Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

Why might you need to tighten your first tourniquet?

A

Vasoconstriction response after major trauma

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2
Q

How long does it take for irreversible limb ischemia to occur after tourniquet application?

A

About 2 hours

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3
Q

What is RIP(P)AS and what is it used for?

A

Assessment of breathing

Resp. rate
Inspection
Palpitation
(Percussion)
Auscultation
Saturations

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4
Q

What acronym is used for life threatening thoracic injuries?

A

TOMCAT

Tension pneumothorax
Open pneumothorax
Massive haemothorax
Cardiac tamponade
Airway obstruction
Tracheobronchial tree injury

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5
Q

What are the main signs for tension pneumothorax?

A

Tachypnoea
Unequal chest expansion
Hyper-resonant
Absent breath sounds
Reduced saturations
Possible tracheal deviation

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6
Q

Why is tracheal deviation especially concerning with a suspected pneumothorax?

A

Is it a late sign

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7
Q

What treatment and management is important for tension pneumothorax?

A

High flow oxygen

Spontaneously ventilating patient
-Needle thoracocentesis

Ventilated patient
-Finger thoracostomy
-Chest seal

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8
Q

What are the limitations to filtered chest seal dressings?

A

Filters become blocked resealing the wound causing more tension

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9
Q

Where is a tracheobronchial tear most likely to occur?

A

Within one inch of the carina

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10
Q

What is the mortality rate of pelvic fractures?

A

10-30% or up to 50% if shocked

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11
Q

What are the possible local and systemic complications of pelvic #?

A

Local:
Soft tissue injury
Urinary and reproductive system damage
MSK damage
Neurovascular damage

Systemic:
Shock
Sepsis

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12
Q

What are the 4 main objectives for management of pelvic fractures?

A

Prevent re-injury from pelvic motion
Decrease pelvic volume
Tamponade bleeding
Decrease pain

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13
Q

When would you consider a pelvic binder in the absence of specific symptoms and signs in that area?

A

For any suggestive MOI or other injuries requiring large forces it must be considered

The reliability of clinical information in this environment may be poor - have a high index of suspicion

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14
Q

Which part of C-ABCDE does pelvic binder fall into?

A

C - Cat Hem

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15
Q

Why do you not spring or rock the pelvis?

A

It dislodges clots, promotes further bleeding and could cause more bleeding

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16
Q

How much blood can you loose into your pelvic cavity, why?

A

True pelvic volume is 1.5L (stable pelvis) HOWEVER you can loose your entire blood volume. Volume lost increases with structural disruption. It is a wide open space, significant pressure to tamponade the bleeding will not be able to build

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17
Q

What percentage of pelvic fractures are venous/arterial bleeds?

A

Venous - 90%
Arterial - 10%

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18
Q

What is the purpose of pelvic binders, which bleeds are they more likely to be effective against?

A

Binders decrease pelvic volume following pelvic fracture and may improve biomechanical stability reducing mortality and transfusion requirements. More effective against venous and cancellous bone bleeding. Binders will not control arterial bleeds

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19
Q

Apart from a pelvic binder, how else can you immobilise a patient to decrease pelvic volume?

A

Immobilise the legs (tie feet together with blankets inbetween)

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20
Q

What can you use in placement of a pelvic binder if it is not available or will not fit?

A

A bed sheet

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21
Q

What are signs and symptoms of pelvic #?

A

MOI
Pain (Pelvis/Lower back/Groin)
Incontinence/urge to pass urine
Gross haematuria
Asymmetry of Anterior Superior Iliac Spine
Feet position
Shock of unknown cause

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22
Q

What is maximum amount of log rolls you want to perform on a patient with a suspected pelvic fracture?

A

10-15

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23
Q

When would you place a pelvic binder on a patient who is presenting as a NOF#?

A

High MOI
Patient is haemo-dynamically unstable

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24
Q

What are the long term effects of pelvic trauma?

