Transactions with Outsiders Flashcards

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1
Q

What does the term ‘transactions with outsiders’ refer to in company law?

A

Transactions with outsiders refer to contracts or obligations a company enters into with external entities, such as suppliers, banks, or customers, governed by principles ensuring these are valid and binding.

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2
Q

What was the ultra vires doctrine in its classical form?

A

It restricted companies to act only within their stated objectives in the objects clause of their memorandum. Contracts beyond this scope were void, as seen in Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co v Riche (1875).

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3
Q

What did the doctrine of constructive notice entail?

A

It presumed that outsiders dealing with a company were aware of its public documents, such as the objects clause, limiting their ability to claim ignorance of restrictions.

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4
Q

How did the case A-G v Great Eastern Rly (1880) influence the ultra vires doctrine?

A

It introduced judicial flexibility, allowing companies to perform acts ‘incidental or consequential’ to their objects, mitigating the rigidity of the ultra vires doctrine.

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5
Q

How does Section 31 of the Companies Act 2006 reform the ultra vires doctrine?

A

It eliminates the need for an objects clause, granting companies full legal capacity unless explicitly restricted by their articles.

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6
Q

What is the significance of Section 39 of the Companies Act 2006?

A

It ensures that acts beyond a company’s objects clause are valid and binding, removing the ultra vires doctrine’s historical voidability.

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7
Q

What does Section 40 of the Companies Act 2006 establish?

A

It protects third parties dealing in good faith with a company, ensuring that directors’ limitations in the constitution do not invalidate transactions.

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8
Q

What presumption does Section 40 provide for third parties?

A

It presumes third parties act in good faith unless evidence proves otherwise, simplifying contractual dealings.

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9
Q

What is ‘actual authority’ in agency law?

A

Actual authority is expressly granted to an agent by the company’s governing body, allowing them to act on its behalf.

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10
Q

What is ‘apparent authority’ in agency law?

A

Apparent authority arises when a company’s conduct or statements lead third parties to reasonably believe an agent has authority, even if not formally granted.

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11
Q

What was established in Freeman & Lockyer v Buckhurst Park Properties Ltd (1964)?

A

A company is bound by the actions of an agent with apparent authority, even if the agent was never formally appointed.

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12
Q

How did Hely-Hutchinson v Brayhead Ltd (1968) expand the concept of authority?

A

It held that authority could be implied based on an individual’s role and conduct within the company.

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13
Q

What is the ‘indoor management rule’?

A

Stemming from Royal British Bank v Turquand (1856), it allows outsiders to assume a company’s internal procedures have been followed unless they are aware of irregularities.

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14
Q

What are the limitations of the indoor management rule?

A

It does not protect outsiders who have actual knowledge of irregularities or are insiders with reasons to suspect such issues.

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15
Q

How did the Companies Act 2006 address the doctrine of constructive notice?

A

It reduced its impact, ensuring third parties are not presumed to be aware of internal company restrictions unless explicitly notified.

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16
Q

What is Section 41 of the Companies Act 2006 about?

A

It governs transactions involving directors or connected persons, allowing companies to void transactions involving conflicts of interest.

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17
Q

How does Section 42 of the Companies Act 2006 apply to charitable companies?

A

It imposes additional restrictions to ensure transactions align with the charity’s purposes and regulatory obligations.

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18
Q

What principle was reinforced in Rolled Steel Ltd v British Steel Corp (1986)?

A

Ultra vires acts can bind companies in third-party dealings, but directors can be liable for failing to follow internal rules.

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19
Q

What was the harsh outcome of Re Jon Beauforte (London) Ltd (1953)?

A

Contracts beyond the objects clause were held unenforceable, demonstrating the rigidity of the ultra vires doctrine pre-reforms.

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20
Q

How does Section 40 affect directors who breach internal limits?

A

While third-party transactions remain binding, directors can be held personally liable for breaching internal rules.

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21
Q

What is the significance of the good faith presumption under Section 40?

A

It protects third parties from being penalized for limitations they could not have reasonably known, fostering trust in corporate transactions.

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22
Q

How does the Companies Act 2006 balance third-party protection with director accountability?

A

It validates transactions in good faith but holds directors personally liable for breaching internal governance rules.

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23
Q

How does Section 39 enhance commercial flexibility?

A

By ensuring the validity of corporate acts regardless of their alignment with the objects clause, enhancing legal certainty for third parties.

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24
Q

How did the CA 2006 improve confidence in commercial dealings with companies?

A

By reducing reliance on the ultra vires doctrine, constructive notice, and promoting good faith protection under Sections 39–40.

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25
Q

What are ‘connected persons’ in the context of Section 41?

