Transfusion Flashcards
The source of antibody heterogeneity is:
a. gene rearrangement in the peripheral immune organs
b. gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
c. gene insertion in the fetus
d. hereditary mutation
The source of antibody heterogeneity is:
a. gene rearrangement in the peripheral immune organs
b. gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
c. gene insertion in the fetus
d. hereditary mutation
What is the most common cause of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
a. bacterial contamination
b. ABO errors
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positive red blood cells
What is the most common cause of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
a. bacterial contamination
b. ABO errors
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positive red blood cells
Regarding platelet transfusion, anti-HLA antibodies play a key role in the development of
a. posttransfusion infection
b. refractoriness to platelet transfusions
c. posttransfusion purpura
d. neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
Regarding platelet transfusion, anti-HLA antibodies play a key role in the development of
a. posttransfusion infection
b. refractoriness to platelet transfusions
c. posttransfusion purpura
d. neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
Which is the most common type of genetic variants among blood group antigens?
a. frameshift
b. splice site
c. large deletion
d. single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)
Which is the most common type of genetic variants among blood group antigens?
a. frameshift
b. splice site
c. large deletion
d. single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)
Who should be deferred from blood donation?
a. Actually febrile donors
b. Persons just returning from the Zika-endemic areas
c. All of the above
d. Persons who disclose iv. Drug use
Who should be deferred from blood donation?
a. Actually febrile donors
b. Persons just returning from the Zika-endemic areas
c. All of the above
d. Persons who disclose iv. Drug use
Obligatory donor screening test in all developed countries EXCEPT:
a. Lues
b. Hepatitis B (Ag, Ab or both)
c. HIV
d. Hepatic enzyme levels (ALAT, ASAT) or serum bilirubin
Obligatory donor screening test in all developed countries EXCEPT:
a. Lues
b. Hepatitis B (Ag, Ab or both)
c. HIV
d. Hepatic enzyme levels (ALAT, ASAT) or serum bilirubin
Which of the following are accepted definitions of “massive blood loss”?
a. Blood loss of ≥ 150ml/min
b. Replacement of 50% of TBV within 3 hours
c. Transfusion rate ≥ units within a 24h period
d. Replacement of 100% of total blood volume (TBV) within 24h
Which of the following are accepted definitions of “massive blood loss”?
a. Blood loss of ≥ 150ml/min
b. Replacement of 50% of TBV within 3 hours
c. Transfusion rate ≥ units within a 24h period
d. Replacement of 100% of total blood volume (TBV) within 24h
Platelets can be transfused regardless of donor RhD
a. a pregnant women with eclampsia
b. a young man aged 22
c. a woman of childbearing age
d. a twelve-year old girl
Platelets can be transfused regardless of donor RhD
a. a pregnant women with eclampsia
b. a young man aged 22
c. a woman of childbearing age
d. a twelve-year old girl
The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM)..
a. is always harmful for the patient, because it is related to higher incidence of tumor
recurrence
b. has no clinical significance since the universal leukoreduction has been implemented all
over
c. Is always beneficial for the patient, because it is related to better graft survival
d. Can be either beneficial or harmful, depending on the clinical situation
The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM)..
