiles (AP of knee, should see 2/3 of LT)

Compare LT profiles: perfect lateral of knee, then rotate 90 deg to get AP of hip. Match LT profile of injured side to good side

Width of cortices

Tornetta technique: perfect lateral of hip and knee on good side & meausre the difference. This difference should be recreated on the injured side

Linea aspera if open

Ultrasound

Computer assisted surgery

Post-op: CT Scanogram using Jean-Mart method

190
Q

Indications for scapular neck fixation

(fracture characteristics - 2)

A
  1. 40 angulation
  2. 1 cm translation
191
Q

What are the most important biomarkers to guide resuscitation?

A
  1. Base deficit
  2. Lactate
192
Q

Where are the incisions for a foot compartment release?

A
  1. dorsal - medial aspect of 2nd MT
  2. dorsal - lateral aspect of 4th MT
193
Q

What is the Jupiter classification?

A

Bicolumnar distal humerus fractures (Milch is unicolumnar)

194
Q

Treatment for significant stiffness caused by HO following fracture of the elbow?

A

HO excision, capsular release, and/or release of the posterior band of the UCL

** releasing anterior band would cause secondary valgus instability

(Orthobullets uses band and bundle inter-changably. This is referring to the posterior band NOT the posterior bundle of the anterior band)

195
Q

LEAP study showed what two factors had highest influence on a surgeons decision to amputate?

A

Severe soft tissue injury

Presence of plantar sensation

(This is a common question, but seems meaningless. Should know that LEAP study DIDN’T show that absence of plantar sensation effected outcomes)

196
Q

What is an Essex-Lopresti injury and how do you treat it?

A
  1. Radial head fracture with an interosseous membrane injury extending to DRUJ
  2. Pin DRUJ for 6 weeks in neutral. If that doesn’t work may need radial head replacement.
197
Q

Fractures associated with subtalar dislocation

A

medial dislocation

  • dorsomedial talar head
  • posterior process of talus
  • navicular

lateral dislocation

  • cuboid
  • anterior calcaneus
  • lateral process of talus
  • fibula
198
Q

What are 3 signs of instability on plain xrays for pelvic ring fractures?

A

> 5 mm displacement of posterior sacroiliac complex

presence of posterior sacral fracture gap

avulsion fractures (ischial spine, ischial tuberosity, sacrum, transverse process of 5th lumbar vertebrae)

199
Q

What is the deficit if the clavicle heals more than 2 cm short?

A

Decreased shoulder strength and endurance (McKee Paper - Toronto 2007)

200
Q

What happens if a clavicle heals 2cm short?

A

decreased strength

quicker fatigability

201
Q

What score gives a numerical value to the top three injuries which are squared to give a final value?

A

ISS

202
Q

In proximal humerus fractures what length of medial calcar is associated with a reduced risk of AVN if attached to the articular segment?

A

8 mm or more

203
Q

Patient with a closed fracture that requires surgery, but has superifcial burn. what do you do?

A

Operate as you would without the burn

Can operate through burned skin within 48 hours and is in fact beneficial

After 48 hours, must allow skin to heal first as it is considered colonized (can do an ex-fix)

204
Q

What position in cast is best to prevent compartment pressure increase (for lower extremity cast)?

A

0- 30 degrees plantarflexion

205
Q

6 ways to decrease IM pressure with reaming

A

a narrow reamer shaft

sharp cutting flutes

deep flutes

a conical shape

Distal venting

Reaming by smaller increments (0.5mm instead of 1mm)

206
Q

Patient has an open pelvic fracture.

WHat non-ortho procedure is reccomended?

A

Diverting colostomy

207
Q

rhBMP-2 is FDA approved in what treatment?

A

Open diaphyseal fractures of the tibia treated with intramedullary (IM) nail fixation

208
Q

What should the head to tuberosity distance be when doing shoulder hemi-arthroplasty?

A

8-10 mm

209
Q

Six methods to prevent malreduction when nailing proximal tibia fractures?

A
  1. lateral parapatellar incision
  2. make startpoint more lateral
  3. Poller screws
  4. unicortical plating
  5. universal distractor
  6. nailing in semi-extended position
210
Q

If doing a distal ulna wafer resection, what is the most important technical consideration?

A

Maintain ulnar attachment of TFCC

211
Q

How do you check for compartment syndrome intra-operatively?

A

Pressure > 30 or within 30 of PRE operative diastolic

212
Q

Components of forearm IOM?

