Transcription Mechanisms Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure of the bacterial RNA polymerase?

A

Single RNA polymerase in bacteria that makes all 3 types of RNA
Four kinds of subunits: a, b, b’, w
Subunit composition of enzyme is a2bb’w

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the structure of the eukaryotic RNA polymerase?

A

3 different types of polymerases produce all 3 types of RNA
RNAPI transcribes 5.7S, 18S and 28S rRNAs
RNAPII transcribes all mRNAs and some snRNAs
RNAPIII transcribes 5S rRNA, all tRNAs and other small RNAs
All 3 work in the nucleus
Division of labour by these polymerases
Mitochondria has an additional polymerase (mtRNAP)
Due to origin of mitochondria - has its own genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Compare bacterial core RNAPs and eukaryotic RNAPIIs

A

Bacterial RNAP is simple: 5 subunits
Eukaryotic RNAPIIs is more complex: 12 different subunits
Similar core structure
Homologous subunits
RPB1 and RPB2 are similar to b and b’
RPB3, RPB10, RPB11, RPB 12 are similar to a2 homodimer
RPB6 is similar to w Subunit
Additional subunits in eukaryotes are at the periphery (extensions/small peptides)
Magnesium marks where the active site is
Key catalysis in bond formation
In same place in both polymerases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What molecule marks where the active site is in polymerases?

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do bacterial RNA polymerases find the transcription start site?

A

Bacterial RNA polymerases have sigma factor that can recognize promotors without the help of any other transcription factors
RNAP + s Factor (a2bb’ws) is called the holoenzyme (initiation form) which is responsible for initiation of transcription
Can melt the promotor in the absence of ATP and can maintain an open promotor complex for days without transcript initiation
-10 motif is found in bacterial promotors
-10 motif is AT rich but NOT functionally equivalent to eukaryotic TATA box
-10 responsible for formation of transcription bubble (but TATA box stays double stranded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do eukaryotic RNA polymerases find the transcription start site?

A

Eukaryotic RNA polymerases don’t have any sequence specific binding activities even though they have more subunits (NO s Factor)
Require additional factors (basal factors)
They recognise promotor elements (TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIID)
And are responsible for formation of transcription bubble around transcription start site (TFIIE, TFIIH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain the roles of the +1, -10 and -35 positions

A

+ 1: position where initiation occurs, first nucleotide in RNA molecule (also called lnr)
There is no position 0
-10 and -35 (only in prokaryotes): where the holoenzyme binds, conserved sequences

Transcription occurs left to right
Downstream: in transcribed region (+ve)
Upstream: in untranscribed region (-ve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the initiation complex in eukaryotes and how is it regulated by TFs?

A

Basal factors and RNAPII are required to initiate transcription in eukaryotes
Initiation complex is the same for every RNAPII transcribed gene and required at every promotor
Initiation complex gives basal / low levels of unregulated transcription
Initiation complex is programmed by gene-specific transcription factors to give regulated levels of gene expression (higher levels of expression)
Basal initiation complex: at transcription start site, RNA polymerase is recruited by basal factors
Proximal gene specific transcription factors: promotor within 1kb
Distal gene specific transcription factors: enhancers (may be very far away so difficult to tell if a gene is regulated by this enhancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the TATA-box?

A

Is found in promotor region
Upstream of transcription start site at -25 to -30
AT rich sequence that is surrounded by GC rich sequences
Conserved motif
Is recognised by TFIID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is TFIID?

A

Multiprotein complex
Consists of TATA binding protein (TBP) and many other subunits called TBP associated factors (TAFs)
TBP is autonomous
It can bind sequence specifically to TATA box on its own without TAFs
Is NOT found in bacteria
One protein that consists of 2 halves that are structurally similar and evolved by duplication
TBP binds TATA box DNA and bends it by 60-90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are TFIIA and TFIIB?

A

TFIIA and TFIIB stabilize TFIID binding
TFIIA and TFIIB bind on opposite sites of TBP at the same time (they don’t compete for the same binding site)
TFIIB Recognition Element (BRE): TFIIB has sequence specific contact points on either side of the TATA box (predominantly on upstream side)
Occurs because DNA is bent
Increases sequence specificity of complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an electrophoretic mobility shift assay (gel shift assay)?

