Translation Flashcards

1
Q

mRNA is translated in the _ to _ direction and protein synthesis occurs from __ to __.

A
  • mRNA translated in the 5’ to 3’ direction

- protein synthesis occurs from N-terminus to C-terminus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

synonyms

A

codons that specify the same amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

degeneration of the codon

A
  • amino acids specified by more than one codon
  • one advantage of the genetic code: degeneracy of the codon minimizes effect of mutations
  • many mutations at the third position are silent mutations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 stop codons

A
  • UAG (amber)
  • UAA (ochre)
  • UGA (opal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens with mutations at the 2nd codon position?

A
  • since purines (R) are all mostly polar and pyrimidines (Y) are all mostly hydrophobic, swapping an R for an R or a Y for a Y produces a smaller effect
  • R–Y switch needed for a big change in amino acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

open reading frames (ORF)

A
  • 3 possible reading frames for mRNA for a total of 6 possible reading frames for DNA
  • only one reading frame will encode the protein
  • AUG start codon indicates the beginning of ORF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

frameshift vs. nonframeshift mutations

A
  • frameshift: insertion or deletion of 1 or 2 bases; meaning of entire protein is lost
  • nonframeshift: an entire codon is inserted or deleted; more similar to original and may have profound or minimal effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tRNA (transfer RNA)

A
  • at least one tRNA exists for every amino acid
  • make up approx. 15% of the RNA pool
  • average 80 nucleotides long
  • 4 short segments fold into double helix, forming cloverleaf structure
  • further folding into L shape held by H bonds
  • have only 13 invariant nucleotides and 8 semi-invariant nucleotides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the parts of the tRNA molecule beginning at the 5’ end.

A
  • 5’ end
  • acceptor stem
  • D (dihydrouridine) stem and D loop
  • anticodon stem, anticodon, anticodon loop
  • variable loop
  • T stem, T loop
  • CCA attached to 3’ end
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

isoaccepting tRNAs

A
  • tRNA recognizes multiple codons that specify the same amino acid
  • e.g. GmAA carries Phe and can recognize both UUC and UUU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the wobble hypothesis

A
  • pairing at position 1 and 2 are watson-crick but position 3 can be non watson-crick (wobble position)
  • wobble position at third position (3’) of codon but first position (5’) on anticodon
  • allows the same tRNA to recognize multiple codons that differ in only the wobble position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

possible wobble anticodon (5’) - codon (3’) base pairs in bacteria

A
(anticodon base can pair with...)
- A: U
- C: G
- G: C or U
- U: A or G
- I: A or C or U
(in eukaryotes the only difference is that U only binds to A and I cannot bind to A)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

tRNA charging

A
  • attachment of the correct amino acid to the 3’ end of tRNA by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (aaRS)
  • [amino acid + ATP] carboxyl group of amino acid linked to AMP
  • [aminoacyl-AMP] adenylated amino acid linked to -OH on sugar of 3’ tRNA
  • [aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP] amino acid and tRNA linked by ester linkage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (aaRS)

A
  • enzymes involved in tRNA charging
  • activation of amino acid for protein synthesis
  • class I aminoacylates at the 2’–OH
  • class II aminoacylates at the 3’–OH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

aaRS editing

A
  • editing capabilities in case of mistakes
  • after the amino acid is linked to AMP, aaRS forces it from synthesis site into its second pocket (editing site)
  • excludes correct amino acid
  • keeps closely related but incorrect amino acid and removes it from AMP/tRNA
  • increases tRNA charging accuracy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

prokaryotic ribosomes (70S)

A
  • composed of 50S large subunit and 30S small subunit
  • 50S: 23S and 5S rRNA + 33 proteins
  • 30S: 16S rRNA + 21 proteins
17
Q

eukaryotic ribosomes (80S)

A
  • composed of 60S large subunit and 40S small subunit
  • 60S: 5S, 5.8S and 28S rRNA + 49 proteins
  • 40S: 18S rRNA + 33 proteins
18
Q

small ribosomal subunit vs. large subunit function

A
  • small subunit: channel threads mRNA, matches tRNAs to codon
  • large subunit: channel for growing polypeptide chain, catalyzes peptide bond formation
19
Q