a. is always harmful for the patient, because it is related to higher incidence of tumor
recurrence
b. has no clinical significance since the universal leukoreduction has been implemented all
over
c. Is always beneficial for the patient, because it is related to better graft survival
d. Can be either beneficial or harmful, depending on the clinical situation
The most common inherited bleeding disorder
a. factor XI deficiency
b. Haemophilia A
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
d. Factor VII deficiency
The most common inherited bleeding disorder
a. factor XI deficiency
b. Haemophilia A
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
d. Factor VII deficiency
The most likely source of Yersinia contamination of a red blood cell unit is
a. The skin flora of the donor
b. Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia
c. Contamiation of the plastic bag
d. The skin flora of the laboratory staff
The most likely source of Yersinia contamination of a red blood cell unit is
a. The skin flora of the donor
b. Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia
c. Contamiation of the plastic bag
d. The skin flora of the laboratory staff
Advantages of the subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution, EXCEPT:
a. Can be used in patients without available veins
b. Lack of local side effects
c. Results in higher IgG trough levels
d. Can be advantageous in IgA deficiency
Advantages of the subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution, EXCEPT:
a. Can be used in patients without available veins
b. Lack of local side effects
c. Results in higher IgG trough levels
d. Can be advantageous in IgA deficiency
MHC (HLA) class I complex
a. Is expressed on lymphocytes, dendritic cells and red blood cells
b. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells and red blood cells
c. Is expressed in all nucleated cells
d. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells and lymphocytes
MHC (HLA) class I complex
a. Is expressed on lymphocytes, dendritic cells and red blood cells
b. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells and red blood cells
c. Is expressed in all nucleated cells
d. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells and lymphocytes
The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM) is associated with
a. The living leukocytes transfused by the blood product
b. Soluble factors released during storage
c. Soluble HLA molecules
d. All the above
The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM) is associated with
a. The living leukocytes transfused by the blood product
b. Soluble factors released during storage
c. Soluble HLA molecules
d. All the above
Possible way to collect more plasma for fractionation than whole blood donation
a. To collect more than 450ml whole blood from donors
b. Plasmapheresis
c. To increase the centrifugal force “g” for the better separation in the blood bag
d. Red cell apheresis
Possible way to collect more plasma for fractionation than whole blood donation
a. To collect more than 450ml whole blood from donors
b. Plasmapheresis
c. To increase the centrifugal force “g” for the better separation in the blood bag
d. Red cell apheresis
A person of unknown ABO/RhD type should be transfused with
a. RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
b. RhD positive red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
c. RhD negative red blood cells and O fresh frozen plasma
d. RhD positive red blood cells and O fresh frozen plasma
A person of unknown ABO/RhD type should be transfused with
a. RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
b. RhD positive red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma
c. RhD negative red blood cells and O fresh frozen plasma
d. RhD positive red blood cells and O fresh frozen plasma
Characteristic for intravenous immunoglobulin products; except
a. Contains stabilizer
b. 5 or 10% IgG concentration
c. Produced from pooled plasma of a few thousand blood donors
d. High IgG aggregate contant
Characteristic for intravenous immunoglobulin products; except
a. Contains stabilizer
b. 5 or 10% IgG concentration
c. Produced from pooled plasma of a few thousand blood donors
d. High IgG aggregate contant
Common donor eligibility criteria; except
a. Level of education (secondary school or higher)
b. Weight (eg. More than 50kg)
c. Defined hemoglobin level
d. Age (eg. 18-66 years)
Common donor eligibility criteria; except
a. Level of education (secondary school or higher)
b. Weight (eg. More than 50kg)
c. Defined hemoglobin level
d. Age (eg. 18-66 years)
Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by vWd except:
a. Recombinant VIII factor products
b. Haemate P factor replacement therapy
c. 3. Generation oral contraceptive
d. Oral tranexamic acid
Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by vWd except:
a. Recombinant VIII factor products
b. Haemate P factor replacement therapy
c. 3. Generation oral contraceptive
d. Oral tranexamic acid
The immunogenicity of a red cell antigen indicates
a. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
b. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
c. Its frequency in the population
d. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual for the
giv. .
The immunogenicity of a red cell antigen indicates
a. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
b. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
c. Its frequency in the population
d. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual for the
* *giv..**
The window period of an infection is a time period
a. When there is a 100% safety that the person cannot transmit infections
b. When both antigens and antibodies reach their peak levels
c. When antigens are already cleared but antibodies are not produced yet
d. When the viral nucleic acids are absent
The window period of an infection is a time period
a. When there is a 100% safety that the person cannot transmit infections
b. When both antigens and antibodies reach their peak levels
c. When antigens are already cleared but antibodies are not produced yet
d. When the viral nucleic acids are absent
Which is the maximum benefit that can be expected from a directed blood donation?
a. A family member with hepatitis can be identified
b. Higher safety compared to the general donor pool
c. The donating family member may become a regular donor
d. Family members can learn more about their risks for HIV infection
Which is the maximum benefit that can be expected from a directed blood donation?