A

Method of detecting transcription factor complexes
Binding of a TF causes tagged DNA to shift in mobility
Native gel electrophoresis
Only DNA: moves to bottom of gel
TBP/DNA complex: faint band because only small amount is bound. Energetically unfavourable due to bending of DNA
TBP/TFIIB/DNA complex: stronger band because TFIIB stabilizes DNA/TBP complex and increases sequence specificity
RNAP/TBP/TFIIB/DNA complex moves the least in the gel as it is the heaviest complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What other motifs can be present other than the TATA-box?

A

Not all RNAPII transcribed genes contain TATA-boxes (80% don’t have a TATA box)
Two other motifs that may also be present
Initiator element (IE): found at TSS at +1, recruits initiation complex to promotor
Downstream promotor element (DPE): downstream of TSS (+28 - +34), very variable sequence
TBP associated factors (TAFs) of TFIID recognize these additional sequence elements
TFIID can bind even if TATA box isn’t present
Proximal promotor elements: TATA, IE (lnr), DPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is TFIIF?

A

TFIIF binds to RNAPII and facilitates delivery of polymerase to TFIID-TFIIB-DNA complex on promotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is TFIIE and TFIIH?

A

TFIIE and TFIIH are responsible for 3 critical functions in transcription:
Phosphorylation of RNAPII (contain a kinase) to make RNAPII elongation competent
Promotor melting via DNA helicase mechanism (contain a helicase)
Promotor clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is phosphorylation of RNAPII CTD important?

A

C-terminal domain of RNAPII consists of repeats of a 7-residue sequence YSPTSPS (26 in yeast, 52 in human)
CTD is phosphorylated by TFIIH kinase
Proline = destroys secondary structure = CTD is an unstructured protein
Threonine, serine, tyrosine = have an OH group in side chain, where phosphorylation occurs
Hypophosphorylated (low levels of phosphorylation) = CTD is associated with initiation complex
Hyperphosphorylated (high levels) = CTD with elongation competent RNAPII
Allows 5’ capping, assembly of spliceosomes, binding of cleavage/polyadenylation complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is promotor melting?

A

TFIIH is an ATP dependent helicase
Responsible for formation of transcription bubble by melting the double stranded DNA around the TSS
Melted promotor is intrinsically unstable: half life of 45 seconds
If transcription initiation doesn’t occur within this time span, then melted promotor configuration can only be sustained by ATP hydrolysis
Control point for regulating rate of initiation transcription - transcript initiation can only occur if transcription bubble is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What types of TFs are more common in Bacteria/Eukaryotes?

A

Bacteria: repressors are more common because most chromatin is in open state (ex. Lac repressor)
Eukaryotes: repressors are less common/activators more common because chromatin is naturally in the repressed state
Need 100s of TFs to regulate one gene: more complex gene regulation in eukaryotes than in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is DNA footprinting?

A

Gene specific TFs recognize a specific target sequence and bind to promotors
Binding regions can be mapped using DNA foot printing
DNase I without TF : DNA + limited amount of DNase I (nuclease) –> creates random breaks in the DNA fragment averaging once per strand –> run on gel to create a ladder of fragments
DNase I with TF bound: No cuts are made where TF has bound, protects DNA from being degraded, creates a footprint in the ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function and structure of TF’s?

A

Gene specific TFs must be able to:
Specifically bind DNA through sequence specific DNA-binding proteins
Modulate activity of promotor bound transcriptional machinery (RNA polymerase and basal factors)
Structure: Activation domains + a DNA binding domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the interactions of the DNA binding regions and TFs

A

DNA and proteins interact specifically via a range of interactions (non-covalent)
Electrostatic bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Van der Waal forces
Hydrophobic interactions
High structural complementarity to maximize interactions
DNA binding domains are folded, 3D structure is complementary to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the electrostatic interactions and sequence specificity between DNA and protein/TFs

A

Electrostatic interactions between DNA and protein
DNA has a negative phosphodiester backbone
Surface of protein is positive
Electrostatic interactions between proteins and DNA backbone provide stabilizing energy (charges will always be the same)
But does not provide sequence specificity
Binding of TFs does not lead to unravelling of DNA (but may bend it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain the B-form of DNA

A

DNA consists of 2 polynucleotide chains, antiparallel, right handed double helix
Sugar phosphate backbone is on the outside, bases are on the inside
B-DNA has 2 grooves: Major and minor groove
TFs bind to the major groove
A particular sequence of base pairs can be accessed either via the major or the minor groove
Groove depends on the rotation of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is TF binding to the major groove essential in terms of base pair geometry?