A

Directors’ close associates or family members involved in transactions with the company, requiring scrutiny to prevent conflicts of interest.

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26
Q

What role does the Turquand rule play in commercial law?

A

It provides reassurance to third parties by allowing them to presume that internal company procedures have been properly followed.

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27
Q

What constitutes bad faith under Section 40?

A

Knowledge of irregularities, intentional avoidance of due diligence, or active collusion with company insiders to breach internal rules.

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28
Q

Why was the ultra vires doctrine seen as problematic for businesses?

A

It invalidated contracts that exceeded a company’s stated objects, creating uncertainty and risk for third-party dealings.

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29
Q

How does Section 42 ensure charity compliance?

A

By restricting transactions that conflict with a charity’s objectives or breach its regulatory obligations.

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30
Q

What lesson does Freeman & Lockyer v Buckhurst Park Properties Ltd (1964) teach about apparent authority?

A

Companies must avoid creating circumstances where agents appear authorized unless they are formally empowered, or the company will be bound by their actions.

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31
Q

What did the case Royal British Bank v Turquand (1856) establish for third parties?

A

It established the indoor management rule, which protects outsiders relying on the apparent validity of a company’s internal procedures, unless they are aware of irregularities.

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32
Q

What are the key reforms introduced by Section 31 of the Companies Act 2006?

A

It removes the need for an objects clause in most companies, granting them unrestricted capacity to act unless explicitly limited by their articles.

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33
Q

How does Section 39 differ from traditional ultra vires doctrine?

A

It ensures that acts beyond a company’s objects clause remain valid and binding, protecting third-party transactions from being invalidated.

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34
Q

What principle did Hely-Hutchinson v Brayhead Ltd (1968) reinforce?

A

Authority can be implied from an individual’s role or conduct within the company, binding the company to their actions under apparent authority.

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35
Q

How does the Companies Act 2006 handle transactions involving directors under Section 41?

A

It allows companies to void transactions with directors or connected persons if they involve unauthorized conflicts of interest or breach fiduciary duties.

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36
Q

What protection does Section 40 provide to third parties dealing with directors?

A

It ensures that directors’ internal limitations do not invalidate transactions, provided the third party acts in good faith.

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37
Q

What are the practical implications of the good faith presumption in Section 40?

A

It streamlines transactions by allowing third parties to rely on the validity of agreements without needing to verify directors’ compliance with internal rules.

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38
Q

What does the doctrine of apparent authority protect?

A

It protects third parties who reasonably believe an agent has authority to act on behalf of the company based on the company’s conduct or representations.

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39
Q

Why was Re Jon Beauforte (London) Ltd (1953) significant in illustrating the flaws of the ultra vires doctrine?

A

It showed the harsh consequences of the ultra vires doctrine when a contract was voided because the company acted outside its stated objects, despite benefiting the company.

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40
Q

How do Sections 39 and 40 of the CA 2006 enhance commercial certainty?

A

They validate transactions even if they exceed a company’s objects clause, and protect third parties acting in good faith from the effects of internal company rules.

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41
Q

What does the term ‘constructive notice’ mean in corporate law?

A

Constructive notice is a legal doctrine that assumes outsiders are aware of the contents of a company’s public documents, such as its articles of association.

42
Q

How has the constructive notice doctrine been limited under the CA 2006?

A

The CA 2006 reduced reliance on this doctrine, ensuring third parties are not presumed to know internal company restrictions unless explicitly informed.

43
Q

How did Rolled Steel Ltd v British Steel Corp (1986) clarify directors’ liability?

A

It emphasized that directors can be personally liable for failing to follow internal rules, even if the transaction is enforceable against the company.

44
Q

What are the limitations of the indoor management rule?

A

It does not protect insiders or those who are aware, or should reasonably suspect, that internal company procedures were not followed.

45
Q

How does Section 42 address transactions involving charitable companies?

A

It imposes specific restrictions to ensure transactions align with a charity’s regulatory obligations and purposes.

46
Q

What principle did Freeman & Lockyer v Buckhurst Park Properties Ltd (1964) establish about apparent authority?

A

Companies are bound by the actions of agents with apparent authority, even if those agents were not formally appointed.

47
Q

What is the Turquand rule’s main benefit to third parties?

A

It allows them to assume that internal company rules have been followed unless they have actual knowledge of irregularities.

48
Q

What is the role of Section 39 in simplifying corporate transactions?

A

It ensures acts beyond the objects clause remain valid, enhancing flexibility and reducing risks for third parties.

49
Q

How does Section 40 ensure directors’ accountability without invalidating transactions?

