Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

The leading killer of persons under age 44 in the United States is?

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Injury caused by an object breaking the skin and entering the body

A

Penetrating trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Injury caused by the collision of an object with the body in which the object does not enter the body

A

Blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Occurs when an arrow, bullet, knife or other object enters the body and exchanges energy with human tissue thereby causing injury

A

Penetrating trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Injury that occurs as the energy and forces of collision with an object - not the object itself - enter the body and damage tissue

A

Blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Life treating problems such as _______ and _______ may occur with only subtle signs and symptoms

A

Internal bleeding and shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When assessing a trauma patient look beyond obvious injuries for evidence that suggests?

A

A life threatening condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Serious trauma is a surgical disease; its proper care is

A

Immediate surgical intervention to repair internal hemorrhage sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Commits resources to address all types of specialty trauma 24 hrs a day 7 days a wk

A

Level 1 - Regional Trauma Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Commits the resources to address the most common trauma emergencies with surgical capability available 24 hrs a day 7 days a wk; will stabilize and transport specialty cases to the regional trauma center

A

Level 2 - Area Trauma Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Commits to special emergency department training and has some surgical capability, but will usually stabilize and transfer seriously injured trauma pt’s to a higher level trauma center as needed

A

Level 3 - Community trauma center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In remote areas, a small community hospital or medical care facility may be designated a trauma receiving facility, meaning that it will stabilize and prepare trauma patients with moderate to serious injuries for transport to a higher level facility

A

Level 4 - trauma facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A physical injury or wound caused by external force or violence

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Neuro centers, burn centers, pediatric trauma centers and centers specializing in hand and limb re plantation by micro surgery

A

Specially Centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To help determine _______ Mentally recreate the accident from evidence available at the scene.

A

Mechanism of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Guidelines to aid prehospital personnel in determining which trauma pt’s require urgent transportation to a trauma center.

A

Trauma triage criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The process and forces that cause trauma

A

Mechanism of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The information you gather during your consideration and reconsideration of the mechanism of injury suggest an

A

Index of suspicion for possible injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Survival from trauma often depends on ?

A

The time from injury until the pt’s is in surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The 60 minute period after a sever injury

A

The golden hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Primary pt assessment, emergency stabilization, pt packaging and initiation of transport should ideally take less than ?

A

10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In applying trauma triage criteria, it is best to err on the side of

A

Precaution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A data retrieval system for trauma pt’s information, used to evaluate and improve the trauma system

A

Trauma registry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The most common cause of trauma death and disability?

A

Blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Blunt trauma can be deceptive because the true nature of the injury is often hidden and evidence of the serious injury is?

A

Subtle or even absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is a branch of physics dealing with the forces of objects in motion and the energy exchanges that occur as objects collide

A

Kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The law of inertia, as described by Sir Issac Newton and also known as

A

Newton’s first law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A body in motion will remain in motion unless acted on by an?

A

Outside force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tendency of an object to remain at rest or remain in motion unless acted on by an external force

A

Inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The process of changing place; movement

A

Motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The capacity to do work in the strict physical sense

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The energy an object has while it is in motion. It is related to the objects mass and velocity

A

Kinetic energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A measure of the matter that an object contains; the property of a physical body that gives the body inertia

A

Mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The rate of motion in a particular direction in relation to time

A

Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The energy of an object in motion. It is a function of the object’s mass and its velocity

A

Kinetic energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Occurs when a body area is struck by or strikes an object

A

Blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Events of vehicle collision:

A
  • vehicle collision
  • body collision
  • organ collision
  • secondary collision
  • additional impacts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Results as the occupant contacts the vehicle’s interior and slows or stops

A

Organ collisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Occurs when a vehicle occupant is impacted by objects traveling within the auto.

A

Secondary collisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Additional impacts occur when a vehicle receives a?

A

Second impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Seat belt use should be mandatory for all

A

EMS personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Accounts for over half of the deaths in vehicular collisions

A

Up and over pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Application of the forces of trauma along the axis of the spine; this often results in compression fractures of the spine

A

Axial loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The region of a vehicle designed to absorb the energy of impact

A

Crumple zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maintain a ________ of serious injury when assessing lateral impact collision because the degree of injury may be greater than the damage alone would indicate

A

Higher index of suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Having a slanted position or direction

A

Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Interferes with the pt’s level of consciousness and masks signs and symptoms of injury

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

______ may be hard to differentiate from the signs of a head injury

A

Intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Motor vehicle fatalities

A

By body area:

Head - 47.7%

Internal ( chest/abd/pelvic ) - 37.3%

Spinal and chest fracture - 8.3%

Fractures to the extremities - 2.0%

All other - 4.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Helmets reduce the incidence and severity of head injuries in motorcycle collisions but they have no effect on the incidence of