a. A family member with hepatitis can be identified
b. Higher safety compared to the general donor pool
c. The donating family member may become a regular donor
d. Family members can learn more about their risks for HIV infection
Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by von Willebrand
disease except
a. oral tranexamic acid
b. recombinant VIII factor products
c. haemate p factor replacement therapy
d. 3. Generation oral contraceptives
Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by von Willebrand
disease except
a. oral tranexamic acid
b. recombinant VIII factor products
c. haemate p factor replacement therapy
d. 3. Generation oral contraceptives
Passenger leukocytes are responsible for all of the following adverse events except
a. hemolysis
b. non-hemolytic febrile reaction
c. anaphylaxia
d. human leukocyte antigens (HLA) immunization
Passenger leukocytes are responsible for all of the following adverse events except
a. hemolysis
b. non-hemolytic febrile reaction
c. anaphylaxia
d. human leukocyte antigens (HLA) immunization
Benefits of autologous blood transfusion except
a. purity, no risk of transmitted disease
b. urgency, available also in urgent situations
c. safety, no risk of transfusion reactions due to incompatibility
d. availability in contrast with donor blood, autologous blood is instantly available and
requires. .
Benefits of autologous blood transfusion except
a. purity, no risk of transmitted disease
b. urgency, available also in urgent situations
c. safety, no risk of transfusion reactions due to incompatibility
d. availability in contrast with donor blood, autologous blood is instantly available and
requires. .
Which blood group is determined by a transferase
a. ABO blood group
b. KELL blood group
c. Duffy blood group
d. RhD blood group
Which blood group is determined by a transferase
a. ABO blood group
b. KELL blood group
c. Duffy blood group
d. RhD blood group
Indications for intraoperative cell salvage in adults and children except
a. major hemorrhage
b. patients with rare blood groups or multiple blood group antibodies
c. surgery where the anticipated blood loss is <20% of the patients estimated blood
volume
d. elective or emergency surgery in patients with risk factors for bleeding
Indications for intraoperative cell salvage in adults and children except
a. major hemorrhage
b. patients with rare blood groups or multiple blood group antibodies
c. surgery where the anticipated blood loss is <20% of the patients estimated blood
* *volume**
d. elective or emergency surgery in patients with risk factors for bleeding
Which is not characteristic for subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution treatment
a. Systemic side effects are infrequent
b. Can be applied at home
c. Can be used only with infusion pump
d. ??
Which is not characteristic for subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution treatment
a. Systemic side effects are infrequent
b. Can be applied at home
c. Can be used only with infusion pump
d. ??
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Syphilis can be transmitted by transfusion
b. Transfusion related bacterial infections are more often related to platelet products than
to red blood cell transfuse…
c. Blood products with bacterial contamination do not always cause severe infections
d. Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely
different clinical symptoms
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Syphilis can be transmitted by transfusion
b. Transfusion related bacterial infections are more often related to platelet products than
to red blood cell transfuse…
c. Blood products with bacterial contamination do not always cause severe infections
d. Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely
different clinical symptoms
Transfusion associated graft versus host disease can be prevented by
a. leukoreduction of the blood components
b. washing the red blood cells
c. freezing thawing of preparation
d. irradiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy
Transfusion associated graft versus host disease can be prevented by
a. leukoreduction of the blood components
b. washing the red blood cells
c. freezing thawing of preparation
d. irradiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy
The positive selection means
a. all macrophages are surviving in lymph nodes if recognizing self antigens
b. all macrophages surviving in lymph nodes if not recognizing self MHC
c. All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizing self MHC
d. All T-cells are killed in the thymus if not recognizing self antigens
The positive selection means
a. all macrophages are surviving in lymph nodes if recognizing self antigens
b. all macrophages surviving in lymph nodes if not recognizing self MHC
c. All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizing self MHC
d. All T-cells are killed in the thymus if not recognizing self antigens
What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?
a. ABO errors
b. Bacterial contamination
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positive red blood cells
What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?
a. ABO errors
b. Bacterial contamination
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positive red blood cells
The optimal rate of blood donation activity (donation/inhabitants)
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 7%
The optimal rate of blood donation activity (donation/inhabitants)
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 7%
The most widespread screening tests to prevent transfusion transmitted infections are:
a. PCR for hepatitis A,B,C,D and E viruses and anti-HIV
b. Anti-Hb’s, anti-HAV, zikavirus PCR, anti HCV, influenza serology
c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology (VDRL), EBV PCR
d. HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilis serology (VDRL)
The most widespread screening tests to prevent transfusion transmitted infections are:
a. PCR for hepatitis A,B,C,D and E viruses and anti-HIV
b. Anti-Hb’s, anti-HAV, zikavirus PCR, anti HCV, influenza serology
c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology (VDRL), EBV PCR
d. HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilis serology (VDRL)
The immunogenicity of a red blood cell antigen indicates:
a. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual negative
for the given antigen
b. Its frequency in the population
c. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
d. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
The immunogenicity of a red blood cell antigen indicates:
a. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual negative
* *for the given antigen**
b. Its frequency in the population
c. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
d. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
Who discovered the ABO blood group system?
