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Blood Bank > Transfusion Transmitted Diseases (TTD) > Flashcards

Transfusion Transmitted Diseases (TTD) Flashcards

1
Q

The following are confirmatory tests used to detect false-positives EXCEPT?

  • PCR
  • Western Blot
  • RIPA
  • RIBA
  • None of the above
A

None of the above

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2
Q

Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver?

True / False

A

True

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3
Q

The following are classic symptoms of hepatitis EXCEPT?

  • Jaundice
  • Dark urine
  • Splenomegaly
  • Malaise
A
  • Splenomegaly
  • Classic symptoms: Jaundice, dark urine, hepatomegaly, anorexia, malaise, fever, nausea, abdominal pain and vomiting.*
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4
Q

Which of the following Hepaptitis viruses are transmitted via the fecal/oral route?

  • HAV
  • HEV
  • HCV
  • HBV
A
  • Hep A and Hep E
    • HAV and HEV
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5
Q

Which of the following Hep. viruses are transmitted parenterally?

  • HBV
  • HCV
  • HDV
  • HGV (HB-C)
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

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6
Q

What testing is used to detect non-A and non-B Hepatitis?

  • PCR
  • WB
  • ALT
  • RIPA
A

ALT (Alanine aminotransferase testing)

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7
Q

Belongs to the Picornaviridae family of viruses?

  • Hep B
  • Hep C
  • Hep A
  • Hep D
A

Hep. A

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8
Q

Hep. A virus is shed in the feces during the incubation period of?

  • 30 days
  • 14 days
  • 28 days
  • 21 days
A

28 days

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9
Q

Belongs to the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?

  • Hep C
  • Hep E
  • Hep A
  • Hep B
A

Hep B

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10
Q

The first marker to appear in Hep B infection is?

How is this detected?

A

HBV DNA

PCR

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11
Q

Which of the following regarding Hep. B antigens is INCORRECT?

  • HBsAg: On the outer envelope of the environment and is detectable 2 - 12 weeks after exposure and undetectable 12 - 20 weeks after HBsAb production.
  • HBcAg: Present in serum but detectable
  • HBeAg: Disappears before HBsAg in recovering patients (convalescence)
  • None of the above
A

HBcAg: Present in serum but UNdetectable

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12
Q

The HBIG and vaccine are administered after ______ and within _____ of birth.

A
  • exposure
  • 12 hours
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13
Q

What has been used as the first pathogen intervetion and used to treat albumin since 1948?

  • Heat activation
  • Heat treatment
  • Heat inactivation
  • Heated detergent
A

Heat inactivation

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14
Q

This is the most common for of Hepatitis?

A

Hep A

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15
Q

60 - 70% develop chronic liver disease

A

Hep C

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16
Q

Can be transmitted via needle stick, hemodialysis, human bite, tattoo, body piercing, transplant, transfusion, perinatally.

A

Hep C

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17
Q

Compared to HBV alone, this causes a more severe acute disease, with a higher risk of fulminant hepatitis with a lower risk of chronic hepatitis.

A

Hep D

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18
Q

Which of the following statesments regarding HIV is NOT true?

  • HIV 1 & 2 recognized as etiologic agents of AIDS
  • Retrovirus with an envelope of glycoproteins, core proteins, inner viral RNA core and reverse transciptase.
  • Enters cells by binding virus glyocoprotein 120 to cell receptors.
  • CD4+ lymhs, monocytes and other non-antigen presenting cells have glycoprotein 120 receptors.
A

CD4+ lymhs, monocytes and other non-antigen presenting cells have glycoprotein 120 receptors.

Correct statement is: CD4+ lymhs, monocytes and other antigen presenting cells have glycoprotein 120 receptors.

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19
Q

When is a patient calssified as having clinical AIDS?

  • CD4 count <200/uL
  • CD4 count <100/uL
  • CD4 count <300/uL
  • CD4 count <1000/uL
A

CD4 count <200/uL

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20
Q

What test is used for the qualitative detection of HIV 1 and HIV 2?

  • RIBA
    Western Blot
  • RIA
  • EIA
A

EIA

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21
Q

What are the confirmatory tests for HIV 1 and HIV 2?

  • HIV-2 EIA combo test
  • HIV-1 Indirect immunoflourescence assay
  • HIV RNA NAT
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

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22
Q

What HIV markers are detected together? During which phases?