A

central band is key portion of IOM to be reconstructed

accessory band

distal oblique bundle

proximal oblique cord

dorsal oblique accessory cord

213
Q

Deinfe angle of Gissane

A

The angle formed by the downward and upward slopes of the calcaneal superior surface. (Posterior facet)

Normal: 120-140

(same as Bohlers +100)

214
Q

What causes the damage to cartilage in septic arthritis?

A

Release of proteolytic enzymes from PMNs

215
Q

5 steps of pilon fixation?

A
  1. Anatomic reduction of articular surface
  2. Restore length
  3. Reconstruct metaphyseal shell
  4. Bone graft
  5. Re-attach metaphysis to diaphysis
216
Q

Treatment for extra-articular transabdominal GSW with stable fracture patterns?

A

IV ABx and observation

217
Q

What forearm fractures can be treated non-operatively?

A

Only distal 2/3 isolated ulnar fracture with less than 50% displacement and 10 degrees angulation.

any undisplaced fracture

All other types of forearm fractures are an indication for surgery.

218
Q

What do you have to assess after reducing a elbow dislocation?

A
  1. congruency of reduction
  2. stable arc, usually more unstable in extension

surgical intervention if unstable past 60 degrees of flexion

219
Q

What injury is suspected when a foot presents locked in supination?

A

MEDIAL subtalar dislocation.

Lateral is less common, more likely to be open and will be locked in pronation.

Dislocation is defined by direction of distal aspect - i.e. the foot.

The blocks to reduction are the structures on the OPPOSITE side of the foot.

220
Q

Classification of TFCC tears?

A

type I - traumatic

type II - degenerative (ulnocarpal impaction)

IIA - TFCC thinning

IIB - IIA + lunate and/or ulnar chondromalacia

IIC - IIB + TFCC perforation

IID - IIC + LT ligament disruption

IIE - IID + ulnocarpal and DRUJ arthritis

221
Q

Do you have to do an arthrotomy when fixing a periprosthetic knee fracture with a retrograde nail?

A

Yes - to remove and protect the polyethylene liner

222
Q

After traumatic knee dislocation, what is the best predictor for HO?

A

High ISS

223
Q

What is the best measure of height of prosthesis for proximal humerus?

A

Relation to pec tendon.

The top of humeral head should be 5.6 cm from top of pec tendon.

224
Q

What is the significance and treatment of varus malunion of a talar neck fracture?

A
  1. Causes decreased subtalar eversion
  2. Medial opening wedge neck osteotomy
225
Q

Distance from radiocapitellar joint that radial nerve passes through lateral intermuscular septum?

A

10 cm

226
Q

What is target for SI screw? (general anatomic structure)

What fluro views to use for what alignment?

A

S1 vertebral body

outlet radiograph view best guides superior-inferior screw placement

inlet radiograph view best guides anterior-posterior screw placement

lateral sacral view for iliac cortical density - stay inferior to it

On the true lateral projection, identify the S1 body and iliac cortical densities (ICDs) –> they should overlap

The entry point should be anterior in S1 and inferior to the iliac cortical density (ICD), which parallels the sacral alar slope, usually slightly caudal and posterior. The ICD thus marks the anterosuperior boundary of the safe zone for an iliosacral screw which may injure the L5 nerve root if it penetrates this cortex.

227
Q

If a proximal tibial ex-fix pin is placed within 14 mm of the joint line what is a possible complication?

A

Septic arthritis

228
Q

Cast index

How do you measure it and what is good

A

Max width on lateral / Max width on AP

Closer to 1 = round cast

  1. 7 is good
  2. 8 is bad - the rounder the cast, the higher the risk of re-displacement
229
Q

4 ways to assess for ipsilateral femoral neck fracture in a patient with a femoral shaft fracture?

A
  • Dedicated 15 deg IR AP of affected hip
  • Fine cut CT scan of hip (2mm cuts)
  • Intraop lateral
  • Postop AP and lateral prior to waking the patient up

By using this protocol (ie all 4), decreased delay in diagnosis by 92%

(Tornetta protocol, JBJS 2007)

230
Q

List risk factors for mortalitiy with IT hip fractures (6)

A

Intertroch hip fracture (higher than femoral neck)

Age > 85

Male sex

High ASA >/= 3

High comorbidities (high Charlson Comorbidity Index)

Delay to surgery >2 days

231
Q

What is the recommendation for VTE prophylaxis in trauma?

