Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression 1 (L10) Flashcards

1
Q

CAP

A

catabolite activator proteins - bind recognition site and stabilize binding of RNA pol to promoter -> increases transcription

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2
Q

what does CAP depend on?

A

needs cAMP to bind

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3
Q

sigma factor

A

an IF - different sigma factors used for transcribing different genes

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4
Q

two functions of enhancers

A
  1. spatial-temporal regulation of gene expression

2. alteration of expression level

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5
Q

how do enhancers work?

A

by stabilizing RNA pol II binding via mediator proteins

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6
Q

is an enhancer’s location important for its function?

A

not often

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7
Q

how do enhancers bind regulatory proteins?

A

multiple recognition sequences - i.e. TFs (or activators/repressors)

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8
Q

what does the proximal/basal promoter always bind?

A

always bind same TFs

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9
Q

what does promoter consist of?

A

enhancers + basal promoters (DNA)

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10
Q

what do activators consist of?

A

protein

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11
Q

difference b/w enhancers and proximal promoter

A

enhancers can be all over; prox promoter is right before the gene

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12
Q

UAS

A

upstream activating sequence - in yeast, equivalent of enhancer

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13
Q

mammalian numbers of promoters and enhancers

A

only one promoter but multiple enhancers

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14
Q

spatial-temporal regulation

A

control where genes are expressed and when expressed during life cycle

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15
Q

what are enhancers?

A

regulatory sequences (or promoter elements) that are bound by TFs - aid in signal transduction

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16
Q

TFBS

A

TF binding site - in one enhancer, can have many TFs binding at same TFBS

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17
Q

TATA box

A

consensus sequence - same sequence found more often than just randomly would occur - important regulatory sequence for RNA pol

18
Q

CpG island

A

20-50 nts within 100 bps upstream

19
Q

functions of RNA pol I

A
  • ribosome components
  • protein synthesis
  • binds basal promoter elements
20
Q

functions of RNA pol II

A
  • transcribes mRNA, miRNA, siRNA
  • encodes protein
  • RNA splicing
  • post-translational gene control
21
Q

functions of RNA pol III

A
  • protein synthesis
  • ribosome component, protein synthesis
  • RNA splicing
  • signal-recognition particle for insertion of polypeptides into the ER
  • various unknown functions
22
Q

CTD

A

C-terminal domain on beta1 subunit of RNA pol II - consists of 52 repeats of Tyr-Ser-Pro-Thr-Ser-Pro-Ser (phosphorylation)

23
Q

how can you differentiate when CTD is phosphorylated or not?

A

phosphorylated form = red -> more decondensed areas
dephosphorylated form = green
both = yellow

24
Q

polytene chromosome

A

giant chromosome used to study regulation of gene expression

25
Q

experimental definition of promoter elements - two ways

A
  1. deletion analysis

2. linker scanning mutation/deletion

26
Q

deletion analysis

A

Chop promoter into smaller pieces or use probes to replicate smaller pieces.
1. use recombinant DNA techniques to create a 5’ deletion series.
2. Ligate into vector carrying reporter gene.
3. Transform into E. coli and isolate plasmid DNAs.
4. Transfect each type of plasmid (1-5) separately into cultured cells.
5. Prepare cell extract and assay activity or reporter enzyme.
Reporter gene expression levels tell you which areas are necessary for expression.

27
Q

what does deletion analysis tell you?

A

where important regions of promoter are - useful for analyzing basal promoter region

28
Q

difference b/w deletion analysis and linker scanning mutation/deletion analysis

A

deletion: chops from end
linker: chops in middle in overlapping way

29
Q

linker scanning mutation/deletion

A

same principles as deletion analysis, but chops in middle in overlapping way - allows for better determination of where the important elements are

30
Q

what happens if you delete the TATA box?

A

RNA pol can’t bind at all - no expression

31
Q

what happens if you delete other regulatory elements than the TATA box?

A

these just help stabilize binding of RNA pol, so if deleted, just get a decrease in expression

32
Q

EMSA

A

electrophoretic mobility shift assay/gel shift
1. mix DNA probe with protein fractions from chromatography
2. run on gel
If protein does NOT bind probe, runs faster.
If protein DOES bind probe, lower mobility - slower migration. Any lanes with slow migrating bands - know there is a protein in this fraction that can bind promoter

33
Q

what does yeast-1-hybrid test?

A

interaction b/w protein and DNA - if protein from cDNA library can bind to promoter element -> get expression of that construct

34
Q

how do you verify potential identification of DNA-binding proteins?

A
  1. Purify the protein by sequence-specific DNA affinity chromatography.
  2. Sequence protein and clone the gene.
  3. Insert a plasmid containing the gene sequence for what you think is protein X and a plasmid containing a reporter gene and a binding site for protein X into a cell.
  4. If the gene produces protein that binds to the X-binding site, then transcription of the reporter gene will occur (means your protein truly binds the promoter)
35
Q

difference b/w yeast-1-hybrid and yeast-2-hybrid

A

1: 1 construct, tests protein-DNA interaction
2: 2 constructs (bait/prey), tests protein-protein interaction

36
Q

describe expression when you delete parts of AD

A

less expression than normal

37
Q

describe expression when you delete all of AD

A

no expression

38
Q

how can you define DBD and AD?

A

deletion mutants - N and C terminal deletion mutants or internal deletion mutants

39
Q

functional domains are…

A

modular

40
Q

how can TF’s be regulated?

A

some have activation domains, some have repression domains