A

It binds companies to transactions with third parties while leaving directors liable for internal breaches of authority.

50
Q

What is the significance of the good faith presumption for third parties?

A

It shifts the burden of proving bad faith to the company, simplifying contractual dealings and reducing uncertainty for outsiders.

51
Q

How does the CA 2006 handle ultra vires acts post-reform?

A

Such acts are no longer void but may result in directors’ liability if they exceed internal powers.

52
Q

What protections does Section 40 provide to third parties during corporate transactions?

A

It ensures that internal limitations on directors’ powers do not affect the validity of transactions if the third party acts in good faith.

53
Q

What distinguishes actual authority from apparent authority?

A

Actual authority is explicitly granted by the company, while apparent authority arises from the company’s conduct or representations.

54
Q

How does Section 41 address conflicts of interest?

A

It scrutinizes transactions involving directors or their connected persons, allowing the company to void unauthorized dealings.

55
Q

What was the primary issue in Hely-Hutchinson v Brayhead Ltd (1968)?

A

Whether a director’s actions bound the company under implied authority, which the court confirmed based on the director’s conduct.

56
Q

What key principle did Royal British Bank v Turquand (1856) establish for corporate dealings?

A

Third parties are entitled to assume compliance with internal procedures unless they have knowledge of irregularities.

57
Q

Why was the reform of the ultra vires doctrine necessary?

A

The doctrine’s rigid application created uncertainty for third parties and hindered commercial flexibility.

58
Q

What is the relationship between Section 39 and Section 40 of the CA 2006?

A

Section 39 ensures corporate acts are valid, while Section 40 protects third parties from internal governance limitations.

59
Q

What does Section 42 of the CA 2006 require of charitable companies?

A

It mandates that their transactions comply with regulatory purposes and ensure alignment with their charitable objectives.

60
Q

How does the CA 2006 promote commercial efficiency in transactions with outsiders?

A

By abolishing ultra vires doctrine, reducing constructive notice, and providing statutory protections like Sections 39–42.

61
Q

What was the historical purpose of the ultra vires doctrine?

A

It limited a company’s capacity to act beyond its stated objectives in the memorandum, aiming to protect shareholders and creditors.

62
Q

What key issue was highlighted in Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co v Riche (1875)?

A

The House of Lords invalidated a contract because it exceeded the company’s objects clause, illustrating the strict application of the ultra vires doctrine.

63
Q

How did A-G v Great Eastern Rly (1880) modify the ultra vires doctrine?

A

It introduced flexibility by allowing acts ‘incidental or consequential’ to the stated objects, mitigating the strictness of earlier cases.

64
Q

What was the impact of abolishing the constructive notice doctrine under the CA 2006?

A

It removed the presumption that third parties must know a company’s internal rules, simplifying transactions and protecting outsiders.

65
Q

How do Sections 31 and 40 of the CA 2006 complement each other?

A

Section 31 grants companies unrestricted capacity unless limited, while Section 40 protects third parties dealing with directors acting in good faith.

66
Q

Why is apparent authority significant in corporate law?

A

It binds companies to contracts entered into by agents who appear to have authority, even if actual authority is absent.

67
Q

What does the term ‘good faith’ mean under Section 40 of the CA 2006?

A

It refers to the presumption that third parties act honestly and without knowledge of any internal irregularities in a company.

68
Q

In what circumstances can third parties lose protection under the indoor management rule?

A

If the outsider has knowledge of or should reasonably suspect internal irregularities, they cannot rely on the rule.

69
Q

How did Re Horsley & Weight Ltd (1982) expand the concept of authority?

A

It confirmed that implied authority could arise from a person’s conduct and position within a company.

70
Q

What safeguards does Section 41 of the CA 2006 provide against director misconduct?

A

It allows the company to void transactions involving directors or connected persons if they breach fiduciary duties.

71
Q

What is the relationship between the indoor management rule and apparent authority?

A

Both protect third parties by assuming that internal procedures are followed and that agents with apparent authority can bind the company.

72
Q

What practical impact did Freeman & Lockyer v Buckhurst Park Properties Ltd (1964) have on corporate transactions?

A

It established that companies are bound by the acts of agents held out as having authority, even without formal appointment.

73
Q

How does Section 42 of the CA 2006 address the unique nature of charitable companies?

A

It imposes stricter requirements to ensure transactions align with the charity’s objectives and regulatory obligations.

74
Q

Why is the concept of implied authority important in corporate governance?

A

It ensures that individuals acting within their apparent roles can bind the company without explicit authorization.

75
Q

What impact did Lockyer v Buckhurst Park Properties Ltd (1964) have on corporate transactions?

