Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pestana > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

subcutaneous emphysema = ?

A

trapped air or gas in layer under the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

trapped air or gas in layer under the skin =?

A

subcutaneous emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pt unconscious is what on GCS?

A

GCS of 8 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

airway should be secured when (5)?

A
  • pt is unconscious (GCS 8 or less)
  • breathing is noisy or gurgly
  • severe inhalation injury
  • if pt needs a respirator
  • B4 it becomes critical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pt w/ cervical spine injury + noisy breathing – what do you do first?

A

Secure airway first, then deal w/ cervical spine injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can orotracheal tube be inserted if pt has cervical spine injury?

A

Yes as long as can be done w/ head secured and not moved.

Another option is nasotracheal tube over a fiber optic bronchoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do you use a nasotracheal tube over a fiber optic bronchoscope?

A

MANDATORY: when securing airway if there is subQ emphysema in the neck

Can be done for pts w/ cervical spine injury as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a sign of major traumatic disruption of the tracheobronchial tree?

A

SubQ emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SubQ emphysema is a sign of what?

A

major traumatic disruption of the tracheobronchial tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Need airway but intubation not possible?! what next?

A

cricothyroidotomy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why reluctant to do cricothyroidotomy before age 12?

A

bc of potential need for future laryngeal reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Satisfactory breathing or airway =?

A

Breathing: breath sounds bilaterally + good pulse ox
Airway: conscious, speaking w/ normal tone of voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clinical signs of shock

A
  • low BP (
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Main 3 causes of shock in trauma setting?

A

1) Bleeding (hypovolemic-hemorrhagic shock most common)
2) pericardial tamponade
3) tension pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

maj separator b/t shock caused by bleeding vs pericardial tamponade or tension pneumo?

A

Bleeding: Central venous pressure low –> veins flat

Peri/pneumo: CVP high (big distended head and neck veins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

shock caused by pericardial tamponade –> what signs?

A
  • chest trauma
  • CVP high (big distended head and neck veins)
  • NO resp distress (diff from tension pneumo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

shock caused by tension pneumo –> what signs?

A
  • chest trauma
  • CVP high (big distended head and neck veins)
  • Resp distress (diff from pericardial tamponade) –> one side of chest has no breath sounds and is hyperresonant to percussion
  • mediastinum displaced to opp side of pneumo (tracheal deviation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

maj separator b/t shock caused by pericardial tamponade vs tension pneumo?

A

Pericardial tamp: NO RESP DISTRESS

Pneumo: resp distress w/ dec breath sounds 1 side + hyperresonant to percusion + tracheal deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Initial treatment for hemorrhagic shock w/ penetrating injuries ?

A

Surgical intervention to stop bleeding - since they are going to need surgery anyway, THEN volume replace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hemorrhagic shock initial treatment usually?

A

Volume replace!!!!
VR w/ about 2L of Ringer lactate w/o sugar THEN PRBC until urinary output reaches 0.5 to 2mL/kg/h - while not exceeding CVP of 15mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hemorrhagic shock, what do you volume replace w/ first fluids or PRBC?

A

FLUIDS! about 2L of Ringer lactate w/o sugar then PBRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In hemorrhagic shock volume replace w/ fluids and blood until what?

A

until urinary output reaches 0.5 - 2mL/kg/h – w/o exceeding CP of 15mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In hemorrhagic shock volume replace w/ fluids and blood conscious not to exceed what?

A

CVP of 15mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the preferred route of fluid resuscitation in the trauma setting?

A

2 peripheral IV lines - 16 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If can’t get peripheral IV lines in what are alternatives for adults in trauma setting?

A
  • percutaneous femoral vein catheter

- saphenous vein cut downs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If can’t get peripheral IV lines in what are alternatives for Children

A

Intraosseus cannulation of the proximal tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What imaging to diagnosis pericardial tamponade is ordered?

A

SONOGRAM! not xrays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Management of pericardial tamponade based on?

A

clinical diagnosis! then prompt evacuation of pericardial sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ways to treat pericardial tamponade?

A
  • pericardiocentesis
  • tube
  • pericardial window
  • open thoracotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is helpful to do while evacuation of pericardial sac in treatment of pericardial tamponade is ocurring?

A

Fluid and blood administration!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is volume replacing w/ fluid and blood during evacuation of pericardial sac in treatment of pericardial tamponade helpful or hurtful?

A

HELPful!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of tension pneumothorax based on?

A

clinical diagnosis! do NOT wait on xrays or blood gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treat tension pneumo by?