A

Start LMWH as soon as possible (within 24h if possible)

Supplement with pneumatic compression devices

232
Q

Where does radial nerve split into SRN and PIN?

A

RC joint

233
Q

Corococlavicular Ligaemnts: The ____ ligament inserts ___ from the end of the clavicle and the ____ ligament inserts ___ from the end of the clavicle.

A
  1. Trapezoid, 3 cm
  2. Conoid, 4.5 cm
234
Q

How do you immobilize Monteggia fractures?

A

Bado type:

I: supination, hyperflexion >90 degrees

II: extension

III: Supination

IV: ?

235
Q

Define Bohler’s Angle

A

Two lines are drawn tangent to the anterior and posterior aspects of the superior calcaneus

Normal 20-40 degrees

236
Q

Fixation strategy for displaced Iliac fracture?

A

Surgical indication for iliac fractures is displacement and whether or not the posterior arch is intact.

For surgical fixation, a pelvic recon or lag screw is placed along the iliac crest, and then a second recon plate is placed along the pelvic brim.

Approaches included:

  1. posterior approach
  2. ilioinguinal approach
  3. Stoppa approach (lateral window)
237
Q

Nerve at risk for SI screw?

A

L5 (Courses anterior to S1 body)

238
Q

what’s the classic appearance of stress fracture on MRI

A

T1: Low signal

T2: high signal

239
Q

Mechanism of talar neck fracture

A

Axial load on foot with talus fixed between tibia and calcaneus

240
Q

What biphosphonate poses the greatest risk for patholgic femur fracture?

A

Aledronate

241
Q

Most common reason for irreducible Radial Head during monteggia surgery?

A

Non-anatomic fixation of ulna

242
Q

Distal tibia fractures (extra-art), name 4 advantages of ORIF vs. IMN

Name 1 drawback

A

Advantages:

Anatomic reduction

Lower nonunion rates

lower malunion rates

Better biomechanics (2x stiffer in axial load)

?infection - says it has low infection but not necessarily compared to IMN

Cons:

More extensive soft-tissue dissection

(this can be helped with MIPO)

243
Q

Most common complication when using proximal humerus locking plate?

A

Screw cut out

244
Q

4 things to look for on CT when evaluating an acetabular fracture?

A
  1. fracture type
  2. loose bodies
  3. marginal impaction
  4. Articular steps or gaps
245
Q

What is a caspase?

A

Mediator of apoptosis –> Implicated in post traumatic arthritis

246
Q

What is the preferred approach to femoral head fractures

A

Generally anterior

Surgical dislocation is an option and has been advocated for recently, but increased risk of AVN

247
Q

Acetabular fracture extending into sciatic notch - what vessel is most likely injured?

A

Superior gluteal artery

248
Q

What substitute has been shown to be equivalent to autograft in tibial non-union revisions?

A

BMP-7

249
Q

Most likely organism in Septic arthritis in an IV drug user?

A

Still Staph aureus, although higher likelihood of pseudomonas

250
Q

What clinical exam finding is most predictive of function is scapulothoracic dissocation?

A

Neurologic injury.

Can have a complete plexopathy - mechanism is traction injury to arm. In this case consider forequarter amputation.

251
Q

Clinical special test to monitor nerve recovery?

A

Advancing tinels sign

252
Q

Distal 1/3 tibia/fibula fractures.

What is the only absolute indication for fibular plating?

A

Disrupted syndesmosis

“Should also be done in medial tibial plating to manage a valgus deformity” (JAAOS 2012)

253
Q

Where does anterior bundle of elbow MCL insert?

A

Sublime tubercle

254
Q

How much length do you need to nail a proximal tibia fracture?

A

enough for 2 locking screws

depends on manufacturer/design

~5-6cm

255
Q

In what orientation should your screws be when fixing a vertical medial malleolar fracture?

A

Parallel to the joint.

256
Q

Mortality rate at 1 year after hip fracture in elderly

A

15-35%

Higher with CRF: 45%

257
Q

Indications for HO prophylaxis in elbow ORIF surgery (2)?

A
  1. head injury
  2. revision surgery
258
Q

Important clinical questions to answer when evaluating a radio-ulnar synostosis?

A
  1. Is it congenital (changes tx decision)
  2. Painful or not (incomplete are painful)
  3. Restrictions to ROM and function
  4. Time since fracture or surgery ( 6 months needed before excising)
259
Q

What are A, B and C fractures based on the Tile classification?

