Trauma Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

What is the leading cause of death in trauma patients?

A
#1 hemorrhage shock
#2 TBI
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2
Q

What is the “lethal triad” of trauma?

A
  • Acidosis, Hypothermia, coagulopathy

- Each one has negative effect on the other

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3
Q

What is the purpose of a ATLS trauma assessment?

A

Provides a logical and sequential treatment strategy for rapidly assessing the patient

Basically, it is to ensure a provider does not miss a injury by being distracted by a larger injury (ex. not realizing a patient has a pneumothorax because they arrived with a traumatic leg amputation)

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4
Q

Proper trauma assessment is made up of a primary and secondary survey? Wha is included in the primary survey?

A

ABCDE

Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Disability
Exposure (get the patient trauma naked)
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5
Q

What is the goal of primary survey?

A

To identify and rapidly manage life-threatening conditions or injuries

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6
Q

What is involved in the secondary survey?

A

Complete head-to-toe assessment, full set of vitals, medical history and current meds

It is imperative to remain vigilant during a secondary survey to determine if any patient injuries may have been missed during the primary survey

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7
Q

What is historically worse, blunt or penetrating trauma? Why so? Give examples of each

A
  • Blunt, b/c more energy is required to disrupt an organ

Blunt: Falls, Assaults, MVA’s
- Direct impact, deceleration, continuous pressure, shearing, and rotary forces

Penetrating: GSW, stab wounds

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8
Q

What is the standard induction method for trauma patients?

A

RSI with cricoid pressure

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9
Q

What is associated with the highest overall rate of successful airway management and provides the greatest possibility for rapidly securing the airway?

A

Muscle relaxation

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10
Q

What is greatest difference between routine induction and RSI?

A

The use of a muscle relaxant before knowing whether the patient can be mask ventilated

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11
Q

If a trauma patient needs an airway device, what should be used?

A
  • ETT only!!!
  • If a patient arrives via EMS with a airway adjunct or supraglottic airway in place, switch it out to an ETT
  • If a patient arrives via EMS with a ETT in place, it is imperative to check that it is working properly and in the right location. Confirm with ETCO2, stethoscope, and CXR
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12
Q

What type of trauma is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality among all age groups?

A

Blunt abdominal trauma

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13
Q

What is major concern with administering induction agents in a trauma patient?

A

The dose-dependent decrease in BP assoc. with the drug coupled with the already hypotensive trauma patient

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14
Q

The use of apneic ventilation is based on which gas law?

A
  • Boyles
  • Gas leaves the facemark, fills the lungs, and exchanges in the lungs based upon the concentration gradient of gases in alveoli
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15
Q

Has fiberoptic intubation proven to be superior to DL in trauma patients?

A

No

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16
Q

What 2 things are involved in the airway management of an “emergent” cervical spine injury?

A

Manual In-line Stabilization (MILS)

RSI

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17
Q

What is the most common lung injury ?

A

Pulmonary contusion

Mostly associated with blunt thoracic trauma

These are injuries to the alveoli without gross disruption to the pulmonary architecture

Initially it is a “bruised” lung, but it typically progresses to much larger swelling and leads to ARDS

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18
Q

How should ARDS be managed?

A
  • Low TV
  • Plateau pressures of less than 32 cm H2O
  • Permissive hypercapnia
  • Conservative fluid strategies
  • Prone positioning
  • NMB’s
  • ECMO
  • Do not increase FiO2 to increase low SaO2 levels (can have toxic effects, worsen gas exchange)
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19
Q

Which paralytic is the drug of choice in RSI trauma indications?

A

Succinylcholine

Caution in patients with neurological injuries or burns. It is safe to administer in the first 24 hours after injury, but can cause lethal hyperkalemia 24-48 hrs after injury

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20
Q

What 3 types of procedures have the highest incidence of recall?

A
  • CABG (#1)
  • OB
  • Trauma
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21
Q

What are the 5 criteria points for a potential C-spine injury?

A
  • neck pain
  • severe distracting pain
  • any neurological signs and symptoms
  • intoxication (always check for a C-spine injury)
  • loss of consciousness at the scene
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22
Q

What is the best way to intubate a trauma patient with c-spine injury?