Karl Landsteiner
Blood transfusion for a potential organ transplant recipient…?
a. …is contraindicated, because the immunosuppression amplifies the risk of transmission
of infections by blood products
b. …can be performed only by leukoreduced blood products
c. …is obligatory before registration for a transplant waiting list, because the graft survival
of all transfused patients is better
d. …should be indicated after a thorough consideration, because the risk of harmful HLA
sensitization or the potential graft survival advantage is not predictable
Blood transfusion for a potential organ transplant recipient…?
a. …is contraindicated, because the immunosuppression amplifies the risk of transmission
of infections by blood products
b. …can be performed only by leukoreduced blood products
c. …is obligatory before registration for a transplant waiting list, because the graft survival
of all transfused patients is better
d. …should be indicated after a thorough consideration, because the risk of harmful HLA
sensitization or the potential graft survival advantage is not predictable
Which of the following statements are true about volunteer and paid donors?
a. Both types of donations carry equally high risk
b. Patients receiving blood products from volunteer donors carry higher risk of
transmitted infections
c. Patients receiving blood products from paid donors carry higher risk of
transmitted infections
d. In our days, both types of donations are completely free from infectious risk
Which of the following statements are true about volunteer and paid donors?
a. Both types of donations carry equally high risk
b. Patients receiving blood products from volunteer donors carry higher risk of
transmitted infections
c. Patients receiving blood products from paid donors carry higher risk of
transmitted infections
d. In our days, both types of donations are completely free from infectious risk
The most frequent cause of serious lethal transfusion associated adverse events:
a. Infections transmitted by blood transfusions
b. TRALI
c. Incorrect blood component transfused
d. Acute transfusion reactions
The most frequent cause of serious lethal transfusion associated adverse events:
a. Infections transmitted by blood transfusions
b. TRALI
c. Incorrect blood component transfused
d. Acute transfusion reactions
What is the complication that is less likely if HLA-match is perfect in hematopoetic stem cell
transplantation?
a. mucositis
b. fungal infection
c. polyneuropathia
d. GVHD
What is the complication that is less likely if HLA-match is perfect in hematopoetic stem cell
transplantation?
a. mucositis
b. fungal infection
c. polyneuropathia
d. GVHD
What are the most important characteristics of tissue stem cells?
a. unlimited lifespan and plasticity
b. unlimited proliferation capability and plasticity
c. self-preservation and differentiation capability
d. unlimited lifespan and proliferation capability
What are the most important characteristics of tissue stem cells?
a. unlimited lifespan and plasticity
b. unlimited proliferation capability and plasticity
c. self-preservation and differentiation capability
d. unlimited lifespan and proliferation capability
Which therapeutic approach is inappropriate in patents with common variable
immunodeficiency (CIVD)?
a. Subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution
b. Interferon gamma
c. Targeted antibiotic treatment
d. Intravenous immunoglobulin substitution
Which therapeutic approach is inappropriate in patents with common variable
immunodeficiency (CIVD)?
a. Subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution
b. Interferon gamma
c. Targeted antibiotic treatment
d. Intravenous immunoglobulin substitution
The primary immune organs are:
a. Bone marrow and spleen
b. Spleen and thymus
c. Bone marrow and skin
d. Bone marrow and thymus
The primary immune organs are:
a. Bone marrow and spleen
b. Spleen and thymus
c. Bone marrow and skin
d. Bone marrow and thymus
The T-cell receptors are consisting of:
a. Two variable chains
b. One variable and one constant chain
c. Two variable and two constant chains
d. Four variable chains
The T-cell receptors are consisting of:
a. Two variable chains
b. One variable and one constant chain
c. Two variable and two constant chains
d. Four variable chains
Which alleles are not inherited in a co-dominant way?
a. RhD blood group: D and d
b. Duffy blood group: Py-a and Py-b
c. RhCE blood group: C and c
d. ABO blood group: A and B
Which alleles are not inherited in a co-dominant way?