A

In an A:T base pair the minor groove has 2HB acceptor sites and the major groove has 2HB acceptor and 1HB donor site
TF have limited specificity when identifying DNA from the minor groove
Because they can’t distinguish A:T from T:A (there are 2 HB acceptor sites)
But can distinguish A:T from G:C because G:C base pair has a different pattern of donor and acceptor bases than A:T
Major groove has full specificity
T is the only base that has a methyl group which is easily identified by TFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What groove does the TATA box bind to?

A

TATA binding protein binds via the minor groove so it is not highly sequence specific, only looks for an AT rich sequence
TATA box sequence is not highly conserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are common DNA binding motifs?

A

Helix turn helix motif (+homeodomain variants), helix-loop-helix motif, zinc-finger motif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Helix turn helix domains / home-domains structure

A

Two alpha-helices separated by a loop
C-terminal helix called the recognition helix binds to the major groove, responsible for specificity
N-terminal helix stabilises the structure
Other helices in the protein make no contacts with the DNA (except some electrostatic interactions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Helix turn helix domains function

A

H-T-H motifs are used in many bacterial TFs (ex. Lac repressor, CAP protein, l repressor
Also found in eukaryotic TFs, called homeodomains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Eukaryotic H-T-H domains / homeodomains

A

Discovered in drosophila
Homeotic genes/homeoproteins expressed during embryogenesis and determine regional differentiation along body axis
Regional expression patterns - define specific regional identify of different parts of the embryo
Exist in humans specifically along the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Leucine-zipper domains structure

A

Leucine zipper is the simplest motif in terms of structure
C-JUN/c-FOS heterodimer formed by two long intertwined alpha helices arranged in a Y shape
Alpha helices are held together by hydrophobic interactions between regularly spaced leucine residues on both helices (leucine is very hydrophobic)
Binding of C-JUN/c-FOS to DNA is stabilized by positively charged arginine and lysine side chains
There are intrinsically disordered regions of the motif that can’t be identified by X-ray crystallography
Motif binds to major groove of DNA via sequence specific interactions
Adjacent TFs are also important for stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where are leucine Zipper domains found?

A

TFs controlling cell proliferation contain a leucine zipper DNA binding domain
C-JUN/c-FOS heterodimer
C-JUN and c-FOS are encoded by separate genes that have been identified as oncogenes (convert normal gene into cancer causing gene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Helix-loop-helix domains function and structure

A

Helix-loop-helix domains are found in other oncoproteins controlling cell proliferation (ex. MYC and MAX)
MAX forms homodimeric complex (MAX/MAX) that contains a helix-loop-helix motif
H-L-H is a more complex version of leucine zipper motif
Includes a loop interrupting the alpha helices
Binding of alpha helixes to form Y shaped domain still involved hydrophobic interactions between regularly spaced leucine residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Zinc-finger domains function

A

Only found in eukaryotes not bacteria
Most widely used DNA binding motif
Some zinc finger-containing proteins use them to bind RNA or protein

34
Q

Zinc-finger domains structure

A

Contain zinc atom that is coordinated by cysteine/histidine residues
Very small
Can’t recognize more than 3 nucleotides
Alpha helix binds to major groove
Antiparallel beta sheet
Zinc coordinated by cysteine/histidine residues

35
Q

How do zinc fingers work?

A

Zinc fingers work in tandem
Usually multiple zinc fingers bind to the DNA, each with different sequence recognition ability
Each zinc finger recognizes a 3 nucleotide motif
This allows more complex DNA sequences to be recognized
Zinc finger domains follow the major groove and make a series of sequence specific contacts

36
Q

Explain the P53 carcinogenic mutations

A

P53 is a tumour suppressor
When DNA damage occurs it slows progression through cell cycle
Initiates apoptosis if damage is severe
50% of cancers contain a p53 mutation
P53 acts as a TF: has a DNA binding domain which has no structural similarity to any other known motif
Most p53 mutations are found in the binding domain
Most in centre/back away from P53 gene
Very complicated structure so prone to structural damage by mutants

37
Q

What kinetic factors influence DNA-binding properties?