A
  • Needle thoracostomy

- Chest tube placement - will take more time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Intrinsic cardiogenic shock caused by?

A

myocardial damage (massive MI or fulminating myocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cardiogenic shock will present w/ high or low CVP?

A

High!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment of cardiogenic shock?

A

circulatory support!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

volume resus in cardiogenic shock?

A

NO! no additional fluid or blood administration or could be lethal!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is vasomotor shock seen?

A
  • anaphylatic reactions
  • high spinal cord transections
  • high spinal anesthetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

anaphylatic rxn can lead to what type of shock?

A

vasomotor shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

high spinal cord transections can lead to what type of shock?

A

vasomotor shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vasomotor shock –> what symptoms/what pt look like?

A

circulatory collapse in flushed “pink and warm” pt. CVP low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

vasomotor shock has high or low CVP?

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is main treatment of vasomotor shock?

A

pharm treatment to restore peripheral resistance (vassopressors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Will additional fluids help or hurt in vasomotor shock?

A

HELP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

list shocks that have low CVP (2)

A

1) hemorrhagic

2) vasomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

list shock types/causes of shock that have high CVP (3)

A

1) tension pneumo
2) pericardial tamponade
3) cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

penetrating head trauma requires?

A

surgical intervention and repair of the damage

Skull fractures sustained from penetrating trauma are considered open and patients are also treated with IV antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

linear skull fracture treatment?

A

Closed (no overlying wound) –> leave alone
Open fractures –> wound closure
Comminuted or depressed –> surgically treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

linear skull fracture is?

A

A linear skull fracture is a single fracture that most often extends through the entire thickness of the calvarium. They occur most often in the temporoparietal, frontal, and occipital regions. very rarely if vessels damaged –> hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Depressed skull fracture is?

A

Depressed skull fractures occur when trauma of significant force drives a segment of the skull below the level of the adjacent skull. These fractures often involve injury to the brain parenchyma and place patients at significant risk for central nervous system infection, seizures, and death if not identified early and managed appropriately (ie surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Open skull fracture means?

A

Open (or compound) skull fractures exist when a scalp laceration lies over or adjacent to the fracture site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Closed skull fracture means?

A

Closed (or simple) skull fractures exist when no scalp laceration is present over or adjacent to the fracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pt w/ head trauma and is now unconscious –> what imaging study and looking for what?

A

CT head looking for intracranial hematomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pt w/ head trauma and has become unconscious –> CT scan which is neg for intracranial hematoma. Pt apepars neurologically intact. Next steps?

A

Pt can go home if family will wake them up frequently during next 24 hrs to make sure not going into coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Signs of fracture affecting the base of the skull:?

A
  • Raccoon eyes
  • rhinorrhea
  • otorrhea
  • ecchymosis behind the ear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pt w/ raccoon eyes, rhinorrhea, otorrhea, and ecchymosis behind the ear is suggestive of?

A

fracture affecting the base of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

imaging and treatment of pts w/ fracture affecting base of skull?

A
  • CT scan to assess head AND cervical spine

- Expectant management (watchful waiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what do you AVOID in pts w/ fracture affecting base of the skull?

A

nasal endotracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

neurological damage from trauma can be caused by 3 components: ?

A

1) initial blow
2) subsequent dev of a hematoma that displaces midline structures
3) later dev increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Acute epidural hematoma classic sequence = ?(6)

A

1) trauma (often modest trauma to side of head)
2) unconsciousness
3) lucid interval (asymp –> return to activity)
4) gradual lapse into coma
5) fixed dilated pupil (90% on side of hematoma)
6) contralateral hemiparesis w/ decerebrate posture*

*Decerebrate posture is an abnormal body posture that involves the arms and legs being held straight out, the toes being pointed downward, and the head and neck being arched backward. The muscles are tightened and held rigidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

CT scan of acute epidural hematoma looks like?

A

biconvex, lens-shaped hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

biconvex, lens-shape image on head CT = ?

A

epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

treatment for epidural hematoma?

A

emergency craniotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Diff b/t epidural and subdural hematomas

A

1) CT scan: epi: biconvex shape, sub: screscent shape
2) Severity: sub»>epi
3) Epi has lucid period, none in sub

65
Q

Acute subdural hematoma seen on CT looks like?

A

Semilunar, crescent shaped hematoma

66
Q

Semilunar crescent shaped hematoma = ?

A

subdural hematoma

67
Q

subdural hematoma w/ midline structures deviation –> treatment? prognosis?

A

Treat w/ craniotomy, but prognosis is still bad

68
Q

subdural hematoma w/ NO midline deviation what do you do?

