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Tech 6 > Transfusion Medicine > Flashcards

Transfusion Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

blood coagulation

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2
Q

What are 2 forms or of hemostasis?

A

primary and secondary

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3
Q

What is primary hemostasis?

A

a form of coagulation where the vessel spasms and begins the formation of a platelet plug

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4
Q

what are some examples of primary hemostatic coagulation tests?

A

platelet counts, bleeding times (buccal mucosal bleeding time, toe nail bleed time)

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5
Q

Which coagulation test checks the platelet numbers?

A

platelet count

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6
Q

Which coagulation test checks for platelet function?

A

bleeding time

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7
Q

What is secondary hemostasis?

A

when coagulation cascade ends in fibrin formation

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8
Q

What are some example of Secondary Hemostatic Coagulation test?

A

capillary coagulation, ACT, PT, PTT, PIVKA

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9
Q

what test is commonly used to dx IMHA?

A

autoagglutination/saline test

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10
Q

how do you perform a saline test that tests for autoagglutination?

A

1 gt blood from EDTA tube with 1 gt of saline, mix and look for agglutination within 1 minutes

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11
Q

What is crossmatching?

A

a procedure of mixing patient sample with donor sample to see if donor blood is compatible with recipient blood

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12
Q

how much does a dog need to weigh in order to donate blood?

A

> 50 lbs

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13
Q

at which age should a dog retire who donates blood?

A

7 years

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14
Q

Which species needs to be sedated in order to donate blood and why?

A

cats, due to behavior/being fractious

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15
Q

why do we normally want to AVOID sedation if possible when a pet is donating blood?

A

because it can interfere with platelet function

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16
Q

how much blood can a dog donate and how often?

A

can donate up to 16 mls/kg every 3 weeks

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17
Q

how much does a cat need to weigh to donate blood?

A

> 8 lbs

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18
Q

How much blood can a cat safely donate and how often?

A

40-60 mls every 3 weeks (11-13 mls/kg)

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19
Q

when typing animals, how is blood type determined?

A

by the specific antigens found on the surface of the RBCs

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20
Q

name the 3 categories of antibodies

A

naturally occurring, acquired, pathogenic

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21
Q

what is another name for Neonatal Isoerythrolysis?

A

alloimmune hemolytic anemia

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22
Q

what is NI (neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

what a negative female breeds with a positive male and the offspring have positive blood. the offspring absorbs antibodies to positive blood through moms negative colostrum which causes hemolytic dz and eventually death of the offspring

23
Q

What does DEA stand for?

A

Dog Erythrocyte Antigen

24
Q

What is the most common canine blood type?

A

DEA 4 positive

25
Q

What is the rarest canine blood type?

A

DEA 3 positive

26
Q

Which canine blood types are the ONLY ones (with dog blood) that can have acute hemolytic reactions?

A

DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 negative

27
Q

Why must cats ALWAYS be crossmatched before a transfusion?

A

because they have very strong alloantibodies and with have a reaction with the wrong type

28
Q

What are the 3 feline blood types?

A

A, B, AB

29
Q

which feline blood type contains weak antibodies?

A

Type A

30
Q

Which feline blood type contains strong antibodies?

A

Type B (B=bad!)

31
Q

which feline blood type does not contain antibodies?

A

Type AB

32
Q

What type of cell is responsible for life threatening transfusion reactions?

A

alloantibodies

33
Q

When determining compatibility doing a crossmatch, what will you look for?

A

agglutination or hemolysis

34
Q

Name some common anticoagulants used to mix with blood for a transfusion

A

CPDA, CPD, ACD, Heparin, and Sodium Citrate

35
Q

Which anticoagulants are not recommended for transfusion blood and why?

A

Heparin and Sodium Citrate, because they do not contain any preservatives

36
Q

What fluids can you dilute pRBCs with?

A

0.9% saline

37
Q

What is Fresh Whole Blood (FWB)?

A

blood recently collected from the animal whole, not spun down or separated

38
Q

How long is FWB considered “fresh”?

A

up until after 8 hours of collection

39
Q

What are packed red blood cells (pRBCs)?

A

concentrated source of RBCs that remain in a small amount of plasma post centrifugation of whole blood

40
Q

Why is it important to not transfuse pRBCs in the same line or catheter as LRS?

A

because it will cause clotting (calcium in LRS binds w/anticoagulant)

41
Q

what is the main indication for giving a pRBC transfusion

A

anemia

42
Q

Which blood componant is frozen and contains coagulation factors but no functional platelets and is COMMONLY used?

A

FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma)

43
Q

What are the 2 main types of transfusion reactions?

A

immunological and non-immunological

44
Q

what are the 2 categories of immunological transfusion reactions?

A

hemolytic and non-hemolytic

45
Q

Give some examples of hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

acute hemolytic rxns, delayed hemolytic rxns, neonatal isoerythrolysis

46
Q

give some examples of a non-hemolytic transfusion rxn

A

acute hypersensitivity, immunosuppression, acute leukocyte/platelet hypersensitivity, neonatal thrombocytopenic purpura

47
Q

give some examples of non-immunological reactions

A

circulatory overload, hemolysis (shaking blood bag), bacterial contamination, hypocalcemia, hyperammonia and acidosis, hypothermia, embolism, dz, hemosiderosis

48
Q

when performing vitals on any patient, but especially a transfusion patient, what is extremely important to monitor/observe in addition to TPR?

A

pulse quality (strong, weak, thready, snappy), respiratory quality/effort, patient’s mentation (BAR, QAR, sedated, depressed, sleeping, obtunded)

49
Q

What is the most severe type of transfusion reaction?

A

Acute Hemolytic Reaction

50
Q

How many days post-transfusion can a delayed hemolytic reaction occur?

A

3-21 days post transfusion

51
Q

How can you avoid an acute hemolytic reaction

A

crossmatching and blood typing

52
Q

What species most commonly has an acute hemolytic reaction?

A

cats

53
Q

What reactions can be seen with cardiovascular patients and how would you treat it?

A

volume overload, stop transfusion and possibly give Lasix

Tech 6 (3 decks)

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