A

TF binding sites are often surrounded by short tandem repeats (STRs)
STRs bind TFs weakly
Allows TFs to increase their concentration locally so the likelihood of binding to the relevant site increases

38
Q

Activation domain function

A

GSTFs need to bind to the target site BUT also must stimulate activity of basal transcriptional machinery
Carried out by activation domains in GSTFs
Activation domains are important in:
Recruiting basal factors
Stimulating enzymatic activities in basal machinery
Ex. TFIIH helicase to create transcription bubble and TFIIH kinase to create elongation competent RNAPII
Recruiting coactivator complexes

39
Q

Structure of activation domains

A

ADs are intrinsically disordered So they can’t form stable secondary structure
Are very flexible so can’t participate in many interactions
Unusual amino acid composition
Contains amino acids that keep structure disordered
Very little hydrophobic amino acid residues that are important for function

40
Q

Give examples of activation domains and their structure

A

GAL4 (yeast AD): contains many aspartate and glutamate residues
Negatively charged amino acids
Same charges repulse each other so can’t form stable secondary structure
Contains proline which destroys secondary structure
Sp1 (human AD): contains glutamine
Drosophila: contains isoleucine

41
Q

What are coactivators?

A

Coactivators communicate with basal transcriptional machinery to create a chromatin structure favourable for transcription

42
Q

Why is DNA compaction important?

A

DNA on it’s own is very long and thin
DNA is compacted in nucleosomes –> becomes thicker and shorter –> easier to fit into nucleus

43
Q

What is the structure of the nucleosomal fibre

A

DNA is wrapped around nucleosomes in approx. 1.8 turns (may not be not a constant number)
DNA packaged in nucleosomes appears as ‘beads on a string’
DNA still needs to be accessible for repair/duplication/transcription machinery

44
Q

What is micrococcal nuclease and what does a particle digest show?

A

Enzyme that cuts DNA between nucleosomes but not the DNA around nucleosomes
Partial digest (small amounts) with micrococcal nuclease
Get mono/di/tri nucleosomes
Electrophoresis: Get a distinct pattern of DNA fragments containing one or more repeat units
Shows that DNA is packaged in a regular Nucleosomal array and that most of DNA is packaged in nucleosomes

45
Q

What is the structure of nucleosome subunits?

A

Nucleosome particles consist of 4 different polypeptides, core histones: H2A, H2B, H3, H4
Denaturing gel shows 4 different bands
Occur in almost every nucleosome in the human genome
But there may be histone variants in nucleosomes

46
Q

What is the histone fold?

A

All 4 core histones contain a central histone fold
Histone fold is a dimerisation motif
Long central alpha helix
2 shoulder helices at C and N terminals that are at a 90 degrees angle to interact with the central helix

47
Q

What is histone dimerisation?

A

2 histone folds interact to form a dimer
Twisted structure
A lot of contacts between the 2 proteins = very stable protein-protein interaction

48
Q

Explain the histone octamer assembly

A

H3-H4 form a tetramer (2 copies of H3 + 2 copies of H4)
H2A-H2B form a dimer (1 H2B and 1 H2A)
Histone octamer made of 1x H3-H4 tetramer and 2x H2A-H2B dimer

49
Q

Explain the evolutionary origin of histones

A

3 evolutionary domains: Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
Bacteria and Archaea lack nuclei and are prokaryotes
Histones are highly conserved across eukaryotic range
Archaea contains histones that are similar to eukaryotic histones
Suggests that histones emerged early during evolution more than 2 billion years ago and haven’t changed much
Most of archaea are hyperthermophiles (live in 80-120 degrees) so histones evolved to stabilize and protect DNA under extreme conditions
Then histones passed on to eukaryotes
Histone fold (structure) from archaea and eukaryotes are very conserved

50
Q

Explain the nucleosome-DNA interactions

A

DNA is stiff/rigid so bending around the nucleosome is energetically unfavourable
Need many interactions between nucleosome and DNA to bend 146bp of DNA in 2 tight circles
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic interactions
Nonpolar (hydrophobic) contacts
Intercalation of arginine to contact phosphates across the groove (requires A:T base pairs)
Basic (+ve) residues of nucleosome form interactions with Acidic (-ve) phosphates in DNA backbone

51
Q

Explain the distortion of DNA during nucleosomal packaging

A

Bending of DNA around nucleosome causes major and minor grooves to become wider
Distortion causes change of helical parameters
Irregular sizes of grooves (some bigger than others)
TFs don’t recognize irregular structure
Because TF DNA binding domains bind in a complementary manner
Pioneer TFs can still bind to the irregular structure

52
Q

What are linker histones?