A

Spinal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In pedestrian -vs- automobile collisions, adults tend to turn away from the on coming vehicle before impact while

A

Children turn toward it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An agent that enhances combustion of a fuel

A

Oxidizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Area of over pressure that radiates outward from an explosion

A

Pressure wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Underwater detonation increases the lethal range of an explosion

A

Threefold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mechanisms associated with blasts:

A
  • pressure wave
  • blast wind
  • projectiles
  • personal displacement
  • confined spaces and structural collapse
  • burns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A rapid increase, then decrease in atmospheric pressure created by an explosion

A

Overpressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The air movement caused as the heated and pressurized products of an explosion move outward

A

Blast wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The most lethal explosions are those causing structural collapse followed by those in

A

Confined spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

An agent that combusts easily or creates combustion

A

Incendiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Primary blast injuries are caused by the heat of the explosion and the

A

Overpressure wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Secondary blast injuries include trauma caused by

A

Projectiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

If the number of pt’s exceeds the immediate capabilities of your EMS system

A

Employ disaster triage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The most common and serious trauma associated with explosion

A

Pulmonary injuries ( lung injuries )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Undissolved solid, liquid or gaseous matter in the blood stream that may cause blockage of blood vessels

A

Emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Labored or difficult breathing

A

Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract

A

Hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity between the chest wall and lung

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Contact sports may result in the exchange of

A

Great kinetic force and produce serious injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Kinetic energy =

A

Mass (weight) X Velocity (speed)
_______________________________
2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The study of projectile motion and its interactions with the gun, the air and the object it contacts

A

Ballistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The path a projectile follows

A

Trajectory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The outward motion of tissue due to a projectiles passage, resulting in a temporary cavity and vacuum

A

Cavitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The size and shape of a projectile as it contacts a target; it is the energy exchange surface of the contact

A

Profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Swing or wobble around the axis of a projectiles travel

A

Yaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The portion of the bullet you would see if you looked at it as it traveled toward you

A

Profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The anticipated outcome of a disease or injury

A

Prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The damage done as the projectile strikes tissue, contuses and tears that tissue and pushes the tissue out of its way.

A

Direct injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When a high velocity, high energy projectile strikes human flesh it creates a

A

Pressure shock wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Is a space created behind the high energy bullet as tissue moves rapidly away from the bullets path

A

The temporary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The movement that creates the temporary cavity crushes,stretches and tears

A

The affected tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Associated with most projectile wounds is a ______________ that extends beyond the permanent cavity

A

Zone of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Weapons such as knives, Ice picks, arrows or flying objects such as blast debris or wires thrown by a lawn mower can cause

A

Low velocity penetrating trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The tissue’s connective strength and elasticity called__________, also influence how much tissue damage occurs with the kinetic energy transfer.

A

Resiliency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Solid organs such as the liver, spleen, kidneys, pancreas and brain have the density but not the resiliency of

A

Muscle and other connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Hollow organs such as the bowel, stomach, urinary bladder and heart are

A

Muscular containers holding fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Blood filling in the pericardial sac, thus limiting heart function

A

Pericardial tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Injury to the lung tissue in cases of penetrating trauma is generally less extensive than can be expected with

A

Any other body tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Entrance wounds are usually the size of

A

The bullets profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The exit wound is caused by the physical damage from both the passage of the bullet itself and from the

A

Cavitational wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Since the pressure wave is moving forward and outward the wound may have a

A

Blown outward appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Make every effort to preserve evidence at a crime scene but remember that

A

Care of the pt takes priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A _______ may more accurately reflect the potential damage caused by a bullets passage through the body than the __________?

A

Exit wound / entrance wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A surgical incision into the cricothyroid membrane, usually to provide an emergency airway.

A

Cricothyrotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The introduction of a needle or other tube into the cricothyroid membrane, usually to provide an emergency airway

A

Cricothyrostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The loss of the body’s most important medium, blood, is called

A

Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The transition between normal function ( homeostasis) and death is called

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The paramedic must be able to recognize hemorrhage and shock on trauma pts in order to reduce

A

Mortality and morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Types of hemorrhage:

A
  • capillary
  • venous
  • Arterial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Capillary hemorrhage usually ________ from the wound and is normally ______ in coloration

A

Oozes / bright red - well oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Venous hemorrhage flows more quickly, though it too generally stops in a few minutes. Bleeding associated with with venous hemorrhage is generally __________ in coloration

A

Dark red because the blood has already given up its oxygen as it passed through the capillary beds o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Arterial hemorrhage flows rapidly often spurting from the wound. It is ________ and appears _______ in coloration as it escapes the wound

A

Well oxygenated / bright red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The body’s response to local hemorrhage is a complex three-step process called