a. RhD blood group: D and d
b. Duffy blood group: Py-a and Py-b
c. RhCE blood group: C and c
d. ABO blood group: A and B
Important information in the history with respect to allo-immunisation
a. previous pregnancies and their process
b. occurrence of autoimmune diseases
c. number of siblings
d. occupation
Important information in the history with respect to allo-immunisation
a. previous pregnancies and their process
b. occurrence of autoimmune diseases
c. number of siblings
d. occupation
The risk of transfusion related potassium toxicity can be decreased by:
a. warming the RBC product to body temperature
b. freezing the RBC product
c. utilising fresh (not older than 1 week) RBc product
d. irradiation
The risk of transfusion related potassium toxicity can be decreased by:
a. warming the RBC product to body temperature
b. freezing the RBC product
c. utilising fresh (not older than 1 week) RBc product
d. irradiation
Diseases frequently causing platelet function alterations except:
a. uraemia
b. paraproteinemia
c. hyperuricemia (gout)
d. liver failure
Diseases frequently causing platelet function alterations except:
a. uraemia
b. paraproteinemia
c. hyperuricemia (gout)
d. liver failure
Indication for albumin support except:
a. autoimmune haemolytic anemia
b. plasmapheresis
c. severe burn
d. nephrotic syndrome
Indication for albumin support except:
a. autoimmune haemolytic anemia
b. plasmapheresis
c. severe burn
d. nephrotic syndrome
HLA class II molecules are expressed on:
a. RBC
b. fibroblasts
c. platelets
d. dendritic cells
HLA class II molecules are expressed on:
a. RBC
b. fibroblasts
c. platelets
d. dendritic cells
A potential donor should be deferred in case, except:
a. of fever
b. of a previous blood donation 6 months earlier
c. of realistic likelihood of intravenous drug use
d. of pregnancy
A potential donor should be deferred in case, except:
a. of fever
b. of a previous blood donation 6 months earlier
c. of realistic likelihood of intravenous drug use
d. of pregnancy
Potential cause of ineffective RBC transfusion except:
a. significant splenomegaly
b. auto/allo immune hemolysis
c. acute autoimmune disease
d. continuous presence of blood loss
Potential cause of ineffective RBC transfusion except:
a. significant splenomegaly
b. auto/allo immune hemolysis
c. acute autoimmune disease
d. continuous presence of blood loss
Preferred safe donor population for blood donation:
a. foreing people with rare blood type
b. voluntary non-remunerated donors
c. paid, repeat donors
d. friends, relatives (for a safer donation)
Preferred safe donor population for blood donation:
a. foreing people with rare blood type
b. voluntary non-remunerated donors
c. paid, repeat donors
d. friends, relatives (for a safer donation)
Sign of brain death:
a. no corneal reflex
b. babinski sign
c. loss of pain sensation
d. all of the above
Sign of brain death:
a. no corneal reflex
b. babinski sign
c. loss of pain sensation
d. all of the above
Function of the Rh blood group proteins
a. complement inactivation
b. cell-cell contact receptor
c. gas transporter
d. ATPase
Function of the Rh blood group proteins
a. complement inactivation
b. cell-cell contact receptor
c. gas transporter
d. ATPase
when should we monitor BP in transfused patient?
every 15 min’
What is the minimal frequency of heart rate control during transfusion
a) Following the transfusion
b) Prior and after each unit transfused
c) Every 15 minutes
d) The frequency is dependent on the actual condition of the patient
What is the minimal frequency of heart rate control during transfusion
a) Following the transfusion
b) Prior and after each unit transfused
c) Every 15 minutes
d) The frequency is dependent on the actual condition of the patient
All of them can undergo autologous blood transfusion except:
a. above 45 kg
b. age > 18 yo
c. woman who was pregnant before
d.
All of them can undergo autologous blood transfusion except:
a. above 45 kg
b. age > 18 yo
c. woman who was pregnant before
d.