A
  • ICP monitoring
  • elevate head
  • Hyperventilate
  • Avoid fluid overload
  • Give mannitol or furosemide –> but do not diurese to point of lowering systemic arterial pressure
69
Q

What is the main focus of treatment of subdural hematoma w/ no midline deviation?

A

Focus: prevent further damage by decreasing/stop inc of ICP

70
Q

When do you hyperventilate a pt w/ a subdural hematoma?

A

Signs of herniation

71
Q

What is the hyperventilation goal for a pt w/ a subdural hematoma and sign of herniation?

A

PCO2 of 35mmHg

72
Q

Additional options used to decrease O2 demand for pts w/ subdural hematoma =? (2)

A

1) Hypothermia (main rec)

2) Sedation bc dec brain activity (previously used, not as common)

73
Q

CT scan shows what w/ diffuse axonal injury?

A

diffuse blurring of the gray-white matter interface and multiple small punctate hemorrhages

74
Q

diffuse axonal injury indicated w/o hematoma –> Treatment?

A

NO SURGERY! Focus on preventing further damage from ICP.

75
Q

Chronic subdural hematoma seen w/ what populations?

A
  • very old

- severe alcoholics

76
Q

Pathophysiology chronic subdural hematoma

A

shrunken brain rattled around head –> minor trauma –> tearing venous sinuses –> over several days or wks mental func dec as hematoma forms

77
Q

duration of chronic subdural hematoma?

A

mental func will deteriorate over several days to week while hematoma forms

78
Q

Chronic subdural hematoma diagnosed by?

A

CT scan

79
Q

Treatment of chronic subdural hematoma?

A

Surgical evacuation

80
Q

Chronic subdural hematoma symptoms

A

The insidious onset of headaches, light-headedness, cognitive impairment, apathy, somnolence, and occasionally seizures, may occur as a consequence of chronic SDH, and symptoms may not become evident until weeks after the initial injury.

81
Q

Imaging on CT differences b/t acute vs chronic subdural hematoma

A

Acute: high-density crescentic collection across the hemispheric convexity

Subacute/Chronic: sodense or hypodense crescent-shaped lesions that deform the surface of the brain.

82
Q

Can hypovolemic shock occur from intracranial bleeding?

A

NOOOOOOO!

There isn’t enough space in the head for the amt of blood loss necessary for shock –> look for another source

83
Q

What cases of penetrating neck trauma lead to surgical exploration?

A
  • expanding hematoma
  • deteriorating vital signs
  • clear signs of esophageal or tracheal injury (coughing/spitting up blood)
84
Q

zone 1/base of neck has what anatomical boundaries?

A

sternal notch and clavicles to the cricoid cartilage

85
Q

zone 2/middle of neck has what anatomical boundaries?

Contains what major items?

A

Cricoid cartilage to the angle of the mandible

  • jugular veins
  • vertebral and common carotid arteries
  • internal and external branches of the carotid arteries
  • trachea
  • esophagus,
  • larynx
  • spinal cord
86
Q

arteriography ? ?

A

Angiography, or arteriography, is an x-ray examination of the arteries, which are blood vessels. To make the arteries visible on x-ray, a type of dye called “contrast” is injected.

87
Q

zone 3/upper neck has what anatomical boundaries?

Contains what major items?

A

Region above the angle of the mandible up to the base of the skull

  • pharynx
  • jugular veins
  • vertebral arteries
  • distal portion of the internal carotid arteries
88
Q

gunshot wound to each of 3 diff zones has what treatments?

A

USUALLY SELECTIVE APPROACHES - debatable

Zone 3/upper = arteriographic diagnosis and management

Zone 2/mid = toss up b/t selective and surgical exploration

Zone 1/base = arteriography, esophagogram, esophagoscopy, and bronchoscopy b4 surgery

89
Q

Stab wound to upper and middle zone in asymptomatic pt treated by?

A

observation

90
Q

What must do if pt w/ severe blunt trauma to neck?

A

ascertain integrity of cervical spine!

91
Q

Who gets CT scans post severe blunt trauma to neck?

A
  • pt w/ neurological deficits

- neurologically intact pt w/ pain to local palpation over cervical spine

92
Q

In ED setting best radiographic way to assess status of cervical spine is?

A

CT scan

93
Q

Signs of complete spinal cord transection?

A

nothing works (sensory or motor) below site/lesion

94
Q

Hemisection of spinal cord aka ?

A

Brown-Sequard

95
Q

brown-sequard aka =?

A

Hemisection of spinal cord

96
Q

Typical cause of hemisection of spinal cord?