A

Manual In-Line Stabilization (MILS)

This is when some elsse secures the c-spine with their hands while you intubate

Be sure to document to that the head was held in neural portion with MILS so you CYA

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23
Q

T/F

Most intubations in a trauma patient happen pre-hospital by EMS

A

True

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24
Q

What info do you want to obtain if a patient arrives with a c-collar on ?

A
  • Any neurological deficits
  • Why was the c-collar placed
  • Was a cercival CT scan done and what were the results
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25
T/F You can use a glide scope to intubate a patient with a suspected c-spine injury
True
26
Should you avoid N2O in trauma patients? Why?
Yes Tends to accumulate in closed spaces (pneumothorax, pneumocephalus, pneumoperitoneum)
27
T/F Succinylcholine can increase serum potassium levels if administered 24 hours AFTER a burn, spinal cord or crush injury.
True
28
What acid-base disturbance is associated with massive transfusions?
Metabolic alkalosis
29
When would you see cardiac depression caused by hypocalcemia from a massive transfusion?
If rate of transfusion exceeds 1 unit every 5 minutes
30
Signs of hemolytic transfusion reaction in anesthetized patient?
- Increased temp - Tachycardia - Hypotension - Hemoglobinuria - Oozing at surgical field
31
How does hypothermia contribute to trauma death?
- Worsens acidosis - Coagulopathies (platelet sequestration and red blood cell deformities) - Risking myocardial function ALL FLUIDS IN TRAUMA NEED TO BE WARMED
32
What is the most common cause of bleeding after a massive transfusion?
Dilutional thrombocytopenia
33
What is the half-life of crystalloids?
2-30 mins
34
What is the half-life of colloids?
3-6 hrs
35
What is benefit of LR over NSS in traumas?
LR less likely to cause hyperkalemic acidosis
36
What is a drawback to LR in traumas?
Contains Ca+, so can't use it to transfuse blood
37
Can you administer dextrose solutions in trauma patients?
No, can exacerbate ischemic brain damage/swelling
38
LR is slightly _____ and with large volumes can aggravate cerebral edema
hypotonic
39
Which two colloids can cause coagulopathy?
- Dextran | - Hetastarch
40
What blood type is typically given in emergent massive transfusions?
O negative (universal donor)
41
Factor VIII can decrease by ____ after two days in storage.
50%
42
T/F **Dilutional thrombocytopenia quickly develops when a patient is massively transfused.
True ** Jerry said to know this
43
Do hypovolemic patients need more of less anesthetics? Why?
Less - b/c alveolar concentration is increased in shock patients r/t a decrease in cardiac output and increased ventilation - So more is being pumped into lungs and less blood flow to remove it from the alveoli - Smaller intravascular volume so the intravenous anesthetics are exaggerated
44
What is the best induction agent for traumas?
ketamine
45
When should you not use ketamine in a trauma?
TBI's - can increase ICP
46
Which induction agent is the most hemodynamically stabl?
Etomidate According to Nagelhout, it should not be used b/c of adrenal suppression but I've always seen it used without any problems
47
What can cause hematuria in a trauma patient?
Injury to the kidneys or lower urinary tract
48
Cervical spine injury occurs in ___ of all trauma patients
2%
49
For airway management, trauma patients are always at risk for ____
aspiration
50
What is the definition of shock?
Inadequate vital organ perfusion and o2 delivery r/t circulatory failure
51
What should be considered in a trauma patient who suffered LOC?
TBI
52
What is good tool to asses neurocognitive function of a trauma patient?
GCS ("less than 8, intubate")
53
Signs of a TBI
- Restlessness - Convulsions - Cranial nerve dysfunction (non reactive pupils)
54
3 components of Cushing's Triad
- Hypertension - Bradycardia - Respiratory disturbances These are very late signs and means that the brain is herniating into foramen magnum
55
What should you avoid giving if a neuro exam is going to be done?
- Sedatives or analgesics
56
How do anticholinergics affect neurons exams?
Induce pupillary dialtion - Suggamedex is good reversal agent to prevent this from happening
57
What is Beck's Triad? What does it indicate?
- Neck vein distension (1st sign) - Hypotension - Muffled heart tones - Indicates cardiac tamponade