Approximate effect on hemoglobin level of 1 unit RBC concentrate in a healthy adult with average body weight without blood loss?
a. approx. 7-8 g/dL
b. approx. 1 g/dL
c. approx. 5 g/dL
d. approx. 2-3 g/dL
Approximate effect on hemoglobin level of 1 unit RBC concentrate in a healthy adult with average body weight without blood loss?
a. approx. 7-8 g/dL
b. approx. 1 g/dL
c. approx. 5 g/dL
d. approx. 2-3 g/dL
Which type of transplantation has the greatest requirement of blood?
a. kidney
b. heart
c. lung
d. liver
Which type of transplantation has the greatest requirement of blood?
a. kidney
b. heart
c. lung
d. liver
Options for living donations, except:
a. genetic relative
b. emotional relative
c. donor with notarised contract
d. participants of a cross-over donation
Options for living donations, except:
a. genetic relative
b. emotional relative
c. donor with notarised contract
d. participants of a cross-over donation
What is the mechanism by which mesenchymal stem cells enhance the regeneration of damaged
tissue:
a. synthesis of trophic and/or anti-apoptotic factors
b. oxygen transport to the site of damage
c. synthesis of pro-coagulation factor
d. replacement of damaged cells of affected tissues
What is the mechanism by which mesenchymal stem cells enhance the regeneration of damaged
tissue:
a. synthesis of trophic and/or anti-apoptotic factors
b. oxygen transport to the site of damage
c. synthesis of pro-coagulation factor
d. replacement of damaged cells of affected tissues
Symptoms of TACO failure (Transfusion Associated Circulatory failure) except:
a. hypoxia
b. bradyarythmia
c. jugular vein distension
d. dyspnea and moist sounds above lungs on auscultation
Symptoms of TACO failure (Transfusion Associated Circulatory failure) except:
a. hypoxia
b. bradyarythmia
c. jugular vein distension
d. dyspnea and moist sounds above lungs on auscultation
In case of complete lack of bone marrow function, an average transfusion need
a. approx. 2 units packed RBC/month
b. approx. 1 units packed RBC/month
c. approx. 2 units packed RBC/week
d. approx. 1 units packed RBC/week
In case of complete lack of bone marrow function, an average transfusion need
a. approx. 2 units packed RBC/month
b. approx. 1 units packed RBC/month
c. approx. 2 units packed RBC/week
d. approx. 1 units packed RBC/week
Difference between IgM and IgG
IgG can cross the placenta
IgM cannot cross the placenta
structurally carbohydrate blood group antigen
a) Kidd
b) HBO
c) H
structurally carbohydrate blood group antigen
a) Kidd
b) HBO
c) H (or ABO?)
The following technique for unstable blood product allows lower than 1x10^6 WBC/unit:
a. centrifugation technique
b. buffy coat technique
c. apheresis technique
d. heat treatment technique
The following technique for unstable blood product allows lower than 1x10^6 WBC/unit:
a. centrifugation technique
b. buffy coat technique
c. apheresis technique
d. heat treatment technique
What is the disease that has a marked component of HLA association?
a) Gastro esophageal reflux disease
b) Pancreas carcinoma
c) Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)
d) Familial hypercholesterolaemia
What is the disease that has a marked component of HLA association?
a) Gastro esophageal reflux disease
b) Pancreas carcinoma
c) Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)
d) Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Which of the following symptoms require urgent therapy for a patient with delayed haemolytic
transfusion reaction:
a. mild jaundice
b. shivering
c. oliguria
d. a slightly elevated body T
Which of the following symptoms require urgent therapy for a patient with delayed haemolytic
transfusion reaction:
a. mild jaundice
b. shivering
c. oliguria
d. a slightly elevated body T
What is the HLA haplotype?
a. the collection of specific platelet antigen
b. special characteristics of immune system cells
c. immunological signal transduction molecules linked to each other
d. the group of HLA alleles physically linked on a single chromosome
What is the HLA haplotype?
a. the collection of specific platelet antigen
b. special characteristics of immune system cells
c. immunological signal transduction molecules linked to each other
d. the group of HLA alleles physically linked on a single chromosome
Most common cause for cadaveric donors:
a. cerebrovascular attack
b. polytraumatisation
c. acute myocardial infarction
d. peripheral vascular disease
Most common cause for cadaveric donors:
a. cerebrovascular attack
b. polytraumatisation
c. acute myocardial infarction
d. peripheral vascular disease
Which phenotype is caused by an inactive ABO glycocosil transferase ?
a) AB
b) B
c) A
d) O
Which phenotype is caused by an inactive ABO glycocosil transferase ?