A

It established that companies are bound by the acts of agents held out as having authority, even without formal appointment.

76
Q

Why is the concept of implied authority important in corporate governance?

A

It ensures that individuals acting within their apparent roles can bind the company without explicit authorization for each act.

77
Q

What was the significance of the CA 2006 reforms for SMEs?

A

By reducing reliance on ultra vires and constructive notice, SMEs gained greater flexibility in corporate transactions.

78
Q

What does the case Rolled Steel Ltd v British Steel Corp (1986) illustrate about director liability?

A

Directors may be held liable for failing to follow internal rules, even if the transaction is enforceable against the company.

79
Q

How does Section 40 protect directors’ decisions in third-party dealings?

A

It ensures the validity of transactions regardless of internal limitations, provided third parties act in good faith.

80
Q

How did the CA 2006 change the concept of ultra vires for companies?

A

It abolished ultra vires for most companies, granting them unrestricted capacity unless specifically limited by their articles.

81
Q

What is the significance of the good faith presumption for third parties under Section 40?

A

It reduces their obligation to verify internal compliance, fostering trust and efficiency in commercial dealings.

82
Q

How does the CA 2006 address transactions that exceed directors’ authority?

A

Section 40 validates transactions with third parties acting in good faith but leaves directors accountable for internal breaches.

83
Q

What limits the scope of the indoor management rule?

A

It does not apply if the third party has actual knowledge of an irregularity or is complicit in breaching internal procedures.

84
Q

Why was the constructive notice doctrine problematic for third parties?

A

It unfairly presumed that third parties were aware of internal restrictions, increasing their risk in corporate transactions.

85
Q

How does the CA 2006 simplify corporate transactions?

A

By removing outdated doctrines like ultra vires and constructive notice, it ensures smoother interactions between companies and third parties.

86
Q

What is the role of Section 39 in protecting third-party transactions?

A

It ensures that acts beyond a company’s objects clause are still valid, reducing the risk of invalidation for outsiders.

87
Q

How does the CA 2006 balance third-party protections with director accountability?

A

While Sections 39 and 40 validate transactions, directors remain liable for breaches of internal limitations or fiduciary duties.

88
Q

What is the practical benefit of the good faith presumption in Section 40?

A

It simplifies due diligence for third parties, allowing them to rely on the apparent authority of directors.

89
Q

What did Hely-Hutchinson v Brayhead Ltd (1968) demonstrate about implied authority?

A

Authority can arise from a director’s conduct and position, even without formal delegation.

90
Q

How did the ultra vires doctrine affect companies before the CA 2006 reforms?

A

It voided transactions outside a company’s stated objects, creating uncertainty for third parties.

91
Q

What key reforms reduced the reliance on constructive notice in corporate law?

A

The CA 2006 eliminated the presumption that outsiders must be aware of a company’s internal rules, enhancing transaction validity.

92
Q

How does Section 42 ensure compliance for charitable companies?

A

It mandates that transactions must align with their regulatory obligations and charitable purposes.

93
Q

What impact did the CA 2006 have on the application of the Turquand rule?

A

It reinforced the rule’s protection for third parties while limiting reliance on constructive notice.

94
Q

What does apparent authority protect in corporate dealings?

A

It safeguards third parties who rely on an agent’s perceived authority based on the company’s conduct.

95
Q

How does the CA 2006 encourage commercial certainty?

A

By validating transactions beyond the company’s objects clause and reducing the impact of internal limitations on third parties.

96
Q

What principle did Freeman & Lockyer v Buckhurst Park Properties Ltd (1964) establish about company representation?

A

Companies are bound by the actions of individuals they represent as having authority, even without formal appointments.

97
Q

What is the significance of the CA 2006 reforms for international competitiveness?

A

They align UK corporate law with global practices by simplifying transactions and enhancing third-party protections.

98
Q

How does Section 39 ensure validity in corporate acts?

A

It confirms that acts exceeding internal limitations remain binding, fostering trust and consistency in commercial dealings.

99
Q

How does the CA 2006 address director conflicts in transactions?

A

Section 41 allows companies to scrutinize and void transactions that involve breaches of fiduciary duties or conflicts of interest.

100
Q

What are the key limitations of the Turquand rule?

A

It does not protect insiders or parties who have knowledge of irregularities in internal company procedures.

101
Q

How does Section 40 promote efficiency in corporate governance?

A

By validating transactions and reducing procedural burdens, it simplifies interactions with third parties while holding directors accountable.

102
Q

How do Sections 31, 39, and 40 collectively modernize corporate law?

A

They abolish ultra vires, ensure transaction validity, and protect third parties, fostering a more flexible and reliable legal framework.