A

Linker histones H1 and H5 (H1 is more common)
Stabilize interaction between nucleosomes in compacted chromatin
Not part of core nucleosome particle, only binds between nucleosomes
H1 crosses point where DNA enters and exits the nucleosome
Core nucleosome packages 146bp of DNA, with H1 packages 168-200bp

53
Q

What was the historical interpretation of 30nm solenoid fibre?

A

Experiment: Increasing salt concentration forms 30nm fibre (helical structure)
H1 linker converts string arrangement of nucleosomes to more tightly packed 30nm chromatin fibres in helical arrangement
Nucleosome beads: reduced levels of H1, gene transcription possible
30nm solenoids: dependent on high levels of histone H1, more compact so no transcription

54
Q

What is chromEMT?

A

Combines electron microscopy tomography (EMT) with labelling method (ChromEM)
Specifically stains DNA for electron microscopic observation
Take many pictures that are then reconstituted into 3D models
Determine structure of individual chromatin chains, heterochromatin domains, mitotic chromosomes

55
Q

How was chromEMT used to rethink the 30mm solenoid structure?

A

No evidence for a 30nm fibre using chromEMT
Most structures between 8-14 angstroms
Nucleosomes assemble into disordered chains with diameters between 5 and 24nm (beads on a string conformation)
A lot of variety in structural conformations, particle arrangements and packing densities
Little evidence for regular helical structures predicted from solenoid model
Chromatin chains are flexible and can bend at various lengths to achieve different levels of compaction and high packing densities

56
Q

What is the structure and function of additional N-terminal sequences in histones?

A

Histones contain additional sequences mostly at N-termini
Are important to control gene regulatory properties of nucleosomes
Are highly flexible so don’t show up in X-ray structures
Similar to unstructured CTD of RNAPII
Flexible N-termini emerge from the nucleosome and can stretch out
In reality, intrinsically disordered N-termini will fold/coil up
Sites for post translational modifications (mainly acetylation) in the N-terminal domain

57
Q

Explain the conservation of acetylation of the N-termini of histones H4 and H3

A

N-termini of histones H4 and H3 and acetylation patterns are absolutely conserved in evolution (yeast to humans)
H4 N-terminus:
Contains a lot of Glycine
= very flexible structure because glycine does not have a side chain
Contains a lot of Lysine
= +ve charge so will repeal each other and prevent formation of secondary structure
H3 N-terminus:
Contains a lot of Proline
=break secondary structure
Contains a lot of Lysine

58
Q

Explain acetylation in the N-terminal domain of histones

A

Sites for post translational modifications (mainly acetylation) in the N-terminal domain
Histone acetyl transferases (HATs) carry out acetylation by transferring an acetyl from acetyl-CoA donor
Acetylation of lysine
Nitrogen in lysine becomes electrostatically neutral and looses it’s positive charge
Lysine with +ve charge can bend back into nucleosome core and bind DNA more tightly
Neutralising charge means that electrostatic interaction is lost and tails will no longer bind DNA
Histone deacetylase (HDAC) removes acetyl group

59
Q

How do TFs open chromatin to create a transcriptionally active environment?

A

Pioneer factors are still able to recognise target sequence even if DNA is chromatin packaged/compacted
Pioneer factors (gene specific activators) contain a DNA binding domain and an activation domain
Ex. Gcn4
Pioneer factors bind to target site
Activation domain recruits HAT complex that acetylates N-terminal domain of histone tails that are in close proximity
Acetylation disrupts electrostatic charge so nucleosomes can move around more
Creates a loose, hyperacetylated chromatin environment that is able to initiate transcription (bind other transcription factors)
Can also recruit HDACs to create repressed chromatin and stop transcription

60
Q

How does closing / repressing of chromatin work?