A

A= rotational and vertically stable

B= rotationally unstable, vertically stable

C= rotational and vertical unstable

260
Q

4 predictors of mortality with pelvic fractures?

A
  1. Systolic BP drop
  2. 60 years old
  3. Increased Injury Severity Score (ISS) or Revised Trauma Score (RTS)
  4. Need for transfusion > 4 units
261
Q

Where is the typical comminution with talar neck fractures?

A

Dorsal and medial

(Therefore medial screws are positional and not lag. The lateral screw can be a lag screw usually)

262
Q

In what plane is syndesmotic stability best assessed?

A

AP plane (i.e. on lateral)

263
Q

Benefits of THA vs HA in displaced femoral neck fracture

A

Lower reoperation rates

Higher functional outcome (Harris hip score)

Lowe incidence of post-operative pain

264
Q

What advanced imaging modality is best for dx of hip fracture in elderly that is not apparent on plain films?

A

MRI

JAAOS CPG

265
Q

On what views do you measure Tibo-Fibular clear space and overlap?

A

a) clear space on AP, 1 cm above joint
b) overlap on mortise views

266
Q

What is the major blood supply for the talar body?

A

posterior tibial artery via artery of tarsal canal then deltoid artery

267
Q

What direction of knee dislocation has the highest rate of complete popliteal ruptures?

A

Posterior

Anterior gives you an intimal tear from traction.

268
Q

What factor most closely associates with nonunion following femoral neck orif?

A

Varus malreduction

(Thou shall not varus)

269
Q

Predictors of better outcomes in acetabular fractures

A

Early surgery: within 24 hours leads to: (Plaisier et al)

  • Earlier discharge home
  • Better functional outcomes
  • Lesser organ dysfunction

Early surgery

  • Higher rate of anatomic reduction
  • Lower rate of overall complication

Increased hip muscle strength

270
Q

Poor outcomes for operative management of calcaneus fractures

(10)

A

Smoker

Vasculopath

Age > 50

Obesity

Male (Women do better with surgery)

Manual labourer

Workers compensation

Bilateral fractures

Vasculopathies

Polytrauma

271
Q

First and last muscles to recover after radial nerve palsy (high)?

A
  1. brachioradialis
  2. extensor indicis
272
Q

In closed, extra-articular distal 1/3 tibia fractures with isolated tibial fixation, what are the outcomes of plate vs. IMN?

(wrt frx union and complications)

A

No difference in union

However higher soft tissue complications with plating

273
Q

What GI injury is associated with high energy iliac fractures?

A

Bowel entrapment

Look for free air on CT.

274
Q

In what direction do soft tissues fail in an elbow dislocation and what structure fails last?

A
  1. Lateral –> medial
  2. Anterior bundle of MCL
275
Q

Most common type of Monteggia fracture in kids and adults

A

Kids: type I: anterior radial head dislocation, apex anterior fracture

Adults: type 2: posterior radial head dislocation, apex posterior fracture

276
Q

Pipken 4 surgial approach

A

depends on frx pattern

e.g.

kocher-langenback + surgical hip dislocation

plan around acetabular frx pattern, and get access to the head

277
Q

2 associated injuries with posterior hip dislocation

A
  1. Thoracic aorta injury
  2. Proximal tib-fib dislocation
  3. acetabular frx
278
Q

What is significant about the deltoid branch of posterior tibial artery?

A

It may be the only remaining vasculature following displaced talar neck fracture.

279
Q

What position is the forearm splinted when repairing LCL?

A
  1. Pronation and 90 degrees flexion
  2. Supination if MCL also disrupted to avoid over tightening
280
Q

Is there a benefit to physical therapy after closed distal radius fracture?

A

No benefit over home exersizes

281
Q

What is the cutoff for good versus bad bone density when using combined cortical thickness?

A

4 mm

282
Q

What is the characteristic patient that will fail ORIF of Sanders 2-3 Calcaneus and require secondary fusion?

A

Male worker’s compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler angle less than 0 degrees

283
Q

What is the best treatment for a displaced olecrenon fracture in an elderly, low demand patient?

A

Conservative treatment with a splint at 90 degrees followed by early ROM is a good option with good long term results.

Another option is fragment excision and triceps advancement

(This is based on an orthobullets question)

284
Q

What is the utility of performing an AP xray with the leg 30 degrees IR prior to fixation of a distal femur fracture?

A

For determining ideal length of intercondylar screws

285
Q

Wound Healing: Transcutaneous oxygen tension should be greater than … ?