A
  • Anti-p24
  • Anti-gp41
  • Acute to AIDS
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23
Q

Human T-cell Lymphotropic Viruses (HTLV) Type I & II are best described as?

  • Retroviruses
  • DNA Viruses
  • RNA Retroviruses
  • RNA Viruses
A

RNA Retroviruses

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24
Q

HTLV-I and HTLV-II are associated with the following infections EXCEPT?

  • Pneumonia
  • Tachycardia
  • Bronchitis
  • Unrinary infections
A

Tachycardia

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25
Q

Is associated with a progressive neurological disoder known as ______ ___ associated myelopathy or tropical spastic paraparesis.

A

HTLV-I

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26
Q

HTLV-II is linked with uvetis, infective dermatitis of children, Sjorgens syndrome, polymyositis, and facial nerve palsy?

True / False

A

FALSE

HTLV-I is linked with uvetis, infective dermatitis of children, Sjorgens syndrome, polymyositis, and facial nerve palsy

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27
Q

HTLV-I is transmitted?

  • Parenterally (blood transfusion/drug abuse)
  • Sexually (most common)
  • Vertically (breast feeding)
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

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28
Q

WNV is a member of the Flaviviridae virus family?

True / False

A

False

WNV is a member of the Flavivirus family

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29
Q

West Nile Virus can be described as?

  • Member of the the Flavivirus family
  • Human, avian, and equine neuropathogen
  • A ss RNA lipid-enveloped virion
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

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30
Q

West Nile Virus is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier and causing?

A
  • West Nile Encephalitis
  • West Nile menigitis
  • West Nile menigoencephalitis
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31
Q

How is WNV transmitted?

A

Mosquito bites human after feeding from infected birds

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32
Q

Once infected with WNV there is no treatment only supportive therapy?

True / False

A

True

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33
Q

Cytomegalovirus is a member of which virus group?

A

Herpes virus group

34
Q

CMV can remain latent in tissues and leukocytes for years?

True / False

A

True

35
Q

All of the following are individuals at moderate risk of CMV EXCEPT?

  • Solid organ transplant recipient
  • Persons w/ HIV
  • May require allogenic BM transplant
  • Fetuses
A

Fetuses and poeple who have had an allogenic BM transplant are HIGH RISK

36
Q

How is CMV transmitted?

A

Contact with infected body fluids

37
Q

Antibodies to CMV last a lifetime and cn be detected by?

  • ELISA
  • Flourescence assays
  • Hemagglutination
  • Latex agglutination
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

38
Q

Active CMV infection can be detected by?

A

Viral culture of urine, throat swabs and tissue samples.

39
Q

There is a commecially available treatment for CMV?

True / False

A

False

40
Q

EBV belongs to which virus family?

A

Herpes

41
Q

EBV is known as?

  • The kissing disease
  • infecious mononuclosis
  • Fifth disease
  • The 1st and 2nd choice are correct
  • All of the above
A
  • The kissing disease
  • infecious mononuclosis
42
Q

True or False

EBV is not detected by current technques and could cause severe consequences in immunocompromised and organ transplant patients

A

True

43
Q

Human Parvovirus (B19) is what type of virus?

  • ss DNA enveloped
  • ss DNA non-enveloped
  • ss RNA enveloped
  • ss RNA retrovirus
A

ss DNA non-enveloped

44
Q

This virus is also known as “Fifth’s Disease”?

What else is this diease known as?

A
  • Human Parvovirus (B19)
  • Slapped cheek syndrome
45
Q

B19 is able to invade what type of cells in bone marrow?

A

RBC precursor cells

46
Q

What antigen is the receptor for the Parvovirus B19?

  • P antigen
  • D antigen
  • E antigen
  • C antigen
A

P antigen

47
Q

The followinf statements regarding parbovirus are true EXCEPT?

  • Infection is sometimes complicated by severe aplastic anemia caused by lysis of erythroid precursors
  • Spread through respiratory droplets / aerosols
  • Often spead by bood borne transmission
  • No vaccine is available
A

Rarely spead by bood borne transmission

48
Q

Which human herpes virus causes 6th disease?

What is this also known as?

A

HHV-6

exanthum subitum

49
Q

Human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) is associated with?

A
  • Karposci’s sarcoma (KS)
  • effusion lymphoma
  • multicentric Castleman Disease
50
Q

What is the most freq. source of septic transfusion reactions?

A

PLTs

51
Q

The following are all common symptoms of transfusion associated sepsis.