A

Clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Step in which smooth blood vessel muscle contracts, reducing the vessel lumen and the flow of blood through it

A

Vascular phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

To cluster or come together

A

Aggregate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Second step in the clotting process in which platelets adhere to blood vessel walls and to each other

A

Platelet phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The third step in the clotting process which involves the formation of a protein called fibrin that forms a network around a wound to stop bleeding, ward off infection and lay a foundation for healing and repair of the wound

A

Coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Protein fibers that trap red blood cells as part of the clotting process

A

Fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Coagulation normally takes from

A

7-10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A clean lateral cut permits the vessel to retract and

A

Thicken its wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

A longitudinal cut to the vessel causes the wound to

A

Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Method of hemorrhage control that relies on the application of pressure to the actual site of the bleeding.

A

Direct pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Use a tourniquet only as a

A

Last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

A constrictor used on an extremity to apply circumferential pressure on all arteries to control bleeding

A

Tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Compound produced from pyruvic acid during anaerobic glycolyis

A

Lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Able to live w/o oxygen

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Employ this device only to halt persistent life threatening hemorrhage

A

Tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

During the absence of perfusion, what accumulates in the stagnant blood?

A

Lactic acid, potassium and other anaerobic metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

If you must use a tourniquet use a

A

Wide cravat or belt or BP cuff. (Thin or narrow constricting devices may damage tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Direct pressure on a wound or a combination of direct pressure and _________ work quite well in stopping the bleeding

A

Elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Hemorrhage is either

A

Internal or external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A fibrous membrane that covers, supports and separates muscles and may also unite the skin with underlying tissue

A

Fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Collection of blood beneath the skin or trapped within a body compartment

A

Hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Humerus and tibia/fibula may account for ____________ of blood and bodily fluid loss

A

500-750 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Femur fractures may account for up to _______ ml of blood or bodily fluid loss

A

1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Bleeding from the nose resulting from injury, disease or environmental factors

A

Epistaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Enlarged and tortuous esophageal veins

A

Esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Black tarlike feces due to gastrointestinal bleeding

A

Melena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Rectal injury may be caused by

A

Pelvic fracture or direct trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Stage 1 hemorrhage is a blood loss up to

A

15% of the circulating blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

A reduction in the hemoglobin content in the blood to a point below that required to meet the oxygen requirements of the body

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures

A

Pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

A hormone such as epinephrine or norepinephrine that strongly affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems, metabolic rate, temperature and smooth muscle

A

Catecholamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Stage 2 hemorrhage occurs as

A

15 to 25% of the blood volume is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Blood loss of up to 15%, pt may display some nervousness and marginally cool skin with slight pallor

A

Stage 1 hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Blood loss of 15 to 25%; pt displays thirst, anxiety, restlessness, cool, clammy skin, increased RR

A

Stage 2 hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Blood loss between 25 and 35%; pt experiences air hunger, dyspnea, severe thirst, anxiety, restlessness; survival unlikely w/o rapid intervention

A

Stage 3 hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Blood loss greater than 35% ; pulse barely palpable, respirations ineffective; pt lethargic, confused, moving toward unresponsiveness; survival unlikely

A

Stage 4 hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

In infants and young children, blood volumes approx _________ of body weight, volumes that are proportionally about _________ greater than those of adults

A

8 to 9% / 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Suspect hemorrhage early in cases of ______________ and treat aggressively

A

Child and infant trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Passage of stools containing red blood

A

Hematochezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

A decrease in BP that occurs when a person moves from a supine or sitting to an upright position

A

Orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Drop in the systolic BP of 20 mmHg or an increased or an increase in the pulse rate of 20 BPM when a pt is moved from a supine to a sitting position

A

Tilt test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Is stool with frank blood in it and reflects active bleeding in the colon or rectum

A

Hematochezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

A simple medical definition of shock is

A

A state of inadequate tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The total changes that take place in an organism during physiological process

A

Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

A blockage in the delivery of oxygenated blood to the cells

A

Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

The pressure of liquids in equilibrium; the pressure exerted by or within liquids

A

Hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Group of red blood cells that are stuck together

A

Rouleaux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Release of accumulated lactic acid, carbon dioxide (carbonic acid), potassium and Rouleaux into the venous circulation

A

Washout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Hemodynamic insult to the body in which the body responds effectively. Signs and symptoms are limited and the human system functions normally

A

Compensated shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Continuing hemodynamic insult to the body in which the compensatory mechanisms break down. The signs and symptoms become very pronounced and the pt moves rapidly toward death

A

Decompensated shock

152
Q

The initial shock state

A

Compensated shock

153
Q

Begins as the body’s compensatory mechanisms become unable to respond to a continuing blood loss