a) AB
b) B
c) A
d) O
Risk of HCV transmission can be decreased by , except:
a. leukoreduction (filtering)
b. application of centrifugation technique for production
c. utilising only HCV sero- donots
d. deferral of high risk donors
Risk of HCV transmission can be decreased by , except:
a. leukoreduction (filtering)
b. application of centrifugation technique for production
c. utilising only HCV sero- donots
d. deferral of high risk donors
Primary function of the MHC/HLC sytem:
a. apoptosis induction
b. facilitation cell-cell interaction through binding to integrin proteins
c. antigen presentation
d. activation of allo-reactive NK cells
Primary function of the MHC/HLC sytem:
a. apoptosis induction
b. facilitation cell-cell interaction through binding to integrin proteins
c. antigen presentation
d. activation of allo-reactive NK cells
Anemia tolerance is independent of
sex
Anemia tolerance is dependent on
the speed of development
Cross-match prior to kidney transplantation allows
a. The selection of optimal immunosuppression after transplant
b. The exclusion of donor related infections
c. The prevention of hyperacute rejection
d. The proper evaluation of recipient immune status
Cross-match prior to kidney transplantation allows
a. The selection of optimal immunosuppression after transplant
b. The exclusion of donor related infections
c. The prevention of hyperacute rejection
d. The proper evaluation of recipient immune status
Expectation towards responding solution during blood product generation
a) decreases protein content of the preparation
b) decreases allo- antigen expression of RBC
c) decreases WBC contamination by cell lysis induction
d) allow hematocrit adjustment
Expectation towards responding solution during blood product generation
a) decreases protein content of the preparation
b) decreases allo- antigen expression of RBC
c) decreases WBC contamination by cell lysis induction
d) allow hematocrit adjustment
The advantages of intraoperative cell salvages, except
a) low level of 2,3 DPG
b) lower risk for infectious diseases
c) functionally …superior. Cells?
d) Normothermic
The advantages of intraoperative cell salvages, except
a) low level of 2,3 DPG
b) lower risk for infectious diseases
c) functionally …superior. Cells?
d) Normothermic
Appropriate therapy against citrate toxicity
a) Potassium chloride
b) sodium bicarbonate
c) calcium gluconate
d) calcium carbonate
Appropriate therapy against citrate toxicity
a) Potassium chloride
b) sodium bicarbonate
c) calcium gluconate
d) calcium carbonate
in massive bleeding, the factor that the soonest reaches critical levels
a) Factor v
b) Factor Vll
c) Prothrombin
d) Fibrinogen
in massive bleeding, the factor that the soonest reaches critical levels
a) Factor v
b) Factor Vll
c) Prothrombin
d) Fibrinogen
The person should be deferred from blood donation, except
a) Persons just returning from zika endemic areas
b) Actually febrile diseases
c) Regular plasma donors
d) Persons who disclose IV drug use.
The person should be deferred from blood donation, except
a) Persons just returning from zika endemic areas
b) Actually febrile diseases
c) Regular plasma donors
d) Persons who disclose IV drug use.
What is the approach to restore haemostasis after a loss of 100% of blood volume?
A) Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + Factors (ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- platelets
B) RBC + Factor (LL, VLL, IX, X, Fibrinogen)
C) Red blood cell transfusion
D) Red blood cells + fresh frozen plasma + platelets
What is the approach to restore haemostasis after a loss of 100% of blood volume?
A) Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + Factors (ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- platelets
B) RBC + Factor (LL, VLL, IX, X, Fibrinogen)
C) Red blood cell transfusion
D) Red blood cells + fresh frozen plasma + platelets
What is synthesized by the endothelium?