A

Increased incidence of thrombophlebitis
Intra-pelvic compartment syndrome
Continued bleeding from fracture or injury to pelvic blood vessels
Associated bladder, urethral prostate or vaginal damage is common
Associated thoracic and abdominal injuries occur in 10-20%; massive internal haemorrhage may occur
Sexual organ dysfunction

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25
Q

Where are the majority of your glycogen stores?

A

In the muscles

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26
Q

What produces the most red blood cells, why is this relevant for trauma?

A

The bones, specifically red bone marrow in the trabecular bone. Fractures can lead to catastrophic haemorrhage even without vascular damage

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27
Q

What are the possible complications of fractures?

A

Internal bleeding (+compartment syndrome)
External bleeding
Infection (e.g. osteomyelitis)
Nerve damage (+/- loss of function)
Tissue damage

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28
Q

What are the priorities of fracture management?

A

Control blood loss
Expose (Clothing, jewellery etc.)
Access neurovascular system
Splintage/immobilisation
Analgesia

Open fractures - rinse with water or saline and cover (photo first)
Retraction of bone under skin (with documentation)

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29
Q

What is the Brisance effect?

A

The shattering effect or explosive blasts

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30
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Increased pressure within a closed osteofascial compartment leading to impaired circulation. It is a surgical emergency

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31
Q

What are the most common site of compartment syndromein adults and children, where can it occur?

A

Lower leg in adults, humerus and forearm in paeds - but it can occur in any muscle

32
Q

What can cause compartment syndrome?

A

Fractures
Burns
Crush injuries
Thrombosis
Infections
Tight casts
Splints

33
Q

What is Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES)

A

Presence of fat particles in the micro-circulation, causing tissue damage & systemic inflammatory response causing pulmonary, neurological and renal systems

34
Q

What causes FES?

A

Most commonly orthopaedic trauma - can present up to 10 days after

35
Q

What are some examples of primary and secondary damage caused by TBIs?

A

Primary:
Scalp lacerations
Skull fractures
Cerebral contusions
Cerebral lacerations
Intracranial haemorrhage
Diffuse axonial injuries

Secondary:
Ischaemia
Hypoxia
Cerebral swelling
Infection

36
Q

What are early and late signs of an increased ICP?

A

Early signs
- Headache
- Vomiting
- Deterioration in GCS, Pupil changes

Late signs
- Continued deterioration in conscious level
- Abnormal flexion or extension to pain/spontaneously
- Impaired brainstem reflexes
- Increase in systolic BP and widening pulse pressure
- Bradycardia
- Slowing of respiration

37
Q

What are the characteristics of extradural haematomas?

A

Bleeding between the skull and the dura mater
Arterial bleed – high pressure, rapid expansion
85% associated with skull fracture
Requires rapid decompression
Good prognosis if evacuated as an emergency

Blood trapped between the skull and dura, showing the classic biconvex (bow-shape) outline on the right of the brain (left as viewed). Some mid-line shift.

38
Q

What are the charcteristics of subdural haematomas?

A

Bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Associated with high energy impact
Venous blood – slow, insidious expansion
Found in 30% of severe TBI
Requires surgical decompression
Outcome variable

39
Q

What are the characteristics of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding occurs within the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid membrane and pia mater
Traumatic different from spontaneous or aneurysmal SAH
Most likely causes (73%) are high speed injuries such as motor vehicle collision.

40
Q

What are the 3 Hs of pre-hospital TBI treatment?

A

Treat and prevent:

Hypoxia
Hypotension
Hyperventilation

41
Q

What is the indication for TXA for head injury patients?

A

Patients aged 18 or over who have a known or suspected head injury where GCS is 12 or less and the injury has occured within the last 3 hours

42
Q

What are some common charcteristics of secondary spinal injuries?