A

Decompensated shock

154
Q

Final stage of shock in which organs and cells are so damaged that recovery is impossible

A

Irreversible shock

155
Q

The most practical choice for prehospital fluid resuscitation is

A

Lactated Ringer’s solution

156
Q

The ideal catheter for the shock pt is

A

1 1/2 or shorter

157
Q

Skin consisting of the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layers

A

Integumentary system

158
Q

Closed wound in which the skin is unbroken, although damage has occurred to the tissue immediately beneath

A

Contusion

159
Q

General reddening of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries

A

Erythema

160
Q

Blue-black discoloration of the skin doe to leakage of blood into the tissue

A

Ecchymosis

161
Q

Collection of the blood beneath the skin or trapped within a body compartment

A

Hematoma

162
Q

Mechanism of injury in which tissue is locally compressed by high pressure forces

A

Crush injury

163
Q

Systemic disorder of severe metabolic disturbances resulting from the crush of a limb or other body part

A

Crush syndrome

164
Q

Scraping or abrading away of the superficial layers of the skin; an open soft tissue injury

A

Abrasion

165
Q

An open wound normally a tear with jagged borders

A

Laceration

166
Q

Natural patterns in the surface of the skin revealing tension within

A

Tension lines

167
Q

Very smooth or surgical laceration, frequently caused by a knife, scalpel razor blade or piece of glass

A

Incision

168
Q

Specific soft tissue injury involving a deep narrow wound to the skin and underlying organs that carries and increased danger of infection

A

Puncture

169
Q

Foreign body embedded in a wound

A

Impaled object

170
Q

Forceful tearing away or separation of body tissue; may be partial or complete

A

Avulsion

171
Q

Avulsion in which the mechanism of injury tears the skin off the underlying muscle, tissue, blood vessels and bone

A

Devolving injury

172
Q

Severance, removal, or detachment either partial or complete of a body part

A

Amputation

173
Q

The body’s natural ability to stop bleeding ; the ability to clot blood

A

Hemostasis

174
Q

New growth of the capillaries in response to healing

A

Neovascularization

175
Q

Complex process of local cellular and biochemical changes as a consequence of injury or infection; an early stage of healing

A

Inflammation

176
Q

Chemicals released by white blood cells that attracts more white blood cells to an area of inflammation

A

Chemotactic factors

177
Q

White blood cells charged with the primary purpose of neutralizing foreign bacteria

A

Granulocytes

178
Q

Immune system cell that has the ability to recognize and ingest foreign pathogens

A

Macrophage

179
Q

Early stage of wound healing in which epithelial cells migrate over the surface of the wound

A

Epithelialization

180
Q

Tough, strong protein that comprises most of the body’s connective tissue

A

Collagen

181
Q

Specialized cells that form collagen

A

Fibroblast

182
Q

Stage in the wound healing process in which collagen is broken down and relaid in an orderly fashion

A

Remodeling

183
Q

Inflammation of the lymph channels, usually as a result of a distal infection

A

Lymphangitis

184
Q

Deep space infection usually caused by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium perfringens

A

Gangrene

185
Q

The body’s main structural protein.

A

Collagen

186
Q

One of the rarest and most and most feared wound complications is

A

Gangrene

187
Q

A cellular component of blood, similar to plasma

A

Serous fluid

188
Q

Muscle ischemia that is caused by rising pressures within an anatomical fascial space.

A

Compartment syndrome

189
Q

Excessive scar tissue that extends beyond the boundaries of the wound

A

Keloid

190
Q

Tissue death usually from ischemia

A

Necrosis

191
Q

Acute pathologic process that involves the destruction of skeletal muscle

A

Rhabdomyolysis

192
Q

It is important to note that compartment syndrome rarely occurs within the first

A

4 hrs

193
Q

Alter the usual substance of something

A

Denature

194
Q

Explanation of the physical effects of thermal burns

A

Jackson’s theory of thermal wounds

195
Q

Area in a burn nearest the heat source that suffers the most damage and is characterized by clotted blood and thrombosed blood vessels.

A

Zone of coagulation

196
Q

Area in a burn surrounding the zone of coagulation that is characterized by decreased blood flow

A

Zone of stasis

197
Q

Area peripheral to a burn that is characterized by increased blood flow.

A

Zone of hyperemia

198
Q

First stage of the burn process that is characterized by a catecholamine release and pain-mediated reaction

A

Emergent phase

199
Q

Stage of the burn process in which there is a massive shift of fluid from the intravascular to the extravascular space

A

Fluid shift phase

200
Q

The volume contained by all the arteries, veins,capillaries and other components of the circulatory system

A

Intravascular space

201
Q

The volume contained by all the cells (intracellular space) and the spaces between the cells (interstitial space)

A

Extravascular space

202
Q

Stage of the burn process in which there is increased body metabolism in an attempt by the body to heal the burn.