A

Clean-cut injury (ie knife blade)

97
Q

Hemisection of spinal cord has what symptoms?

A

Paralysis and loss of proprioception DISTAL to injury on the INJURED SIDE.

Loss of pain perception DISTAL to injury on CONTRALATERAL SIDE.

98
Q

Anterior cord syndrome seen when?

A

Typically seen in BURST FRACTURES of vertebral bodies

99
Q

Anterior cord syndrome results in?

A

Loss of motor func, loss of pain, loss of temp sens on BOTH SIDES DISTAL to injury

Vibration and proprioception PRESERVED.

100
Q

Loss of motor func, loss of pain, loss of temp sens on BOTH SIDES DISTAL to injury

Vibration and proprioception PRESERVED.

A

Anterior cord syndrome

101
Q

Paralysis and loss of proprioception DISTAL to injury on the INJURED SIDE.

Loss of pain perception DISTAL to injury on CONTRALATERAL SIDE.

A

Hemisection of spinal cord

102
Q

BURST FRACTURES of vertebral bodies –>?

A

Anterior cord syndrome

103
Q

Clean-cut injury (ie knife blade) to back –>?

A

hemisection of spinal cord

104
Q

Main population that central cord syndrome occurs in?

A

Elderly

105
Q

central cord syndrome caused by

A

Forced hyperextension of the neck (ie rear-end collision)

106
Q

Elderly man is rear-ended, likely spinal cord injury is?

A

Central cord syndrome

107
Q

Presentation of central cord syndrome?

A

Paralysis and burning pain in UPPER EXTREMITIES

Most func intact in lower extremities

108
Q

Elderly man is rear-ended, has paralysis and burning pain in upper extremities, which likely spinal cord injury is this?

A

Central cord syndrome

109
Q

Best diagnosis readiographic study for spinal cord injury?

A

MRI

110
Q

What do some consider helpful immediately after spinal cord injury?

A

High-dose corticosteroids

111
Q

Rib fracture treatment?

A

Nerve block and epidural catheter

112
Q

Why is pain control in setting of rib fracture esp in elderly important?

A

B/c can cause following: PAIN –> hypOventilation –> atelectasis –> PNA (which can kill the elderly!)

113
Q

Plain pneumothorax results from?

A

Penetrating trauma to chest

114
Q

Clinical presentation of plain pneumothorax?

A
  • Moderate SOB
  • dec/no breath sounds unilaterally
  • Hyperresonant to percussion on side w/o breath sounds
115
Q

Treatment of plain pneumothorax?

A

Get chest x ray, place chest tube (upper, anterior), connect to underwater seal

116
Q

Maj diff b/t clinical presentation of pneumothorax and hemothorax?

A

Hemothorax will be DULL to percussion on side of injury, pneumothorax will be HYPERRESONANT

117
Q

Difference in placement of chest tube in pneumohorax vs hemothorax?

A

Pneumo - high and anterior placement

hemothorax - low

118
Q

Blood needs to be evacuated from a hemothorax to avoid what developing?

A

Empyema

119
Q

What is a sign surgery is needed post chest tube placement in hemothorax setting?

A

1) recover 1500mL or more when chest tub inserted

2) Collecting > 600mL in drainage over 6hrs

120
Q

Hemothorax + chest tube, is surgery necessary?

A

Usually no, bc bleeding from lung which will stop on own

Rare cases from systemic vessel (ie intercostal artery) - thoracotomy may be needed

Need surgery when:

1) recover 1500mL or more when chest tub inserted
2) Collecting > 600mL in drainage over 6hrs

121
Q

thoractomy = ?

A

A thoracotomy is an incision into the pleural space of the chest.

122
Q

Sucking chest wound =?

A

Flap that sucks air IN w/ INSPIRATION and CLOSES during EXPIRATION

123
Q

Sucking chest wound untreated –> ?

A

tension pneumothorax

124
Q

Treat sucking chest wound w/?

A

Occlusive dressing that allows air out (taped on 3 sides) but not in.

125
Q

Flail chest =?

A

Seen w/ multiple rib fractures that allow a segment of the chest wall to cave in during INSPIRATIon and bulge out during EXPIRATIOn (paradoxic breathing)

126
Q

flail chest –> ?

A

chest contusion

bad b/c contused lung very sensitive to fluid overload

127
Q

Medical aspect of treatment of flail chest?

A

fluid restrict and use diuretics - b/c contused lung of results and is sensitive to fluid overload

128
Q

what labs need to be monitored in flail chest?