58
Which induction agent do you not want to give to trauma patient with cardiac tamponade?
Propofol
59
What is pulsus paradoxes?
> 10mmHg decline in BP during spontaneous ventilation Indicates cardiac tamponade
60
What do you need to watch for if a percardial centesis is done to relieve cardiac tamponade?
Watch for PVC's on EKG monitor Occurs when the myocardium is penetrated
61
What type of surgery is needed for abdominal trauma?
Ex-lap
62
What do you need to expect when the adbomen is opened up during a ex-lap?
Hypotension. All the blood that accumulated in the peritoneum spills out
63
What type of injuries are associated with abdominal trauma?
- Vascular - Hepatic - Splenic - Renal (be mindful of hyperkalemia from massive transfusions) - Pelvis
64
What two ortho injuries are associated with large blood loss?
- Pelvic injuries | - Femur fractures (Up to 3 units of blood can accumulate in the upper leg)
65
What is major complication that can occur with fractures?
Fat emboli
66
What lab changes are associated with fat emboli?
- Elevation of serum lipase - Fat in urine - Thrombocytopenia
67
Why are spinal/regional blocks good for extremity reattachments?
They increase blood flow Watch out for hypotension which decreases blood flow
68
If a general anesthetic is used for extremity reattachment, what are two anesthetic considerations?
- Keep warm (GA's inhibit ability to auto regulate temp and shiver) - Avoid shivering on emergence to help reperfussion
69
T/F Never do a nasal intubation or NGT with Left fracture II or III
True
70
What other type of injury do you want to avoid nasal intubation or NGT's?
Basilar skull fractures
71
What is the hallmark sign of a basilar skull fracture?
Ecchymosis around periorbital areas aka "Raccoon eyes"
72
How is intracranial hypertension controlled?
- Fluid restrictions - Diuretics (Mannitol) - Hypocapnia (PaCO2 26-30 mmHg) Increased resp rate decreases CO2, which leads to decreased cerebral blood flow (vasoconstriction)
73
What are two induction agents that be given to minimize hypertension and tachycardia if a pt has increased ICP?
- Lidocaine | - Fentanyl
74
Which induction agent increaes ICP?
ketamine
75
Mild ____ can assist saving brain tissue in a TBI
hypothermia
76
What levels are associated with apnea in a c-spine injury?
C3-C5 | (3,4,5 keeps the diaphragm alive)
77
How will SC injuries to T1-T4 manifest?
bradycardia
78
Explain spinal shock associated with a high SC injury
- Vessels lose their sympathetic tone and vasodilator - Hypotension - Bradycardia - Hypothermia - extremities are warm to touch - Areflexia - GI atony
79
What is autonomic reflexia?
- Reaction of the autonomic (involuntary) nervous system to overstimulation - This reaction may include: - HTN - Change in heart rate - Skin color changes (paleness, redness, blue-grey skin color - Excessive sweating.
80
When will you see automonic reflexia occur? Why is this important for anesthetic considerations?
- Usually after 48hrs | - It is ok to give succinylcholine before it sets in
81
Two types o pneumothorax
Simple and Tension
82
What is the anatomical location for a chest tube?
4th or 5th IC space, mid-axillary line
83
What is the hallmark sign of a tension pneumothorax?
Tracheal deviation to opposite side Air is trapped, increases with inspiration and DOES NOT escape with expiration
84
Can a simple pneumothorax turn into a tension pneumothorax?
Yes, with PPV (ambu-bag or ventilator)
85
What is the immediate, emergent treatment for a tensions pneumothorax?
Needle decompression - Need a long 14g IV - Site for insertion is 2nd IC space, mid-clavicullary line If this is needed, pt will need a chest tube ASAP
86
What airway equipment is needed for a hemothorax?
Doube Lumen Tube (DLT) To isolate bleeding lung from healthy lung
87
Is ARDS an immediate or delayed response to trauma?
Delayed
88
What are causes of ARDS in trauma?
- Sepsis - Thoracic injury (mainly from pulmonary contusions) - Aspiration - Head injury - Fat emboli - Massive transfusion (TRALI)
89
If a patient has ARDS, how will this manifest in the OR? How will this impact your anesthetic plan?
High pressure alarms - Need better ventilator with higher FGF's r/t their poor lung compliance - Need higher airway pressures
90
Classic triad of symptoms for spinal shock
- Bradycardia - Hypotension - Hypothermia