A

Hypermetabolic phase

203
Q

Final stage of the burn process in which scar tissue is laid down and the healing process is completed.

A

Resolution phase

204
Q

The difference of electric potential between two points with different concentrations of electrons

A

Voltage

205
Q

The process in which an acid, while destroying tissue forms an insoluble layer that limits further damage

A

Coagulation necrosis

206
Q

The process in which an alkali dissolves and liquifies tissue

A

Liquefaction necrosis

207
Q

The trauma system is predicted on the principle that serious trauma is a

A

Surgical disease

208
Q

Serious trauma is a surgical disease, it’s proper care is immediate surgical intervention to repair

A

Internal hemorrhage sites

209
Q

What is the second part of the law of inertia

A

“A body at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an outside force”

210
Q

The liver is suspended in the abdomen by the

A

Ligamentum teres

211
Q

Events of a vehicle collision:

A
  • vehicle collision
  • body collision
  • organ collision
  • secondary collision
  • additional impacts
212
Q

Types of vehicle impacts:

A
  • rotational (38%)
  • frontal (32%)
  • lateral (15%)
  • rear-end (9%)
  • rollover (6%)
213
Q

The up and over pathway accounts for __________ of the deaths in vehicular collisions

A

Over half

214
Q

The unrestrained occupant slides downward as the vehicle comes to a stop

A

Down and under pathway

215
Q

An injury process frequently associated with steering wheel impact is the

A

Paper bag syndrome

216
Q

The heart which is not firmly attached in the central thorax moves violently toward the impact as the body

A

Accelerates

217
Q

Occupants of a vehicle with a limited crumple zone may experience greater forces in a collision even though damage to the vehicle itself may not appear as severe as damage to a vehicle with a

A

Greater crumple zone involved in a similar collision

218
Q

The lethal range for an explosive charge increased threefold with an

A

Underwater detonation

219
Q

The extreme pressure damages or ruptures the thin and delicate alveolar walls, resulting in fluid accumulation, hemorrhage and possibly even

A

The entry of air directly into the blood stream from the alveoli

220
Q

Coughing up of blood or blood -tinged sputum

A

Hemoptysis

221
Q

Pressure of ventilations may induce ____________? By pushing air past blast-induced lung defects and into the pleural space

A

Pneumothorax

222
Q

Pressure can disrupt blood flow to and through the limb causing

A

Anaerobic metabolism and some tissue death

223
Q

Another consequence of the release of the crushing pressure is severe and difficult to control

A

Hemorrhage

224
Q

If you double the mass of an object it will have twice the kinetic energy of the speed of the object

A

Remains the same

225
Q

The ______ or _______ of an object has a squared relationship to its kinetic energy

A

Speed or velocity

226
Q

Mass(weight) x velocity (speed) /2

A

Kinetic energy

227
Q

Factors associated with the damage pathway of a projectile wound:

A
  • direct injury
  • pressure shock wave
  • cavitation
  • temporary cavity
  • permanent cavity
  • zone of injury
228
Q

Filling of the pericardial sac with fluid which in turn limits the filling and function of the heart

A

Pericardial tamponade

229
Q

Any large penetrating wound may permit air to be drawn into an open external jugular vein and immediately threaten life due to the resulting

A

Pulmonary emboli

230
Q

A bullets exit wound often has a ___________ appearance

A

Blown outward

231
Q

An exit wound may more accurately reflect the potential damage caused by a bullet’s passage through the body than the

A

Entrance wound

232
Q

Types of hemorrhage:

A
  • capillary
  • venous
  • arterial
233
Q

Certain categories of pt’s - pregnant women, athletes, children and the elderly react different to

A

Blood loss

234
Q

The blood volume of a woman in late pregnancy is _______ greater than normal

A

50%

235
Q

The pelvic fracture can acct for blood loss of more than

A

2000 mL

236
Q

The femur fracture can acct for up to _______ blood loss

A

1500 mL

237
Q

A tibia / fibula or humerus fracture may contribute to a blood loss of

A

500 to 750 mL

238
Q

Hematomas and large contusions may acct for a blood loss up to

A

500 mL

239
Q

Extreme of Motion:

A
  • hyperextension
  • hyperflexion “ kiss the chest “
  • excessive rotation
  • lateral bending
240
Q

The sympathetic nervous system and the hormones it releases begin progressive response as hemorrhage causes blood to leave the

A

Cardio vascular system

241
Q

Compensated shock:

A
  • pulse rate increases
  • pulse strength decreases
  • skin becomes cool and clammy
  • pt feels progressing anxiety, restlessness, combative
  • pt experiences thirst, weakness, eventual air hunger
242
Q

Decompensated shock:

A
  • pulse becomes impalpable
  • BP drops precipitously
  • pt becomes unconscious
  • respirations slow or cease
243
Q

Irreversible shock:

A

Shortly after the pt enters Decompensated shock, the lack of circulation begins to have profound effects on body cells. As they are irreversibly damaged, the cells die, tissue dysfunction, organ dysfunction and the pt dies

244
Q

Skin consisting of the epidermis , dermis, and subcutaneous layers

A

Integumentary system

245
Q

Most common types of trauma injuries are?