A

30 mmHg

286
Q

Acceptable reduction for tibial shaft fracture

A

1cm shortening

10 degrees AP angulation

10 degrees rotation

(10 ER, 5 IR according to some)

5 degrees varus/valgus angulation

50% overlap

287
Q

Three advantages of IM nailing over Ex Fix for open tibia fractures?

A
  1. decreased malalignment
  2. decreased secondary surgeries
  3. decreased time to weight bearing

(None of these effects are lost by reaming)

(no effect on union or infection)

288
Q

What type of hip fracture has the highest mortality at 1 year?

A

Intertrochanteric

289
Q

What are the 5 recommendations from the AAOS clinical practice guidelines for management of distal radius fractures?

A

1) surgical fixation for fractures that had a post-reduction radial shortening > 3 mm, dorsal tilt > 10 degrees and intra-articular step off > 2 mm,
2) rigid immobilization for non operative treatment,
3) use of a true lateral to assess the DRUJ,
4) beginning early range of motion of the wrist after stable fixation
5) use vitamin C to help mitigate intractable pain.

290
Q

Most common cause of death for:

  1. APC
  2. lateral compression
  3. vertical shear
A
  1. hemorrhage
  2. head injury
  3. hemorrhage
291
Q

Which Lauge-Hansen type is associated with anteromedial talar impaction?

A

Supination-Adduction

Consider anteromedial approach to address marginal impaction.

292
Q

Which acetabular fracture type causes dissociation of acetabulum from inominate bone and what is the characteristic plain film finding?

A

Associated both columns

Spur sign (Gull Wing sign is posterior wall)

293
Q

Where do you attache the triceps when doing an olecrenon fragment excision and triceps advancement?

A

Adjacent to articular surface

294
Q

Compared with traditional ORIF, MIPO of distal tibia fractures (extra-articular) have a higher rate of what?

A

Hardware irritation

All other outcomes were the same

295
Q

What direction will the glenoid displace in a floating shoulder?

A

Anteromedial

296
Q

Name 5 ways to decrease IM pressure during reaming

A

Slow advancement

Frequent pull backs to clear debris

(insert sex joke here)

Deeper flutes

distal venting

reaming by smaller increments (0.5mm rather than 1mm)

Viscosity of substance being reamed - therefore 1st pass is highest IM pressure and it becomes less after b/c of bleeding into canal (decreased viscosity)

297
Q

What are the 4 types of capitellum fractures?

A
  1. Coronal shear –> splint if undisplaced
  2. Shear of articular cartilage ( splint if undisplaced)
  3. Comminuted ( fragment excision versus TEA )
  4. Coronal shear with part of trochlea –> double arc on lateral, always needs to be fixed
298
Q

What does TUG predict at 2 years post surgery for femoral neck fracture?

A

Use of ambulatory aids

299
Q

What is the suggested pain control for pre-op hip fractures in the elderly?

A

regional anesthesia

JAAOS CPG

300
Q

How should the forearm be positioned during appraoch for a radial head repair and during plate placement?

A
  1. pronation to protect PIN
  2. neutral during plate placement
301
Q

Where do you place a proximal humerus locking plate and why?

A

Lateral to bicipital groove to avoid damaging biceps and ascending branch of anterior humeral circumflex artery

302
Q

Nerves at risk with anterior SI plating?

A

L4 and L5

303
Q

How do you evaluate for chronic pelvic ring instability?

A

Alternating single-leg-stance radiographs

304
Q

Most common complication of pediatric amputatations?

A

Overgrowth –> prevent by doing trans articular amps or using epiphyseal caps

305
Q

When does braking time return to normal after lower extremity long bone or acetabular fractures?

A

6 weeks after weight bearing

vs. 8-9 weeks post-ankle ORIF

306
Q

Compartments of forearm:

A
  1. volar
  2. dorsal
  3. mobile wad
307
Q

Indications for surgery following posterior sternoclavicular dislocation? (3)

A
  1. dysphagia
  2. shortness of breath
  3. vascular deficit

**Mechanism is usually anterior directed force on the shoulder***

308
Q

3 requirements for non-operative treatment of Femoral Head fracture?

A

Pipkin I or undisplaced Pipkin II with < 1mm step off

no interposed fragments

stable hip joint

309
Q

How long after ankle ORIF until proper braking response time is restored?

A

9 weeks

310
Q

Treatment options for end stage DRUJ arthrosis (5)?

