Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 areas of highest recall?

A
  • CV
  • OB
  • Trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

5 criteria for C-Spine injury

A
  • Neck Pain
  • Severe distracting pain
  • Neuro signs
  • Intoxication
  • LOC at scene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the best way to intubate C-spine injury?

A
  • Manual inline stabilization

- Glidescope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why should N2O be avoided in trauma situations?

A

-It accumulates in closed spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

N2O should not be used in what types of injuries?

A
  • Pneumocephalus
  • Pneumoperitoneum
  • Pneumothorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Succs can increase what if administered after what 3 things?

A
  • Potassium

- Burn, spinal cord or crush injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

After massive transfusions patients can develop what?

A
  • Metabolic alkalosis

- Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If transfusions exceeds 1 unit every 5 minutes, what can be seen?

A

-Cardiac depression due to hypocalcemia (calcium binds to citrate preservatives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hemolytic reactions are recognized by what symptoms?

A
  • Increased temp
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Hemoglobinuremia
  • Oozing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hypothermia problems

A
  • Worsen acid base balance
  • Coagulopathies
  • Increase MI risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a common cause of bleeding after massive transfusion.

A

-Dilutional thrombocytopenia**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Half life of crystalloid? Colloids?

A
  • Crystalloid = 20-30 mins

- Colloids = 3-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lactated ringers is less likely to cause what when compared to NS?

A

-Hyperkalemic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Calcium in LR makes it less compatible with what?

A

-Blood transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of solutions are contraindicated in trauma due to exacerbation of brain damage?

A

-Dextrose solutionns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LR is slightly _____ and with large volumes can aggravate __________

A
  • Hypotonic

- Ceberal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Colloids are effective in rapidly restoring ___________

A

-Intravascular volumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What 2 colloids can cause coagulopathy?

A

-Dextran and hetastarch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of blood can be released to the moribund trauma patient requiring immediate blood transfusion that has not been typed and crossed.

A

-Type O negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What factor decrease by 50% after 2 days in storage? And this decrease causes what?

A
  • Factor VIII

- Dilutional thrombocytopenia

21
Q

Why does a hypovolemic patient need less IV anesthetic? Volatile agent?

A
  • Smaller intravascular volume

- Decreased CO and increased ventilation

22
Q

Best induction agents for hypovolemic trauma patients?

A
  • Ketamine

- Etomidate

23
Q

C-spine injury occurs in ___ of all trauma patients

A

-2%

24
Q

What is the definition of shock?

A

-Circulatory failure = inadequate organ perfusion and oxygenation

25
Q

What is cushing’s triad?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Respiratory disturbances
26
Q

When is cushing’s triad seen?

A

-Late signs preceded by brain herniation

27
Q

What type of meds would be avoided with suspected neuro exam?

A
  • Sedatives

- Analgesia

28
Q

What type of meds produce pupillary dilation?

A

-Anticholinergics

robinol, sprivia, atrovent

29
Q

What triad is present with cardiac tamponade? and what are the symptoms?

A
  • Beck’s triad
  • Neck vein distension
  • Hypotension
  • Muffled heart tones
30
Q

Distended neck veins may signal _________, what med must be avoided?

A
  • Pericardial tamponade

- Diprovan

31
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

-Decrease in at least 10mmHg of BP upon inhalation

32
Q

During a pericardialcentesis what should be monitored and for what?

A
  • ECG

- Needle too far into myocardial tissue

33
Q

What is to be expected with abdominal trauma upon opening of the abdomen?

A

-Hypotension

34
Q

Pelvic fx can lead to what?

A

Hypovolemic shock

35
Q

How much blood loss can occur with femur fx?

A

-3 units

36
Q

What 3 things are seen with a fat embolism

A
  • Elevated serum lipase
  • Fat in urine
  • Thrombocytopenia
37
Q

What should be avoided with extremity reattachment and GA?

A

-Shivering (reduces reperfusion)

38
Q

How is intracranial hypertension controlled?

A
  • Fluid restrictions
  • Diuretics
  • Hypocapnia
39
Q

Hypertension or tachycardia and be treated during intubation with what drugs?

A
  • Lidocaine

- Fentanyl

40
Q

What anesthetic agent increases intracranial pressure?

A

-Ketamine

41
Q

Mild hypothermia can assist in saving what?

A

-Brain tissue with a head injury

42
Q

Injury to which section of the spinal column can cause apnea?

A

-C3,4,5

43
Q

In relation to sensory block, where would the autonomic level be? Motor?

A
Autonomic = 2 above sensory
Motor = 2 below sensory
44
Q

What is autonomic hyperreflexia?

A

-Reaction of the autonomic nervous system to overstimulation.

45
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia signs.

A
  • High BP
  • Change in HR
  • Skin color changes
  • Sweating
46
Q

How can a simple pneumo turn in to a tension pneumo?

A

-Positive pressure (bagging or vent)

47
Q

how would you treat a tension pneumo?

A
  • 14 gauage needle @ 2nd intercostal space at midclavicular line.
  • Then chest tube
48
Q

How to treat hemothorax?

A

-Double lumen tube to isolate bleeding lung from healthy lung

49
Q

What is needed with ARDS?

A
  • High gas flows

- High airway presures