A

Soft- tissue injuries

246
Q

Closed wound in which the skin is unbroken, although damaged has occurred to the tissue immediately beneath.

A

Contusion

247
Q

Blunt, nonpenetrating injuries that crush and damage small blood vessels

A

Contusions

248
Q

General reddening of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries

A

Erythema

249
Q

Blue-black discoloration of the skin due to leakage of blood into the tissue

A

Eccymosis

250
Q

Collection of blood beneath the skin or trapped within a body compartment

A

Hematoma

251
Q

Mechanism of injury in which tissue is locally compressed by high pressure forces

A

Crush injury

252
Q

Systemic disorder of severe metabolic disturbances resulting from the crush of a limb or other body part

A

Crush syndrome

253
Q

Scraping or abrading away of the superficial layers of the skin; an open soft tissue injury

A

Abrasion

254
Q

An open wound, normally a tear with jagged borders

A

Laceration

255
Q

Natural patterns in the surface of the skin revealing tensions within

A

Tension lines

256
Q

Very smooth or surgical laceration, frequently caused by a knife, scalpel, razor blade, or piece of glass

A

Incision

257
Q

Specific soft- tissue injury involving a deep narrow wound to the skin and underlying organs that carries an increased danger of infection

A

Puncture

258
Q

Foreign body embedded in a wound

A

Impaled object

259
Q

Forceful tearing away or separation of body tissue, may be partial or complete

A

Avulsion

260
Q

Occurs when a flap of skin, although torn or cut is not torn completely loose from the body

A

Avulsion

261
Q

Avulsion in which the MOI tears the skin off the underlying muscle, tissue , blood vessels and bone

A

Degloving injury

262
Q

Severance, removal, or detachment either partial or complete of a body part

A

Amputation

263
Q

The body’s natural ability to stop bleeding, ability to clot blood

A

Hemostasis

264
Q

Early stage in wound healing in which epithelial cells migrate over the surface of the wound

A

Epithelialization

265
Q

Complex process of local cellular and biochemical changes as a consequence of injury or infection

A

Inflammation

266
Q

Chemicals released by white blood cells that attract more white blood cells to an area of inflammation

A

Chemotactic factors

267
Q

White blood cells charged with the primary purpose of neutralizing foreign bacteria

A

Granulocytes

268
Q

Immune system cell that has the ability to recognize and ingest foreign pathogens

A

Macrophage

269
Q

Process in which a cell surrounds and absorbs a bacterium or other particle

A

Phagocytosis

270
Q

Early stage of wound healing in which epithelial cells migrate over the surface of the wound

A

Epithelialization

271
Q

The body responds to this increased demand by generating new blood vessels in a process called

A

Neovascularization

272
Q

New growth of capillaries in response to healing

A

Neovascularization

273
Q

Tough strong protein that comprises most of the body’s connective tissue

A

Collagen

274
Q

Specialized cells that form collagen

A

Fibroblasts

275
Q

Stage in the wound healing process in which collagen is broken down and relaid in an orderly fashion

A

Remodeling

276
Q

Inflammation of the lymph channels usually as a result of a distal infection

A

Lymphangitis

277
Q

Deep space infection usually caused by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium perfringens

A

Gangrene

278
Q

Tetanus is caused by

A

Bacterium Clostridium tetani

279
Q

A formation resulting from overproduction of scar tissue

A

Keloid

280
Q

A cellular component of blood similar to plasma

A

Serous fluid

281
Q

Muscle ischemia that is caused by rising pressure within an anatomical fascial space

A

Compartment syndrome

282
Q

During the healing process, scar tissue sometimes develops abnormally. A ________ is excessive scar tissue that extends beyond the boundaries of a wound

A

Keloid

283
Q

Tissue death usually from ischemia

A

Necrosis

284
Q

Acute pathologic process that involves the destruction of skeletal muscle

A

Rhabdomyolysis

285
Q

Dressings:

A
  • sterile / nonsterile
  • occlusive / nonocclusive
  • adherent / nonadherent
  • absorbent / nonabsorbent
  • wet/ dry
286
Q

Bandages

A
  • self - adherent roller
  • gauze
  • adhesive
  • elastic
  • triangular
287
Q

In addition to questioning the pt and inspecting the body regions, you should palpate the body’s

A

Entire surface

288
Q

The wound should be observed in such a way that it can later be

A

Described to the attending physician

289
Q

The three objectives of bandaging are?