A
  1. hemiresection or interposition arthroplasty of distal ulna
  2. Resection arthroplasty of distal ulna - matched or Darrach
  3. DRUJ fusion (Suave kapandji?)
  4. Ulnar head prostheitc replacement
  5. Creation of one-bone forearm
311
Q

Wound Healing: Lymphocyte count should be greater than … ?

A

1500 / mm^3

312
Q

Solve for x:

Base deficit should be between -x and +x

Lactate should be < x

A

x = 2

313
Q

Three primary stabilizers of DRUJ and what position is it most stable in?

A
  1. dorsal radioulnar ligaments
  2. volar radioulnar ligaments
  3. TFCC

More stable in supination (because usually ulna dorsally unstable. technically the carpus/radius is translated volar and the ulnar head stays put)

314
Q

Which of the following are now considered Gustillo 3 due to poorer prognosis?

  1. Close range shotgun injuries
  2. High energy GSW
  3. Presentation >24 hours
  4. Contaminated barnyard injuries
  5. Significant comminution or segmentation of fracture
A

All of them

315
Q

Name 3 treatment options of femoral neck nonunion

A

Valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy

free vascularized fibular graft

arthroplasty

316
Q

What is the classic malunion of a sub-troch fracture?

A

Varus-procurvatum

317
Q

What is the treatment for EPL rupture?

A

Transfer of EIP

318
Q

Why test serratus anterior (long thoracic nerve) and rhomboids (dorsal scapular nerve) during evaluation of brachial plexus injury?

A

Tells you whether a C5 injury is pre or post ganglionic

319
Q

What is a Marjolins ulcer?

A

Malignant transformation of chronic soft tissue trauma/ulcer- most commonly squamous cell CA

examples: DM ulcers, OM ulcers, burns, etc.

320
Q

After closed reduction of dislocated hip, what is the mandatory next step?

A

CT scan to look for:

femur fracture/femoral head fracture

acetabular fractures

incarcerated loose bodies

321
Q

Two benefits of a reamed nail and one reason you would use un-reamed nail.

A
  1. Quicker union
  2. Higher rate of union
  3. Bilateral pulmonary injuries
322
Q

What is a canale view for and how do you do it?

A
  1. Talar neck view
  2. Maximum equinus, 15 degrees pronated, Xray 75 degrees cephalad from horizontal
323
Q

What runs over anterior sacral ala joint?

A

L5 nerve.

At risk if SI screw too anterior.

Check this with lateral sacral x-ray.

On the true lateral projection, identify the S1 body and iliac cortical densities (ICDs) –> They should overlap

For SI joint fixation, the ISS is inserted perpendicular to the SI joint, and extends beyond the midline of the sacral body.

For sacral fractures, the ISS is horizontal, allowing it to be inserted to or through the contralateral SI joint, to optimize fixation on both sides of the sacrum.

324
Q

In capitellum fractures, where does the blood supply of the fragment come from?

(direction, not artery)

A

posterlaterally

325
Q

What returns to normal faster following successful treatment of Septic Arthritis: esr or crp?

A

CRP

ESR is slower to rise following infection and slower to normalize following treatment.

326
Q

LEAP said Return to work and Sickness impact profile were the same at 2 years after what type of operations?

A

Limb salvage or amputation

** Also amputation has higher lifetime cost because of prostheses. Both populations have issues with pain and disability in the long term. Educated, rich, caucasians do better in the long term.

327
Q

JAAOS CPG Distal radius fractues

What must you look for post-reduction?

A

DRUJ instability with a true lateral

328
Q

Risk factors for re-fracture of forearm or radius (adult)?

A
  1. plate removal before 18 months
  2. large frag plate
  3. comminuted fracture
  4. persistant radiolucency
329
Q

Transfusion threshold in postop hip fracture patients (elderly)?

A

STrong evidence supports a blood transfusion threshold of no higher than 8g/dL in asymptomatic postoperative hip fracture patients

330
Q

Roots associated with ERBs palsy (2)

A

C5-6

331
Q

What type of instability is associated with a torn LCL and fractured anteromedial coronoid facet?

A

Varus posteromedial rotatory instability

332
Q

What is the “double arc” sign and what xray is it best seen on?

A
  1. “double-arc sign” which represents the subchondral bone of the displaced capitellum and lateral trochlea ridge in a sheer type distal humerus fracture
  2. lateral of elbow
333
Q

List some factors that influence development of cartilage damage in the acute phase.