  • Rigirs
  • fever
  • tachycardia

What are other symptoms?

A
  • Shock
  • lower back pain
  • DIC
  • increase/decrease in systolic pressure
52
Q

Bacterial contanination starts with who and how?

A

The donor though skin contamination at the phlebotomy site or an asymptomatic bacteria

53
Q

Which of the follwing are treatmen options for bacterial contamination?

  • Use of apheresis plts
  • careful phlebotomy techniques
  • phelbotomy diversion
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

54
Q

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema Pallidum, is a spirochete

55
Q

The standarrd serologic tests for syphilis do nto usually detect a donor in the spirochetemia phase who has not yet seroconverted.

True/ False

A

True

56
Q

This is a zoonotic disease and is usually transmitted by the bite of an infected Deer tick?

A

Babesia Microti (Babesiosis)

57
Q

People with Babesiosis are at risk of developing sever complications such as?

  • Tachycardia
  • Liver failure
  • Heart disease
  • Respiratory distress syndrome

Who is at greatest risk?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome (also at risk of DIC and renal failure)

Elderly, asplenic and immunocompromised

58
Q

Transmission of Babesiosis is endemic in? (3)

  • Northeast
  • mid-Atlantic
  • upper Midwestern states
  • East Coast
  • Westnern regions
A
  • Northeast
  • mid-Atlantic
  • upper Midwestern states
59
Q

As there is no specific test for Babesiosis, how is this diagnosed?

A

Geisma or Wright stained thick/thin blood smears cn be examined for intraerythrotic orgnisms

60
Q

How is Babesiosis treated?

A

Antibiotics

Quinine and Clindamycin are very effective

61
Q

What is Trypanasome Cruzi?

A

A flagellate protozoan that is the etiologic cause of Chagas Disease (American Trypanosomiasis)

62
Q

What are the phases of Chagas Disease?

A

Acute

Latent

Chronic

63
Q

In the chronic phase of Chagas disease asymptomatic patients have parasities circulating in the blood stream?

True/ False

A

False

In the latent phase, asymptomatic patients have parasities circulating in the blood stream

Symptoms in the chronic phase - chills, intermittent fever, edema, lymphadenopathy, myocardiitis, GI symptoms.

64
Q

How is the Acute phase of Chagas identified?

A

Giesma / Wright stained blood smears

65
Q

How is the Chronic phase of Chagas identified?

A

Serological test like complement fixation, immunoflouresence, and ELISA

66
Q

What test is FDA approved to screen blood, tissue and organ donors?

A

Abbott Prism Chagas, detects Abs to T. Cruzi

67
Q

How is disease aquired?

A

Reduviid bug

68
Q

Where is Chagas disease endemic to?

A

Central and South America

and some areas of Mexico

69
Q

How is medication for Chagas obtained?

A

By contacting the CDC

70
Q

This is an intra-erythrocytic protozoan infection?

A

Malaria

71
Q

Malaria is caused by serveral forms of Plasmodium which are?

  • P. malaria
  • P. falciparum
  • P. vivax
  • P. ovale
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

72
Q

How is Malaria transmitted?

A

Female Anophelese mosquito

73
Q

How is malaria diagnosed?

A

Blood smear

74
Q

Chloroquine is effective for chemoprophylaxis and treatment of all four species of Plasmodium EXCEPT?

  • P. malaria
  • P. falciparum
  • P. vivax
  • P. ovale
  • All of the above
A

P. vivax

75
Q

One of the transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE)?

What is the causative agent of all TSEs?

A

CJD

Prion

76
Q

Classic CJD is ?

Sporadic

Inherited

Iatrogenic

All of the above

A

All of the above

77
Q

What is the most common form of CJD?

A

Sporadic - 85 - 90% generally occuring in middle age

78
Q

How is iatrogenic CJD aquired?

A

Through contaminated neurosurgical equipment, cornea or dura mater transplants or humaam derived pituary growth hormones.

79
Q

What are the lipid enveloped viruses?

A
  • HIV
  • HBV
  • HCV
  • HTLV
  • EBV
  • CMV
  • HHV - 6
  • HHV - 8
80
Q

What inactivates the lipid enveloped viruses?

A

Organic solvents and detergents

81
Q

Heat treatment, solvent/detergent treatment and nanofiltration are not effective against?

A

HAV and Parvovirus (non-lipid enveloped)

Blood Bank (8 decks)

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