A

Control bleeding

Keep wound clean

Immobilize the wound site

290
Q

To halt hemorrhage, apply form pressure to the site for at least

A

10 min

291
Q

Do not use a tourniquet unless you cannot control bleeding by

A

Any other means

292
Q

Once in place a tourniquet should be left in place until the pt arrives at the

A

Emergency room

293
Q

Only remove impaired objects that obstruct the

A

Airway or prevent CPR

294
Q

Basic types of burns:

A
  • thermal
  • electrical
  • chemical
  • radiation
295
Q

Explanation of the physical effects of thermal burns

A

Jackson’s theory of thermal wounds

296
Q

Area in a burn nearest the heat source that suffers the most damage and is characterized by clotted blood and thrombosed blood vessels

A

Zone of coagulation

297
Q

Area in a burn surrounding the zone of coagulation that is characterized by decreased blood flow

A

Zone of stasis

298
Q

Area peripheral to a burn that is characterized by increased blood flow

A

Zone of hyperemia

299
Q

First stage of the burn process that is characterized by a catecholamine release and pain-mediated reaction

A

Emergent phase

300
Q

Stage of the burn process in which there is a massive shift of fluid from the intravascular to the extravascular space

A

Fluid shift phase

301
Q

Stage of the burn process in which there is increased body metabolism in an attempt by the body to heal the burn.

A

Hypermetabolic phase

302
Q

Final stage of the burn process in which scar tissue is laid down and the healing process is completed

A

Resolution phase

303
Q

The process in which an acid, while destroying tissue forms an insoluble layer that limits further damage

A

Coagulation necrosis

304
Q

The process in which an alkali dissolves and liquefies tissue.

A

Liquefaction necrosis

305
Q

Usually form a thick, insoluble mass where they contact tissue through coagulation necrosis limiting burn damage.

A

Acids

306
Q

Usually continue to destroy cell membranes through liquefaction necrosis, allowing them to penetrate underlying tissue and causing deeper burns

A

Alkalis

307
Q

Alpha radiation:

A

Very weak, stopped by paper clothing or epidermis

308
Q

Beta radiation:

A

More powerful than alpha; can travel 6-10 ft through air ; can penetrate some clothing and the first few mm of the skin

309
Q

Gamma radiation:

A

Most powerful ionizing radiation; great penetrating power; protection requires thick concrete or lead shielding

310
Q

Great penetrating power but uncommon outside nuclear reactors and bombs

A

Neutron

311
Q

Referring to the upper airway

A

Supraglottic

312
Q

Suspect __________ in any pt who was in an enclosed space during combustion

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

313
Q

Inhalation injury may be associated with burns, especially if the injury occurred in an

A

Enclosed space

314
Q

Factors affecting exposure to radiation:

A
  • Time
  • Distance
  • Shielding
315
Q

Referring to the lower airway

A

Subglottic

316
Q

Super heated steam is a common cause of

A

Airway burns

317
Q

A burn that involves only the epidermis; characterized by reddening of the skin also called a first degree burn

A

Superficial burn

318
Q

Burn in which the epidermis is burned through and the dermis is damaged; characterized by redness and blistering also called second degree burn

A

Partial- thickness burn

319
Q

Stridor or high pitched “crowing” sounds on inspiration are ominous signs of

A

Impending airway obstruction

320
Q

Amount of a pt’s body affected by a burn

A

Body surface area (BSA)

321
Q

Method of estimating amount of body surface area burned by a division of the body into regions, each of which represents approx. 9% of total BSA plus 1% genitalia region

A

Rule of nines

322
Q

With burns cover 10% of body with a burn sheet soaked in

A

Normal saline ( Local cooling )

323
Q

Critical burns

A

Partial >30% BSA

Full >10% BSA

324
Q

Any partial or full thickness involving hands, feet, joints, face, or genitalia

A

Inhalation injury

325
Q

Hard leathery product of a deep full - thickness burn; it consists of dead and denatured skin.