A

Direct damage to chondrocytes

Early apoptosis and necrosis

Release of pro-inflammatory cytokines

Release of reacitve oxygen species

Matrix disruption

JAAOS 2014

334
Q

What second dislocation is associated with subtalar dislocations?

A

Talonavicular

335
Q

Is a muzzle velocity of 2000 ft/second considered low or high velocity?

A

Low velocity.

High velocity is greater than 3000 ft/second

336
Q

Where does the LCL insert (LUCL)?

A

Crista supinatorus

337
Q

What is subtalar distraction block arthrodesis for?

What are the specific indications?

What are the 4 goals?

A

calcaneus malunion

Indications:

  • Chronic pain from subtalar joint
  • Incongruous subtalar joint/post-traumatic DJD
  • Loss of calcaneal height (decreased talocalcaneal angle or decreased talar declination angle)
  • Mechanical block to ankle dorsiflexion

4 Goals

Hindfoot height

Ankle impingement

Subfibular impingement

Subtalar arthritis

338
Q

What is the risk with a long plate for a tibia fracture?

A

SPN

(Hole 11-13)

339
Q

What is a clinical finding associated with pre-ganglionic injury at level of brachial plexus?

A

Horners syndrome

scapular winging

elevated hemidiaphragm

atrophy of paraspinals

many more

i.e. this is a root avulsion/injury so you also get loss of function of pre-clavicular plexus branches/structures

340
Q

A medial startpoint for IM nail of proximal tibia fracture will lead to:

A

Valgus malunion

341
Q

Goals of Calcaneus ORIF

A

Restore congruity of subtalar joint

Restor Bohler angle and calcaneal height

Restore width (of heel)

Correct varus alignment

342
Q

What does the Ideberg classification describe?

A

Glenoid fractures

343
Q

Start point for tibial nail

A

just medial to the lateral tibial spine on the AP radiograph

on anterior cortical downslope on lateral view

344
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic subtalar arthritis with loss of height and dorsiflexion following calcaneal fracture?

A

Subtalar distraction arthrodesis using a structural bone graft

345
Q

Surgial approach for Pipkin 1/2

A

Smith-Peterson

or

watson jones

± surgical dislocation (but this is a posterior approach)

346
Q

What is the interval for posteromedial incision to knee?

A

semimembranosus and medial head of gastrocnemius

347
Q

Do women have higher rates of clavicle non-unions when treated non-operatively?

A

Yes

348
Q

Pin care for ex-fix of hand?

A

Daily showers and dry dressings

349
Q

What is the drawback of using a strut allograft over vascularized fibula graft for a BBFA fracture with significant segmental bone loss?

A

Higher risk of infection

350
Q

How much of the proximal olecrenon can be excised prior to onset of instability?

A

50-70 %

351
Q

2 Options for placing pelvic ex-fix?

A

Multiple Iliac crest pins or single AIIS pins

Should be done before laparatomy – this is controversial. AO advanced said do it first because laparotomy can cause loss of tamponade if done before ex-fix. Other option is C-Clamp but this will get in the way of posterior fixation.

352
Q

If you use a LISS plate for a tibia fracture, what screw holes are typically close to SPN?

A

11-13

so do these open rather than perc.

353
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for loss of reduction following posterior pelvic ring fixation? (fracture pattern)

A

Vertical sacral fracture

354
Q

3 ways to judge reduction in femoral neck fractures

A

Shenton’s line

Lowell’s alignment theory:

  • S shaped head/neck junction on all views

Garden index

  • angle of compression trabeculae to femoral shaft on AP should be 160
  • angle of compression trabeculae to femoral shaft on lateral should be 180

Femoral neck shaft angle

355
Q

Wound Healing: Albumin should be greater than … ?

A

3.0 g/dL

356
Q

What were you doing when you injured the FHL in calc ORIF?

A

Putting screws that were too long into the constant (superomedial) fragment

(I was watching Dr. Liew re-do some screws the fellow put in)

357
Q

Injuries associated with GSW to hip? (3 in order)

A

bowel perforation > vascular injury > urogenital injuries

358
Q

Three indications for using a plate to fix a femur fracture and three reasons it is not as good as a nail.

A

Indications: (there are tons, here are some)

  1. ipsilateral neck fracture requiring screw fixation
  2. fracture at distal metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction (depends on fracture pattern. Can nail a lot of these too)
  3. inability to access medullary canal

Drawbacks:

  1. Higher nonunion
  2. Higher malunion
  3. Higher hardware complications

(there are pros as well; its not all bad)

359
Q

In distal aspect of anterolateral approach to humerus what two muscles will radial nerve be found between?