A

Secondary injury with a progression level of up to 4 segments may occur in a few days and may continue for a few weeks

Spinal swelling and secondary ischaemia

Loss of spinal autoregulation

Hypotension and hypoxia are very significant

Release of excitatory amino acids (Glutamate), activation of NMDA receptors, and other cytotoxic substances resulting in cellular hypoxia and apoptosis

43
Q

What percentage of spinal injury patients also have head injuries?

A

25%

44
Q

What percentage of spinal injury patients sustain secondary injury during transportation and early management?

A

Up to 25%

45
Q

What may mask spinal and head injuries?

A

Drugs/alcohol intoxication
Distraction injuries

46
Q

Will spinal injuries usually result in bradycardia or tachycardia, why?

A

Usually eventually bradycardia

A spinal injury disrupts the descending spinal pathway

This results in an underactive sympathetic nervous system, which in turn means the parasympathetic system is unopposed.

47
Q

What is the bulbocavernosus reflex (BCR)?

A

The bulbocavernosus reflex (BCR) is a well-known somatic reflex that is useful for gaining information about the state of the sacral spinal cord segments.

The BCR traditionally involves contraction of the bulbo- and ischiocavernosus pelvic floor muscles, often referred to as the ‘bulbocavernosus muscle’, in response to stimulation of the glans penis or clitoris.

48
Q

What is central cord syndrome?

A

Central cord syndrome (also known as central cervical cord syndrome) is the most common form of an “incomplete spinal cord injury”—one in which the spinal cord’s ability to transmit some messages to or from the brain is damaged or reduced below the site of injury to the spinal cord.

Presents with:
Sensory loss - Cape like distribution (upper extremities and thorax with sacrum spared)
Motor loss - Weakness that is more prominent in the upper extremities than lower extremities)
Autonomic regulation - Loss of bowel and bladder. Orthostatic hypotension may also be seen

49
Q

What usually causes central cord syndrome?

A

Patients over 50years of age: Hyperextension with a previous history of degenerative changes in the spinal canal

Patients under 40years of age: High-velocity trauma (RTC, skiing, etc.)

50
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

A rare type of incomplete SCI usually seen in penetrating trauma, including knife and gunshot wounds.
It can also occur with the loss of vascular supply due to a herniation or oedema to a hemisection.

Presents with:
Ipsilateral loss of motor function, ipsilateral loss of sensation, and proprioception and contralateral loss of pain and temperature

Symptoms are due to a lesion involving the corticospinal, dorsal column, and spinothalamic tracts, respectively

51
Q

What is anterior cord syndrome?

A

A rare incomplete SCI that accounts for approximately 1–3% of spinal injuries, it is caused by decreased vascular perfusion to the anterior spinal artery, which supplies the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord or increased direct pressure on the spinal cord caused by compression trauma or “over-flexion.”

First signs are bilateral loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation, which is dominant to lower extremities

Also acute severe back pain, loss of neurologic function (bladder and bowel)

52
Q

What is posterior cord syndrome?

A

An incomplete spinal injury that affects the posterior aspect of the spinal cord containing dorsal column fibers.
Typically involves loss of proprioception and vibratory sensation with preserved motor function

Presents with:
Sensation of “electric shocks” running down their spine (Lhermitte’s sign)
Causes include vascular compromise to the posterior spinal artery, trauma, multiple sclerosis (MS), vitamin B12 deficiency, and syphilis

53
Q

Which cord syndromes have the worst prognoses?

A

Anterior and posterior

54
Q

What are the differences between spinal and neurogenic shock?

A

Neurogenic shock means the entire nervous system is in shock
Spinal shock – just the spinal system is affected

55
Q

What is autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Defined as a sudden uncontrolled rise in BP(SBP can reach 250-300mmhg) with a pathological response to sympathetic stimuli (stimuli triggers a sympathetic response below level of lesion. Vasoconstriction below level of lesion causes hypertension and triggers baroreceptor mediated bradycardia). This occurs suddenly and it’s a medical emergency

Causes include constipation and urine retention.