A

Eschar

326
Q

Burns cause several systemic complications. These can affect the overall severity of a burn. Typical complications include

A

Hypothermia, hypovolemia, Eschar formation, and infection

327
Q

If any of the clothing adheres to the burn or resists removal,

A

Cut around it as necessary

328
Q

Burns to the face, hands, feet, joints, genitalia and circumferential burns are of

A

Special concern

329
Q

Serious burns and the associated scar tissue make thermal hand or foot injuries very debilitating. Assess these areas and communicate the precise location of the injury and the degree of the burn to the

A

Receiving physician

330
Q

Pay particular attention to burns that completely ring an extremity which includes the

A

Thorax, the abdomen, or the neck

331
Q

Carefully assess any burn encircling a part of the body for

A

Distal circulation or other signs of vascular compromise

332
Q

Burn severity: Minor

A

Superficial: BSA

333
Q

Burn severity: Moderate

A

Superficial: BSA > 50%

Partial thickness:

334
Q

Burn severity: Critical

A

Partial thickness: BSA > 30%

Full thickness: BSA > 10%

Inhalation injury

Any partial - or full- thickness burns involving hands, feet, joints, face or genitalia

335
Q

4 mL x PT weight in kg x BSA burned = amount of fluids over 24 hrs

A

Parkland burn formula - used for burn tx in hx

336
Q

Cool water immersion of minor localized burns may be effective if accomplished in

A

The first few min after a burn

337
Q

Cover extensive partial and full thickness burns with

A

Dry sterile dressing, keep pt warm and initiate fluid resuscitation

338
Q

Use soft nonadherent dressing between areas of

A

Full thickness burns, between fingers and toes to prevent adhesion

339
Q

Twitching of the eyelids

A

Blepharospasm

340
Q

Injury resulting from over stretching of muscle fibers

A

Strain

341
Q

Tearing of a joint capsules connective tissue

A

Sprain

342
Q

Grades of sprains:

A

Grade 1- minor and incomplete tear.

Grade 2 - significant but incomplete tear.

Grade 3 - complete tear of the ligament

343
Q

Partial displacement of a bone end from its position I a joint capsule

A

Subluxation

344
Q

Complete displacement of a bone end from its position in a joint capsule

A

Dislocation

345
Q

This type of injury carries with it the danger of entrapping, compressing or tearing blood vessels and nerves

A

Dislocations

346
Q

A pins and needles sensation

A

Paresthesia

347
Q

Small crack in a bone that does not disrupt its total structure

A

Hairline fracture

348
Q

Break in a bone in which the bone is compressed on itself

A

Impacted fracture

349
Q

A break that runs across a bone perpendicular to the bones orientation

A

Transverse fracture

350
Q

Break in a bone running across it at an angle other than 90 degrees

A

Oblique fracture

351
Q

Fracture in which a bone is broken into several pieces

A

Comminuted fracture

352
Q

A curving break in a bone as may be caused by rotational forces

A

Spiral fractures

353
Q

Break in a bone associated with prolonged or repeated stress

A

Fatigue fracture

354
Q

Partial fracture of a child’s bone

A

Greenstick fracture

355
Q

Weakening of bone tissue due to loss of essential minerals especially calcium

A

Osteoporosis

356
Q

A gradual progressive decrease in bone mass and collagen structure begins at about age 40 and results in bones that are

A

Less flexible, more brittle and more easily fractured

357
Q

Fractures near joints are more likely to compress or s

A

Sever blood vessels or nerves

358
Q

Areas around the joints are further endangered because blood vessels supplying the epiphysis enter the long bone through the

A

Diaphysis

359
Q

Thickened area that forms at the site of a fracture as part of the repair process

A

Callus

360
Q

Acute or chronic inflammation of the small synovial sacs

A

Bursitis

361
Q

Inflammation of a tendon and/or its protective sheath

A

Tendonitis

362
Q

Inflammation of a joint

A

Arthritis

363
Q

Inflammation of a joint resulting from wearing of the articular cartilage

A

Osteoarthritis

364
Q

Pelvic fracture may account for hemorrhage of more than

A

2 liters

365
Q

A femur fracture may account for as much as

A

1,500 mL of blood loss

366
Q

The six P’s

A
  • pain
  • pallor
  • paralysis
  • paresthesia
  • pressure
  • pulses
367
Q

Place the limb in a position of ________ whenever possible

A

Function

368
Q

Generally you should not attempt alignment of dislocations and serious injuries within _________ of a joint.

A

3 inches

369
Q

Only attempt to manipulate such injury sites if the distal circulation is

A

Compromised

370
Q

Immobilize the joint ______ and the joint _______the injury regardless of whether the injury occurs at a joint or mid shaft in a long bone.

A

Above and below

371
Q

Is a comfortable splint for ankle and foot injuries

A

Pillow splint

372
Q

Attempt reduction of a dislocation only when you are sure the injury is a dislocation, when you expect the pt’s arrival at the emergency dept to be delayed or when there is a significant

A

Neurovascular deficit

373
Q

Generally a femur fracture presents with the foot turned outward and the injured limb shortened when compared to

A

The other leg

374
Q

The anterior dislocation presents with the foot turned outward, the hip and knee flexed and the head of the femur sometimes

A

Palpable in the inguinal area

375
Q

Another concern with the knee injury is possible injury to the major blood vessel traversing the area the,

A

Popliteal artery