16S rRNA

A
  • structural role, scaffold for protein binding
  • 3’ end: translation initiation + S1 & S2 proteins
  • 30S-50S interaction + tRNA interaction in A&P sites
  • stabilizes correct codon-anticodon pairing
20
Q

23S rRNA

A
  • structural role, scaffold for protein binding
  • 30S-50S interaction + tRNA interaction in A&P sites
  • proton acceptor during peptidyl transferase reaction
  • a ribozyme: catalyzes peptide bond formation
21
Q

Shine Dalgarno sequence

A
  • bacterial mRNA translation
  • base pairs with 3’ end of 16S rRNA at anti-shine dalgarno sequence (CCU CCU)
  • upstream of AUG start site at -16 position
  • 3-10 nucleotides long
  • appears in front of every translation start site (polycistronic)
22
Q

initiation in prokaryotes

A

1) ribosome reactivation
- IF-1 and IF-3 bind to the 30S subunit and block the A site
2) formation of 30S initiation complex
- IF-2 + GTP binds
- Shine Dalgarno on mRNA interacts with anti-Shine Dalgarno on 16S rRNA of 30S subunit
- fMet-tRNAfmet docks to P site and binds to AUG start codon of mRNA
3) formation of 70S initiation complex
- binding of fMet-tRNAfmet triggers release of IF-1 and IF-3
- IF-2 hydrolyzes GTP into GDP + Pi
- 50S subunit joins

23
Q

elongation in prokaryotes

A

1) binding of substrate
- aa-tRNAaa + EF-Tu + GTP complex binds to A site
- if amino acid is correct, EF-Tu will hydrolyze GTP to GDP and release tRNA
2) transpeptidation
- amino acid at P site transferred to amino acid at A site, catalyzed by 23S rRNA (peptidyl transferase ribozyme)
3) translocation/ratcheting
- 30S subunit turns 7-8 degrees clockwise, moving mRNA and tRNA
- tRNA moves 1 full site in 50S subunit and 1/2 site in 30S subunit
- GTP - EF-G power stroke moves 30S tRNA the other 1/2 site
- 30S subunit returns into original position

24
Q

termination in prokaryotes

A

Phase 1:
- stop codon (UAG, UAA, or UGA) enters A site
- RF-1 binds to UAG or UAA, RF-2 bins to UGA or UAA
- RF-3 comes in with GDP, GDP dissociates from RF-3 and GTP takes its place
- hydrolysis of GTP causes RF-1, RF-2 and RF-3 to dissociate
Phase 2:
- peptidyl transferase transfers polypeptide to H2O instead of amino acid
- peptide is released from ribosome
Phase 3:
- tRNA and RFs dissociate, mRNA released (GTP driven)

25
Q

initiation in eukaryotes (difference from prokaryotes)

A
  • instead of Shine Dalgarno, the 5’ cap along with eIF4E&4G with other eIFs form the 43S initiation complex
  • initiator tRNA moves along mRNA searching for AUG start codon and stops at Kozak sequence at which point various eIFs are released and large subunit binds
26
Q

List the prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic component that:

  • binds aminoacyl-tRNA
  • promotes translocation
  • recycling of EFs
A
  • binds aminoacyl-tRNA: EF-Tu in prokaryotes and eEF-1 in eukaryotes
  • promotes translocation: EF-G in prokaryotes and eEF-2 in eukaryotes
  • recycling of EFs: EF-Ts in prokaryotes and eEF-1 in eukaryotes
27
Q

prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic release factors

A
  • prokaryotes: RF-1, RF-2 and RF-3

- eukaryotes have only one RF

28
Q

The 30S initiation complex is composed of…

A

30S subunit + IF-1 + IF-2 + IF-3 +mRNA + fMet-tRNAfMet + GTP

29
Q

Which translation factors bind to GTP?

A
  • IF-2
  • EF-Tu
  • EF-G
  • RF-3
30
Q

Post translational modifications

A
  • cleavage of initiator Met
  • cleavage of signal sequences
  • addition of cofactors
  • glycosylation, acetylation, phosphorylation
  • multi subunit proteins assemble
  • transportation to site of action
31
Q

ubiquitin cycle

A
  • start with monomeric ubiquitin
  • activate it (E1)
  • conjugate together and add bad protein (E2)
  • use 26S proteosome and ATP to release short peptide fragments and polyubiquitin chain
  • polyubiquitin chain broken into monomeric ubiquitin