A

Brachialis and brachioradialis

360
Q

What are three treatments for FES?

A

1) PPV
2) Fluids
3) Prompt fixation of long bone fractures

361
Q

How to view entry point for SI screw?

A

lateral sacral view and pelvic outlet/inlet views

362
Q

Roof-arc angle is not helpful in what kind of acetabular fracture?

A

ABC

Posterior wall

363
Q

What is primary complciation of Chopart amputation and how to avoid?

A
  1. equinus
  2. TAL and TA to talar neck
364
Q

What is proper technique for syndesmotic screw?

A

One or two cortical screw(s) 2-4 cm above joint, angled posterior to anterior 20-30 degrees

365
Q

Blocks to reduction of medial & lateral subtalar dislocations

A

Medial:

  • peroneal tendons
  • extensor digitorum brevis
  • talonavicular joint capsule

Lateral

  • posterior tibialis tendon
  • flexor hallucis longus
  • flexor digitorum longus
  • (and less commonly TN joint capsule too if head buttonholes thru)

Lateral dislocation blocked by medial structures and vice versa b/c talar head is pointed that way

366
Q

Judet Approach:

  1. main indication
  2. interval
  3. internervous plane
A
  1. glenoid/scapular neck fractures
  2. infraspinatus and teres minor
  3. suprascapular nerve and axillary nerve
367
Q

What is the most common variant of Hoffa fracture?

A

lateral condyle coronal fragment

368
Q

Typical treatment for Sanders IV?

A

Primary subtalar fusion

369
Q

What is the effect of reaming on vascularity surrounding soft tissues?

A

Increaes vascularity of surrounding soft tissues

Decreases vascularity of bone

JAAOS 2007 (Bong et al)

370
Q

What fracture pattern is most at risk for spontaneous rupture of EPL?

A

UNDISPLACED distal radius fractures

371
Q

How do you tell that you have a perfect AP of the knee?

A

Fibular bisector

Lateral cortex of tibia bisects fibula

372
Q

Does reaming with touriquet on result in thermal necrosis?

A

No

373
Q

Acetabular fractures: Indications for non-op management

A

Intact 10mm CT subchondral arc

intact 45 degree roof arc angle on all 3 views

<20% posterior wall frx (>40%=fix, 20-40 is grey zone)

Femoral head congruent with the acetabular roof on all 3 views

374
Q

Mangement of tetanus prophylaxis?

A

5-10 years since last dose:

vaccine booster (toxoid)

>10 years since last dose:

vaccine booster (toxoid)

Not immunized or uncertain

clean, minor wound: toxoid

all other wounds: toxoid and Ig

*Only time you give Ig is not immunized and dirty wound

375
Q

Wound Healing: Toe pressure should be greater than … ?

A

40 mmHg

376
Q

Common malreduction/malunion of proximal tibia fracture

A

Procurvatum (extensor mechanism of knee)

Valgus (pes)

377
Q

What does braking time return to normal after plafond ORIF?

A

8-9 weeks after surgery

vs. 6 weeks after weight bearing for LE long bone fractures or pelvic ORIF

378
Q

With what movements are hip joint reactive forces highest and lowest?

A

Highest = rising from chair on affected leg

Lowest = Passive abduction and TTWB

379
Q

Blocks to reduction of medial subtalar dislocation:

A

LATERAL structures

  1. peroneal tendons
  2. extensor digitorum brevis
  3. talonavic joint capsule (this is a medial structure but talar head can buttonhole thru it in medial dislocation)
  4. peroneal nv bundle
380
Q

Complications with flail chest managed non-op? (6)

A

Prolonged ventilator support

pneumonia

respiratory difficulties

Lengthy stays in ICU

Overall mortality rate of 33%

381
Q

What are 4 benefits of fixing femur fractures within 24 hours?

A

decreased pulmonary complications (ARDS)

decreased thromboembolic events

improved rehabilitation

decreased length of stay and cost of hospitalization

382
Q

Risk factors for nonunion of femoral neck ORIF

A
  • Non-anatomic Reduction – especially VARUS
  • Posterior Comminution
  • High Shear Angle(pauwel’s angle)
  • Poor Implant positioning – TAD
  • High Energy Injury with significant fracture displacement

3. OrthoBullets (General Knowledge) (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions