TQ 737 Flashcards
During autoland: what FMA annunciation will be displayed as being active first
Flare
The wing anti-ice system, when switched ON after engine start, will automatically be shut off:
When takeoff thrust is set
Which hydraulic system must be depressurized when pushback is needed and the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed?
Hydraulic system A
After engine start, if icing conditions are present or anticipated engine anti-ice must be switched on:
Immediately after engine start
Vref = 130kts. Active runway is 24. Wind 240/12 Gusting 22kts. What should be you speed at touchdown?
140kts
When shall engine anti-icing be used?
Always when OAT or TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture is present
There is sufficient fuel in all three tanks. Which fuel pump shall be switched on to feed the APU?
The left center fuel pump
How is crew alerted, after engine start, to warnings or cautions away from the normal field of view
By the master caution system
When shall cold temperature corrections be applied
When airport temperature is below 0c or below minimum published temperature for the procedure being flown
For autoland, both autopilots must be selected before
Descending below 800ft RA
When entering the departure runway:
Set the strobe light switch to ON
During climb you see the right PACK illuminated amber. Which statement is true?
it indicates the pack temperature inside the right pack has exceeded limits
Tail strike pitch attitude(degrees) for the 737-800 is:
11.0
A non-normal checklist in the QRH advises to “Land at the nearest suitable airport”. What is a “nearest suitable airport”.
Any airport with adequate facilities and more than minimum weather and field conditions
Regarding engine start; what is a wet start?
An engine start where EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE
Regarding Manual stabilizer trim
- In extreme cases it may be necessary to aerodynamically relieve the air loads to allow manual trimming.
- If manual stabilizer trim is necessary, ensure both stabilizer trim cutout switches are in CUTOUT prior to extending the manual trim wheel handles.
- Excessive air loads on the stabilizer may require effort by both pilots to correct the mis-trim
What is the optimum autobrake setting for normal landing
Autobrake 2 or 3
Attempt to be at flaps 5 and flaps 5 maneuver speed before:
Glide slope capture
Limit each start attempt to a maximum of:
2 minutes
Information about volcanic ash activity can be found:
The NOTAM system details known areas of volcanic ash activity where ash may be present in the atmosphere
When the PF or PM makes a CDU entry, which entry needs to be verified before being executed?
All entries
Condition: normal operation. Which hydraulic system supplies power to operate the landing gear retraction or extension and which supplies the normal brake system
System A; System B
Regarding tail skid(picture showing tail skid cartridge is FULL RED)
Indicates tail skid needs to be replaced
The ILS may be captured from
Above and below
What are the acceleration heights of the noise abatement departure procedures NADP 1 and 2
1: 3000 ft
2: 800 ft
You are about to fly a visual traffic pattern. What is the recommended altitude on downwind?
1500 ft above runway elevation
Using aileron trim while autopilot is engaged, will disengage the autopilot.
False
If moderate or severe icing conditions are present, a static run-up should be performed up to:
70% N1
Which of the following statements is NOT a condition for the PTU to operate?
The system A engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits
What is the main difference between position CONT and position FLT of the engine start switch
CONT provides ignition to both igniters under certain conditions; FLT always provides ignitions to both igniters
Engines should cool down 3 minutes before engine shutdown, how long should the engines warm up after engine start before takeoff?
2 minutes
In case of an engine fire after takeoff; what is the minimum height at which memory items may be performed?
400 ft AGL
Advancing the engine start lever prematurely can cause a hot start.
True
The normal procedures assume that you(A/P):
Use automated features(LNAV, VNAV, Autoland, Autopilot, etc) while remaining proficient in manual flight as well
A full stop landing must be made:
After reverse thrust levers are moved
The purpose of the PTU is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to:
Operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats when hydraulic system B engine-driven volume is lost
Always run the APU for - minutes before using it as a bleed air source
2 minutes
When would you reset a tripped circuit breaker on ground
After maintenance has determined it is safe to do so.
Which flap setting(s) may be used for autoland?
Flaps 30 or 40
When releasing the control column while using autopilot CWS, the autopilot holds
The existing attitude
Before takeoff: center tank fuel pump switches should be positioned ON only when:
The fuel quantity in the center tank exceeds 453KG
What defines who controls which control or switch during the different phases of flight?
The Area of Responsibility
The color of the terrain profile lines on the VSD are the same as those used for ground proximity data shown on the map portion of the center MAP display
True
How do we check for the flightcrew oxygen (cilinder) valve to be in the full open position
By holding the RESET/TEST switch down and pushing the EMERGENCY/TEST selector for 5 seconds.
Just after takeoff you get a windshear warning. How do you set maximum thrust?
Move thrust levers to the full forward stop(firewalling)
Situation: on the ground. Wing anti icing shall be used:
Always when engine anti-iceing is used except when the airplane is or will be protected by a type II or IV de- or anti-icing fluid.
The EGT digital box flashes white during ground start. What does this show?
This is a possible hot start
How is pressurization and ventilation of the cabin controlled?
By modulating the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve.
When does the engine cooldown period start?
If no idle reverse is used: when thrust is reduced to idle for landing.
During normal engine start, maximum motoring is:
When the rate of N2 acceleration is less than 1% per 5 seconds
What are the possible sources of bleed air?
Engines, APU and external air cart
When flying manually(mcp changes)
The PF direct the PM to make changes on the MCP
Oxygen for passengers:
Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators located in each PSU
When shall the “CABIN CREW - PREPARE FOR LANIDNG” call be given?
At or above FL100
Under which of these conditions can you deploy the thrust reversers?
On the ground with the forward thrust levers at idle
The ILS glideslope may be captured from
Above and below
What is the standard CDU configuration for takeoff?
PF: Takeoff reference page. PM: Legs page
How do the flight spoilers help the airplane roll during flight
They decrease lift on the low wing(aileron up)
Which of the answers below is a method to disengage the autopilot during a single autopilot approach?
By activating the stabilizer trim switch
When shall a visual inspection of the aircraft be made(walk around)?
Before each flight
The recommended use of wing anti-ice system during flight in icing conditions is:
Allow ice to accumulate before switching on the wing anti-ice
What is the correct approach speed correction?
Half of the steady headwind component + the full gust increment above the steady wind.(max Vref + 15, FAS bleedoff is Vref-HW)
Condition: after landing. If prolonged operation in icing conditions with the leading and trailing edge flaps are extended was needed:
Do not retract the flaps to less than 15 until flap areas have been checked to be free of contaminants
Airport elevation is 2000ft, QNH is 1013HPa, airport temperature is -15c, a published flightpath altitude is 5000ft. Which height requires cold temperature altitude correction(CTAC) to fly the correct flightpath?
The height between airport elevation and the published flight path: 3000ft.
After engine start, if taxi route is through ice, snow, slush or standing water in low temperatures:
Taxi out with the flaps up
What is the preferred flap setting for landing?
Flaps 30
When taxiing in with one engine out, N1 values above –% are not recommended
40%
How does an overheat/ fire detector loop determine the difference between an overheat or a fire?
By use of predetermined temperature limits
Which is an icing condition?
Rain, 5 degrees celsius
What is the appropriate speed in turns greater than high speed runway turnoffs and the normal and maximum taxi speeds?
10kts, 20kts and 30kts
In case of a non-stabilized approach, at which lowest altitude shall the PM give the call “NOT STABILIZED, GO AROUND”?
1000ft AFE (IMC), 500ft AFE (VMC)
Which of the options below will produce the highest deceleration rate when braking?
Full pedal braking
When an airport has no Noise Abatement Departure Procedure(NADP) specified, use:
NADP 2 (800ft)
What is the lowest altitude allowed to use speedbrakes?
1000ft AGL
What are high lift devices on the B737NG
Trailing edge flaps and the leading edge flaps and slats
How is level change climb or descend initiated?
Select new Altitude on MCP and engage the LVL CHG mode.