Von Willebrand + NO + Signal Protein ERK5
What is the treatment of post transfusion purpura (PTP)
high dose IVIG
What can happen if you transfuse unwarm blood, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hemolysis
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Poor coagulation
d. Hyperkalemia
What can happen if you transfuse unwarm blood, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hemolysis
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Poor coagulation
d. Hyperkalemia
What are the signs of hemolysis, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Acidosis
d. Alkalosis
What are the signs of hemolysis, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Acidosis
d. Alkalosis
Pathomechanism of hyperacute reaction, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Normal cytotoxic T cells
b. IgA
c. Complement
d. Cytokines from macrophages
Pathomechanism of hyperacute reaction, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Normal cytotoxic T cells
b. IgA
c. Complement
d. Cytokines from macrophages
MHC type I receptors are present, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Monocytes
b. Platelets
c. Dendritic cells
d. Trophoblasts
MHC type I receptors are present, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Monocytes
b. Platelets
c. Dendritic cells
d. Trophoblasts
Pathomechanism of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI):
Select one:
a. Massive occlusion of pulmonary microvessels and causing lung damage
b. Caused by the recipient’s antibody with mast cell activation
c. Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage
d. Activation of the cytotoxic T cell causing lung damage
Pathomechanism of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI):
Select one:
a. Massive occlusion of pulmonary microvessels and causing lung damage
b. Caused by the recipient’s antibody with mast cell activation
c. Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage
d. Activation of the cytotoxic T cell causing lung damage
Characteristic element of the pathomechanism of post transfusion purpura
a. impairment of platelet aggregation and release functions
b. allo-antibody against platelet antigens
c. increased consumption of clotting factors
d. increased dilution of clotting factors
Characteristic element of the pathomechanism of post transfusion purpura
a. impairment of platelet aggregation and release functions
b. allo-antibody against platelet antigens
c. increased consumption of clotting factors
d. increased dilution of clotting factors
Potential complications of massive transfusion:
Hyponatremia
Hyperthermia
Citrate toxicity
Hypovolemia
Potential complications of massive transfusion:
Hyponatremia
Hyperthermia
Citrate toxicity
Hypovolemia
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) can develop in the presence of
a. complement binding allo-antibodies
b. Unaltered IgA production capacity
c. Intact cytokine reaction of macrophages
d. Normal cytotoxic T cell function
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) can develop in the presence of
a. complement binding allo-antibodies
b. Unaltered IgA production capacity
c. Intact cytokine reaction of macrophages
d. Normal cytotoxic T cell function
The risk of transfusion related hemosiderosis is increased in
a. Beta thalassemia major
b. Hereditary hemochromatosis
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
The risk of transfusion related hemosiderosis is increased in
a. Beta thalassemia major
b. Hereditary hemochromatosis
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
What is the correct sequence of key activities in transfusion medicine?
a. diagnostics - recipient - outcome - screening
b. screening - donor - outcome - product
c. donor - product - recipient - outcome
d. product - donor - recipient - outcome
What is the correct sequence of key activities in transfusion medicine?
a. diagnostics - recipient - outcome - screening
b. screening - donor - outcome - product
c. donor - product - recipient - outcome
d. product - donor - recipient - outcome
Role of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa in hemostasis:
Select one:
a. Its deficiency causes Bernard-Soulier disease
b. Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding
c. It binds von Willebrand factor allowing platelet adhesion
d. It binds to subendothelial collagen
Role of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa in hemostasis:
Select one:
a. Its deficiency causes Bernard-Soulier disease
b. Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding
c. It binds von Willebrand factor allowing platelet adhesion
d. It binds to subendothelial collagen
Dynamic testing options of the coagulation system:
Select one:
a. Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)
b. International normalized ratio (INR), activated factor X levels
c. Prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
d. Fibrinogen, antithrombin III levels
Dynamic testing options of the coagulation system:
Select one:
a. Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)
b. International normalized ratio (INR), activated factor X levels
c. Prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
d. Fibrinogen, antithrombin III levels
What is the primary goal of crossmatching prior to solid organ transplantation?
a. to monitor and assure the viability of donor tissue
b. to identify donor-specific antibodies in recipient serum samples
c. to identify infectious viral particles in recipient serum samples
d. to prevent hyperacute rejection
What is the primary goal of crossmatching prior to solid organ transplantation?
a. to monitor and assure the viability of donor tissue
b. to identify donor-specific antibodies in recipient serum samples
c. to identify infectious viral particles in recipient serum samples
d. to prevent hyperacute rejection
Complications with increased risk after the transfusion of long-stored (old) red blood cell concentrate, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia, potassium toxicity
b. Citrate toxicity
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Circulatory overload
Complications with increased risk after the transfusion of long-stored (old) red blood cell concentrate, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia, potassium toxicity
b. Citrate toxicity
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Circulatory overload
Diagnostic tests to be performed on the cadaver donor to facilitate transplantation, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Blood group determination
b. HLA-typing
c. Virus diagnostics: HIV, HBC, HCV testing
d. CT-angiography
Diagnostic tests to be performed on the cadaver donor to facilitate transplantation, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Blood group determination
b. HLA-typing
c. Virus diagnostics: HIV, HBC, HCV testing
d. CT-angiography