Symptoms includes headache, sweating/shivering, chest tightness

56
Q

How soon after a spinal injury does autonomic dysreflexia present?

A

It can appear during the first year of injury but it is unusual during the first month.

57
Q

What are the 6 Bs of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Bladder
Bowel
Back passage issues ( haemoorhoids )
Boils
Bones
Baby (breastfeeding , pregnancy , sexual intercourse)

58
Q

With what spinal lesion positions does autonomic dysreflexia usually present?

A

Occurs usually in Lesions above T6 but can occur with lesions above T10

59
Q

What kind of stimuli can trigger the sympathetic respinse characteristic of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Faecal impaction, bladder distension, bladder infection, cold or draught on skin, pressure sores, sharp objects pressing on skin

60
Q

When would you not carry out full immobilisation of suspected spinal injury patients?

A

Do not carry out or maintain full-inline spinal immobilisation if they are at low risk for a cervical spine injury: i.e.
pain-free, and able to rotate their neck 45 degrees to left and right

61
Q

What many contraindicate a spinal collar?

A

Airway compromise or known spinal deformities

62
Q

What is the ASIA impairement scale?

A
63
Q

What is the muscle strength scale?

A

Plus NT (not testable due to immobilisation/pain/refusal)

64
Q

What is needed for spinal clearance?

A

Alert GCS 15/15
No sedation, drink or drugs on board
No pain
No neurological deficit

Only by qualified specialist - usually neurosurgeon.

65
Q

What is the Decreasing Spinal cord Perfusion pressure scale?

A
66
Q

What part of the primary survey do internal haemorrhages and non-catastrophic external haemorrhages come under?

A

Circulation

Or as part of full secondary survey

67
Q

How should airway be assessed for trauma?

A

Listen for patency:
Speaking/shouting
Noisy airflow (stridor, wheeze, snoring, gurgling)
No airflow

Look for obvious obstructions:
Facial injuries
Obvious foreign bodies
Vomit
Blood
Burns/oedema

Feel for air movement

68
Q

How should breathing be assessed during the trauma primary survey?

A

Assess rate (approx if time critical), depth and quality of respirations (ideally on approach)

Assess saturations

Expose if necessary and look (TWELVE)
-Trachael deviation
-Wounds, bruising, swelling, obvious flail segments/fracture
-Emphysema
-Laryngeal crepitus (should be present)
-Veins distended
-Everything else - Tensions, pneomos/haemos

FEEL Hands on chest
-Equal and bilateral chest rise
-Flail segments
-Pain

AUSCULTATE

69
Q

How should circulation be assessed during trauma?

A

Reassess any previously controlled catastrophic haemorrhages

Assess patient colour - central and peripheral

Assess radial and peripheral pulses with heart rate and capillary refill

Assess patient’s temperature and texture to touch

Blood pressure, ECG can be done here or in secondary survey

Assess for internal bleeds, treat with:
-Splinting
-Fluids
-TXA

70
Q

What is considered catastrophic haemorrhage?

A

Life threatening external haemorrhage

71
Q

How should disability be assessed during trauma?

A

Full GCS

Pupils

Blood glucose would most likely be assessed during secondary survey

72
Q

How should exposure be assessed during trauma?

A

Assess temperature

Expose patient preserving dignity

73
Q

What kind of pelvic fractures may result from anterior-posterior compression?

A

Open book/sprung pelvis
- Broken symphysis

74
Q

What kind of pelvic fractures may result from lateral compression?

A

Windswept pelvis
-internal rotation of one or both of the hemi-pelvises

75
Q

What kind of pelvic fractures may result from vertical shear?

A

Malgaigne fracture/bucket handle fracture
-disruption of bony ring and vertical displacement of a hemi-pelvis

76
Q

What are the heateful 8 of exsanguination?

A

ALPHA PVC

A-Air hunger
L-Low/falling CO2
P-Pale
H-Hypotension
A-Abnormal sensorium

P-Pulse fast or slow
V-Venous collapse
C-Clammy