A

Some repressors in eukaryotes (not as many repressors as activators)
Gene specific repressors contain a DBD and a Repressor domain
Ex. Ume6
Repressor domain recruits HDACs –> removes an acetyl group –> creates a hypoacetylated chromatin environment –> tighter binding of nucleosome to DNA –> inaccessible to transcriptional machinery
Localized effect so nucleosomes that are further away from the complex are unaffected

61
Q

What is methylation and how does it lead to repressed / active chromatin?

A

Methylation is a post translational control point to distinguish between transcriptionally active and passive forms of chromatin
Biochemical properties are not changed
Marking nucleosomes so transcriptional machinery can bind and detect the marks
Methylation is usually repressive such as H3K27 and H3K9
Methylation can also be active such as H3K4 methylation
Many parts of the genome (mostly repetitive DNA ex. surrounding centromeres) are densely packaged in heterochromatin:
Nucleosomes are methylated and contain special proteins (ex. Linker histone H1) to maintain high packing density
Transcribed parts of the genome are in euchromatin:
Nucleosomes are acetylated, low levels of linker histone H1

62
Q

Explain how the nucleus can influence genome expression

A

Chromatin structures are not the ultimate control level of gene expression
Nucleus has a sophisticated internal architecture that influences genome expression on a more global level
Transcription and splicing occurs within distinct regions
Chromosomes are found within distinct domains within the nucleus
Import and export through nuclear pores is tightly controlled

63
Q

What was Gordon’s discovery (cloning of a frog)?

A

Cloned the first animal, a frog
Replaced nucleus of an egg cell with the nucleus of a differentiated somatic cell
This reprogrammed differentiated nucleus back to an embryonic state
Modified cell can go through normal embryonic development to form a tadpole
Proved that the nuclei of differentiated somatic cells contain all of the genetic material required for the development of the whole organism
Gene expression defined differentiation (NOT loss of genes, as thought before)

64
Q

What are the general principles of cell differentiation and gene expression patterns?

A

Fully differentiated somatic cells contain a complete genome that is the same as found in embryonic cells
Fully differentiated cells express a subset of all genes specific for a particular cell type / function
Different gene expression patterns are created and maintained through the expression of gene specific transcription factors
Once a cell is differentiated into a specific cell type, it will maintains its state it in a stable way
Example muscle cell can only give rise to another muscle cell

65
Q

What are totipotent embryonic stem cells?

A

Fertilized egg cell (zygote) that can differentiate into any cell type
Can make embryonic tissues for placenta

66
Q

What are pluripotent embryonic stem cells?

A

Can’t form extra embryonic tissue
Found in inner mass cells of the blastocyst
Can form 3 cell lines/major tissue types

67
Q

What are multipotent embryonic stem cells?

A

Can build a limited range of cell types, must be specific to the type of tissue
Example neural stem cells, adult bone marrow, mesenchymal cells

68
Q

What are artificial nuclear reprogramming methods?

A

Change the expression of gene specific TFs to reprogram cell types
Convert differentiated cell into stem cells or into another differentiated cell type
Example convert a hepatocyte (liver cell) to a fibroblast (skin cell)
Expression of pioneer factors are essential to convert cell from one type to another

69
Q

What was Yamanaka’s discovery? What are the 4 key GSTFs?

A

Differentiated fibroblasts converted into embryo-like induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs)
By introduction of genes encoding 4 key GSTFs (overexpression): OCT4, KLF4, SOX2, MYC
Only need to express TFs for a short time for conversion –> then not needed anymore after conversion

70
Q

How can the expression of Tfs lead to cancer?

A

GSTFs are also oncoproteins
Overexpression or mutation of these proteins are found in cancer
Engineering may reduce risk by focusing TF on reprogramming function

71
Q

How can cellular reprogramming be used for anti-aging?

A

Converting a differentiated cell into a stem cell reverses the biological age of the cell (rejuvenation)
4 GSTFs are used for anti aging research
Partial reprogramming: applying factors to cells for long enough to reverse cellular aging and repair tissues without returning all the way to pluripotency
Example used in the eye, muscle and other tissues

72
Q

What is the structure and function of OCT4?

A

OCT4 has normal TF structure, nothing special in terms of structure
2 activation domains (one at N and one at C terminus)
One ‘Pou’ DNA binding motif (two helix-turn-helix motifs linked to each other)
Moderate size of 360 amino acids
OCT4 is a TF that needs to be expressed in pluripotent cells to maintain undifferentiated state
Nothing special in terms of structure, only the types of genes it regulates

73
Q

How does OCT4 work with SOX2?