A

blood gases - bc pulm dysfunction often dev

129
Q

if respirator needed, what is different in pt w/ flail chest?

A

need BILATERAL CHEST TUBES to prevent tension pneumothorax dev

130
Q

If pt has flail chest, must also check for what?

A

Traumatic transection of the aorta

131
Q

Pulmonary contusion will cause what on labs and xray?

A

Deteriorating blood gases

“white out” of lungs on CXR

132
Q

Pulm contusion time course?

A

Can appear immediately or up to 48 hours post trauma

133
Q

Pulm contusion treatment:

A

Fluid restrict + use diuretics, pain control and pulmonary toilet/hygiene (methods used to clear mucus and secretions from the airways)

usually resolves in 1 wk

134
Q

Sternal fracture –> suspect what type of injury?

A

Myocardial contusion

135
Q

Myocardial contusion seen in what type of injury?

A

sternal fractures

136
Q

what should be ordered in presence of sternal fracture?

A

troponins and EKG

137
Q

Treatment of myocardial contusion focuse on?

A

Complications arising from arrhythmias

138
Q

Traumatic rupture of diaphragam seen as what on exam and xray ?

A

Bowel in the chest (seen on phys exam and xray) on LEFT SIDE

139
Q

Treatment of traumatic rupture of diaphragam?

A

Needs surgery - depending on extent and other injuries either laparoscopy or laparotomy (open)

140
Q

traumatic rupture of aorta usually occurs where anatomically?

A

junction of the arch and descending aorta

141
Q

What often causes traumatic aorta ruptures?

A

big deceleration injury

142
Q

big deceleration injury –> what maj injury

A

traumatic rupture of the aorta

143
Q

Path/timeline of traumatic rupture of aorta

A

1) asymptomatic –> unknown bleeding
2) hematoma forms but is contained by adventitia
3) adventitia cannot contain any longer –> tears open –> pt dies

144
Q

Suspicion for traumatic rupture of aorta is high in what cases: (3)

A

1) Deceleration injury
2) Presence of fractures in chest bones that are “very hard to break” (ie 1st rib, scapula, sternum)
3) presence of wide mediastinum

145
Q

In trauma setting what is the most practical imaging?

A

CT angio (aka spiral CT scan enhanced by intravenous dye)

146
Q

Non invasive diagnostic test for rupture of aorta

A
  • spiral CT (most practical in trauma setting)
  • transesophageal echo
  • MRI angio
147
Q

What clinical findings is suggestive of traumatic rupture of trachea or major bronchus?

A
  • SubQ emphysema in upper chest and lower neck

- large “air leak’ from a chest tube

148
Q

Treatment for rupture of trachea or maj bronchus?

A

1) CXR confirms presence of air in tissue
2) fiberoptic bronchoscopy identifies lesion –> can intubate and secure airway beyond lesion
3) SURGICAL REPAIR

149
Q

DDx for subQ emphysema = ? (3)

A
  • rupture of esophagus (often post endoscopy)
  • tension pneumo(worry about shock + resp distress)
  • gas producinng infx
150
Q

chest trauma pt who is intubated and on a repirator suddenly dies, most likely?

A

air embolism

151
Q

What vein when open to air –> air embolism –> sudden collapse and cardiac arrest?

A

subclavian vein

152
Q

Instances subclavian vein may be exposed to air (bad)

A
  • supraclavicular node biopsies
  • central venous line placement
  • CVP lines become disconnected
153
Q

Immediate management of air embolism?

A

cardiac massage w/ pt positioned w/ L side down

154
Q

Prevention of air embolism when veins at base of neck are being entered is by what mechanism?

A

Put pt in Trendelenburg

155
Q

Resp distress in pt w/ trauma but not chest trauma, most likely?

A

Fat embolism, esp if setting of long bone fractures

156
Q

Fat embolism treatment?

A
  • Respiratory support
157
Q

Signs of fat embolism:

A

multiple trauma esp long bone fractures who dev:

  • petechial rashes in axillae and neck
  • fever
  • tachycardia
  • low platelet count

At some pt dev resp distress w/ hypoxemia + bilateral patchy infiltrates on CXR

158
Q

Pt w/ multiple trauma esp long bone fractures who dev:

  • petechial rashes in axillae and neck
  • fever
  • tachycardia
  • low platelet count

dev resp distress w/ hypoxemia + bilateral patchy infiltrates on CXR

Likely?

A

Fat embolism

159
Q

What seen on CXR w/ pt w/ fat embolism and resp distress?

A

bilateral patchy infiltrates on CXR

pestana (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions