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Archi_associate_AWS > Training > Flashcards

Training Flashcards

1
Q

How often are CloudWatch metrics created for an EBS volume?

A

Every 5 minutes

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2
Q

What parameter needs to be disabled to maintain a root volume after instance termination?

A

Delete on Termination

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3
Q

How many EC2 instances can be attached to an EBS volume?

A

1

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4
Q

What is the time interval at which EFS metric data gets sent to CloudWatch?

A

1 minute

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5
Q

If an EBS volume is encrypted at the time of a snapshot, what will be the status of the snapshot?

A

Encrypted

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6
Q

How long do you have to validate your Vault Lock Policy?

A

24 hours

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7
Q

In terms of EBS and instance-store root volumes, what is the default action upon instance termination?

A

Delete on Termination

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8
Q

How many GiB is needed to attain 120 IOPS?

A

40 GiB

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9
Q

How many times can an object be replicated with S3 CRR?

A

1

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10
Q

What is a file gateway used for?

A

Store and retrieve files.

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11
Q

What storage classes are integrated with Amazon EFS?

A
  • Standard-IA

- Standard

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12
Q

How long is EFS metric data retained within CloudWatch?

A

15 months

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13
Q

What must be enabled on a database to create Read Replicas?

A

Enable database backups

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14
Q

What are the three main functions of Route 53?

A
  • Health Checks
  • DNS (Domain Name System) service
  • Domain Registration
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15
Q

What is Guard Duty ?

A

A threat detection service that monitors for threats to AWS accounts and workloads.

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16
Q

What is TCO Calculator ?

A

Estimation of the cost savings to be had by migrating to the AWS Cloud from an on-premises datacenter.

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17
Q

What is AWS Cost explorer ?

A

Visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time.

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18
Q

What is AWS SImple Calculator ?

A

Calculate anticipated billing.

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19
Q

Why used stored volumes ?

A

Store all data locally, but periodically that data is backed up to AWS using snapshots.

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20
Q

Why used Cached Volume ?

A

Store all data in the AWS cloud and cache data locally.

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21
Q

What does a route table do?

A

Directs traffic within a network

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22
Q

In the event history of CloudTrail, how many days of events are retained?

A

90 days

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23
Q

What component of a CloudWatch Alarm configuration is defined as the amount of time before notification?

A

The Period

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24
Q

How do CloudWatch Events differ from CloudWatch Alarms?

A

Events react to patterns, and alarms react to thresholds.

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25
Q

What are the 3 state of cloudwatch alarm ?

A
  • OK
  • Alarm
  • Insufficient_Data
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26
Q

What three AWS services can receive CloudWatch Alarm notifications?

A
  • AutoScaling
  • EC2
  • SNS
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27
Q

What databases are compatible with Amazon Aurora?

A

PostgreSQL

MySQL

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28
Q

What is a Hash Function ?

A

A function to map data of arbitrary size to fixed-size values.

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29
Q

What is the maximum number of data copies that Amazon Aurora can lose without affecting writes?

A

2

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30
Q

What CloudWatch metric is used to determine needs for storage type changes?

A

ReadIOPS/WriteIOPS

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31
Q

What is swap usage ?

A

A metric that displays the amount of hard disk space swapped for lack of RAM.

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32
Q

Which important Cloud concepts will an ELB improve?

A

Fault tolerance

High Availibility

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33
Q

What are the four primary benefits of using cloud services ?

A

High availability, fault tolerant, scalability and elasticity.

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34
Q

What is Amazon RDS?

A

A managed relational database service, where the underlying infrastructure is supported by AWS

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35
Q

What is the purpose of CloudTrail?

A

Log, monitor, and retain account activity related to actions across your AWS infrastructure

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36
Q

What is the default maximum number of SNS topics per account?

A

100 000

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37
Q

What is the defaulted limit to the number of SNS subscriptions per topic?

A

12 500 000

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38
Q

What happens to instances in an Auto Scaling Group if it is marked unhealthy?

A

The instance will terminate and be replaced with a new instance.

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39
Q

What are the two main components of Auto Scaling?

A

Launch configuration and Auto Scaling group

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40
Q

What is the purpose of the launch configuration?

A

It determines the configuration that will be used on EC2 instances that will be launched.

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41
Q

What are the two primary ways you are charged for using Lambda?

A

Execution requests and execution duration

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42
Q

Which can be used to execute or invoke Lambda code?

A

The AWS Console + SNS, S3, and CloudTrail

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43
Q

If you are using an ELB to serve HTTP web traffic to EC2 instances, what port(s) must be open on the ELB’s security group?

A

Port 80

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44
Q

What listeners can you configure your Application Load Balancer to accept?

A

HTTP

HTTPS

45
Q

What mechanism is used to ensure that Port 80 traffic is allowed into a subnet?

A

Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) can be used to allow and deny communication via a specific port into the subnet.

46
Q

What happens if you launch an EC2 instance without specifying a subnet?

A

It gets launched into a default subnet in the default VPC.

47
Q

If data is traveling from a customer, over the open internet, to a website you are hosting on an EC2 instance in an AWS VPC, what is the order of components that data will travel through?

A

IGW -> Route Table -> NACL -> Security Group -> EC2 Instance

48
Q

What is service-link-roles ?

A

A unique type of IAM role that is linked directly to an AWS service.

49
Q

What is an Instance Profile?

A

A container for an IAM role that you can use to pass role information to an EC2 instance when the instance starts.

50
Q

What is Confused deputy problem ?

A

One process tricks another process to do an action it doesn’t have permissions to do

51
Q

What differentiates a role from a user?

A
  • A role can be assumed by multiple identities.

- A role does not have standard long-term credentials.

52
Q

What is a principal ?

A

An entity that can take an action on an AWS resource. Your administrative IAM user is your first principal. Users, roles, federated users, and applications are all AWS principals.

53
Q

What are Access Levels ?

A

A way to categorize actions => List, Read, Write, Permissions Management, and Tagging are valid access levels.

54
Q

What is Power User Access ?

A

Provides full access to AWS services and resources, but does not allow management of Users and groups

55
Q

What is Policy Summary Tables ?

A

A table that describe the access level, resources, and conditions that are allowed or denied for each service in a policy.

56
Q

What is the rule for nesting IAM Groups?

A

IAM Groups cannot be nested.

57
Q

What is the relationship between groups and policies?

A

Many (groups) to many (policies)

58
Q

Besides CloudFront, what are two ways API Gateway can block DDOS attacks from reaching your backend?

A
  • Request Throttling

- Caching API Responses

59
Q

How big can a SQS text message be in size?

A

256 kb

60
Q

Which messaging service uses standard APIs and protocols such as JMS, NMS, AMQP, STOMP, MQTT, and WebSocket?

A

Amazon MQ

61
Q

Which ECS mode allows AWS to fully manage the backend infrastructure?

A

Fargate

62
Q

What is the maximum period that RDS keeps an automated backup?

A

35 days

63
Q

How many read replicas can you have from one master instance?

A

5

64
Q

An RDS database’s endpoint is:

A
  • an identifier that can be used to communicate the primary instance
  • is represented as a domain name, hostname, or CNAME
65
Q

What is the difference between CloudTrail and CloudWatch Events?

A

CloudWatch can see events in almost real-time, while CloudTrail can take up to 15 minutes.
CloudWatch Events can take action or use automation based on Rules and State Changes, while CloudTrail is an auditing tool.

66
Q

Which types of data are ideal for Athena to query?

A
  • structured data
  • unstructured data
  • semi-structured data
67
Q

What is an API endpoint?

A

It is a location that allows for API interaction

68
Q

What is the longest runtime allowable on a state machine?

A

Up to 1 year

69
Q

How long, at maximum, will Lambda process a function before it is terminated?

A

15 minutes

70
Q

What is the role of an API?

A

It’s a set of functions designed to facilitate communication with other applications.

71
Q

What language is used to configure state machines?

A

ASL (Amazon State Language)

72
Q

How can you restrict a root user of an Organization Unit account?

A

By creating and attaching a service control policy

73
Q

What OSI layer is used in VPC peering?

A

Layer 3

74
Q

What type of IP address can attach to an operating system?

A

IPv6

75
Q

What are the functions that a NAT gateway provides for IPv4 resources ?

A
  • Shares a single public IP address for a private resource
  • Provides private instances a route to the internet
  • Translates private to public IPs and vice versa
76
Q

What are the two types of VPC endpoints?

A
  • Interface endpoints

- Gateway endpoints

77
Q

Which of the following are similarities between gateway endpoints and interface endpoints?

A
  • Allow you to connect to a public AWS service without needing a public gateway or public IP
  • Both are VPC endpoints
  • Both can be used to achieve high availability
78
Q

Which CIDR block is given when IPv6 is allocated to a VPC?

A

/56

79
Q

Security groups can be shared across _.

A
  • 2 VPCs in the same region
  • multiple EC2s instances in a VPC
  • AWS accounts in the same region
80
Q

What is the maximum amount (without logging a support ticket) of GSIs per table within DynamoDB?

A

20

81
Q

How many replicas does DynamoDB provide per table?

A

3 replicas each in their own AZ

82
Q

In DynamoDB, what is the difference between a scan and a query operation?

A

A scan will search the whole table, which uses more computing power. A query operation searches for only the primary key attributes, that are more efficient.

83
Q

What are the two types of indexing in DynamoDB?

A

GSI (global secondary index) and LSI (local secondary index)

84
Q

How many days does Dynamdb maintain continuous point in time backups of your table ?

A

35 days

85
Q

What is the max limit of access keys an IAM User may possess at a time?

A

2

86
Q

What is the difference between the two types of policies in an IAM Role?

A

The trust policy allows identities to assume roles, while the permission policy defines the permissions provided.

87
Q

What is the syntax for ARNs?

A

arn:partition:service:region:account-id:

88
Q

A Route 53 health check can monitor the health of an HTTP or HTTPS page every

A

30 and 10 seconds

89
Q

Which record is used to list the mail servers for a domain?

A

MX Records

90
Q

What split-view DNS (or horizon DNS) in Route 53 allow to do ?

A

Allows for a private (internal) version of a website while using the same domain name as a public website

91
Q

Which are default records of a zone?

A

NS and SOA

92
Q

What information does a DNS server hold?

A

DNS holds and maintains a directory of domain names and IP addresses.

93
Q

Which record is used to set the authoritative servers for a subdomain?

A

NS record

94
Q

How frequently are you billed for Route 53 health checks?

A

Per month and are based on the number of checks within the month.

95
Q

Which record maps domain names to their IPv4 address?

A

A record

96
Q

Which OSI layer’s primary task is to add encryption to a packet?

A

Presentation

97
Q

What are the benefits of a proxy server?

A
  • Can be installed on an EC2
  • Caching of frequently visited sites
  • Outbound filtering based on application values
98
Q

Which OSI layer views the request and reply communication as a single session between the client and the server?

A

Session

99
Q

What is the main function of a firewall?

A

Monitors and inspects traffic to determine if it should allow/deny access to/from its network.

100
Q

Which layer assigns MAC addresses on devices in a local network?

A

Datalink

101
Q

Which layers are used in a device to device communication within the same local network?

A

Datalink and Physical layer

102
Q

Which OSI layer would you place a firewall if you wanted to deny traffic by port number?

A

Transport Layer

103
Q

Name the OSI layers starting at layer seven and ending at layer one.

A

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

104
Q

Which layer is used for device to device communication over intermediate routers?

A

Network

105
Q

What best describes an IAM role?

A

A role is something that a user, application or service can “assume” to receive temporary security credentials that provide access to a resource.

106
Q

How many records of the same name does failover routing allow?

A

2

107
Q

When incrementing Lambda function memory sizing, what is the increment size you are restricted to?

A

64 MB

108
Q

You receive 429 Error (Throttle Limit) codes when what type of invocation fails?

A

Synchronous (Not Stream-based)

109
Q

Can we create a nat gateways without elastic IP

A

No

Archi_associate_AWS (5 decks)

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