A

OCT4 works together with SOX2
To bind to target sequences next to each other found at regulatory elements that drive embryonic stem cell specific transcription

74
Q

How can biological aging of cells be quantified?

A

Some parts of the body age faster/slower than others so age is not clearly defined
Methods to quantitate ageing in cells
Epigenetic clocks (eAge)
Age prediction is based on methylation of CpG motifs
Some of these (the minority) display linear increasing relationship with age (increased methylation=increased age)
Gene transcription patterns:
Expression level of genes change with age
Cellular ageing hallmarks:
Decline of organ/cellular functions (ex. Genomic integrity, mitochondrial health, telomere length, nuclear envelope integrity) with age

75
Q

Give an example of how a 60-year old cell can be rejuvenated and the gene expression occurring at each stage

A

Fibroblast form 60 year old
Age determined by eAge from methylation pattern
Turn on 4 GSTFs, are expressed from day 3-12
Every day the cell becomes 2-3 days younger
Linear decrease until age 0
Reversing aging effects also means biochemical mechanisms are turned on, example telomeres get longer and certain genes get switched on
Fibroblast gene expression is high at the start and decreases as rejuvenation progresses
Temporary increase in gene expression related to senescence (aging)
Pluripotent gene expression starts from the beginning

76
Q

What are the characteristics of iPSCs?

A

iPSCs are immortal (can divide indefinitely) and can be differentiated into any cell type found in the human body (can’t make extra embryonic tissue)
iPSCs express specific proteins that are not expressed in differentiated cells
GSTFs such as OCT4: indicator of stemness, expression is maintained in iPSCs
Cell surface proteins such as SSEA3, SSEA4, TRA-1-60, TRA-1-81 are specific for stem cells
iPSCs stick to each other and have no contacts with any other type of cell, have a tight border
Nucleus is very large

77
Q

What are the steps of cellular reprogramming for treating blood disorders?

A

Isolate and cultivate somatic cells from patient
Reprogramme to pluripotency to generate iPSCs
Addition of growth factors are required for differentiation
Differentiation of IPSCs to generate red blood cells (RBCs, erythrocytes)
In vitro production of iPSC-derived RBCs could become an alternative treatment option for patients with blood disorders
Such as sickle cell anaemia (due to single point mutation)
Various forms of alpha and beta thalassaemia

78
Q

What are the applications of iPSCs?

A

Differentiate cells into pancreatic B-cells that can be injected into diabetics with defect B-cells
Differentiate into cardiomyocytes to treat cardiovascular disease
Differentiate into motor neurons to treat neurodegenerative disease
Treat kidney failure, leukaemia, brain stroke

79
Q

What are the benefits of using iPSCs?

A

Drug screening: obtaining healthy cells from a dead body is difficult, now can make stem cells that are easily accessible from a human body
Obtaining stem cells is difficult + has ethical concerns

80
Q

How can conversion of a cell to pluripotency lead to cancer?

A

GSTFs (especially MYC) are oncoproteins so reprogramming can result in cancer
Reprogramming and oncogenic transformation both induce a switch from oxidative to glycolytic metabolic state
Chromatin factors and RNA binding proteins that interact with reprogramming factors also play a role in cancer
Somatic cell undergoes high plasticity stage before converting to pluripotent cell
In this stage the cell is confused/lost it’s identity and can either convert to a cancer cell or a pluripotent cell
Markers Thy1 and bcl11b indicate high plasticity stage

81
Q

What are issues with generating iPSCs?

A

Some iPSC lines are heavily mutagenised
Have similar metabolic burden as what is typically observed with cancers
Can’t inject these into a patient
Causes:
Mutations already present in original somatic cell (ex. Old skin cells acquired mutations through the years)
Or caused by in vitro reprogramming procedure and by cell culturing

82
Q

How have somatic skin cells acquired mutations?

A

Usually fibroblasts from skin cells are used to make pluripotent cells because sampling from skin is easy
But these iPSCs contain a large number of mutations due to damage from UV radiation
Using blood cells can prevent mutation as they are never exposed to the sun
Any differentiated cells derived from such iPSC lines will contain mutations which increases cancer risk