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TQ 737 > TQ 737 > Flashcards

TQ 737 Flashcards

1
Q

During autoland: what FMA annunciation will be displayed as being active first

A

Flare

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2
Q

The wing anti-ice system, when switched ON after engine start, will automatically be shut off:

A

When takeoff thrust is set

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3
Q

Which hydraulic system must be depressurized when pushback is needed and the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed?

A

Hydraulic system A

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4
Q

After engine start, if icing conditions are present or anticipated engine anti-ice must be switched on:

A

Immediately after engine start

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5
Q

Vref = 130kts. Active runway is 24. Wind 240/12 Gusting 22kts. What should be you speed at touchdown?

A

140kts

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6
Q

When shall engine anti-icing be used?

A

Always when OAT or TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture is present

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7
Q

There is sufficient fuel in all three tanks. Which fuel pump shall be switched on to feed the APU?

A

The left center fuel pump

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8
Q

How is crew alerted, after engine start, to warnings or cautions away from the normal field of view

A

By the master caution system

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9
Q

When shall cold temperature corrections be applied

A

When airport temperature is below 0c or below minimum published temperature for the procedure being flown

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9
Q

For autoland, both autopilots must be selected before

A

Descending below 800ft RA

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10
Q

When entering the departure runway:

A

Set the strobe light switch to ON

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11
Q

During climb you see the right PACK illuminated amber. Which statement is true?

A

it indicates the pack temperature inside the right pack has exceeded limits

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12
Q

Tail strike pitch attitude(degrees) for the 737-800 is:

A

11.0

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13
Q

A non-normal checklist in the QRH advises to “Land at the nearest suitable airport”. What is a “nearest suitable airport”.

A

Any airport with adequate facilities and more than minimum weather and field conditions

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14
Q

Regarding engine start; what is a wet start?

A

An engine start where EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE

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15
Q

Regarding Manual stabilizer trim

A
  • In extreme cases it may be necessary to aerodynamically relieve the air loads to allow manual trimming.
  • If manual stabilizer trim is necessary, ensure both stabilizer trim cutout switches are in CUTOUT prior to extending the manual trim wheel handles.
  • Excessive air loads on the stabilizer may require effort by both pilots to correct the mis-trim
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16
Q

What is the optimum autobrake setting for normal landing

A

Autobrake 2 or 3

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17
Q

Attempt to be at flaps 5 and flaps 5 maneuver speed before:

A

Glide slope capture

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18
Q

Limit each start attempt to a maximum of:

A

2 minutes

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19
Q

Information about volcanic ash activity can be found:

A

The NOTAM system details known areas of volcanic ash activity where ash may be present in the atmosphere

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20
Q

When the PF or PM makes a CDU entry, which entry needs to be verified before being executed?

A

All entries

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21
Q

Condition: normal operation. Which hydraulic system supplies power to operate the landing gear retraction or extension and which supplies the normal brake system

A

System A; System B

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22
Q

Regarding tail skid(picture showing tail skid cartridge is FULL RED)

A

Indicates tail skid needs to be replaced

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23
Q

The ILS may be captured from

A

Above and below

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24
Q

What are the acceleration heights of the noise abatement departure procedures NADP 1 and 2

A

1: 3000 ft
2: 800 ft

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25
Q

You are about to fly a visual traffic pattern. What is the recommended altitude on downwind?

A

1500 ft above runway elevation

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26
Q

Using aileron trim while autopilot is engaged, will disengage the autopilot.

A

False

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27
Q

If moderate or severe icing conditions are present, a static run-up should be performed up to:

A

70% N1

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT a condition for the PTU to operate?

A

The system A engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits

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29
Q

What is the main difference between position CONT and position FLT of the engine start switch

A

CONT provides ignition to both igniters under certain conditions; FLT always provides ignitions to both igniters

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30
Q

Engines should cool down 3 minutes before engine shutdown, how long should the engines warm up after engine start before takeoff?

A

2 minutes

31
Q

In case of an engine fire after takeoff; what is the minimum height at which memory items may be performed?

A

400 ft AGL

32
Q

Advancing the engine start lever prematurely can cause a hot start.

A

True

33
Q

The normal procedures assume that you(A/P):

A

Use automated features(LNAV, VNAV, Autoland, Autopilot, etc) while remaining proficient in manual flight as well

34
Q

A full stop landing must be made:

A

After reverse thrust levers are moved

35
Q

The purpose of the PTU is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to:

A

Operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats when hydraulic system B engine-driven volume is lost

36
Q

Always run the APU for - minutes before using it as a bleed air source

A

2 minutes

37
Q

When would you reset a tripped circuit breaker on ground

A

After maintenance has determined it is safe to do so.

38
Q

Which flap setting(s) may be used for autoland?

A

Flaps 30 or 40

39
Q

When releasing the control column while using autopilot CWS, the autopilot holds

A

The existing attitude

40
Q

Before takeoff: center tank fuel pump switches should be positioned ON only when:

A

The fuel quantity in the center tank exceeds 453KG

41
Q

What defines who controls which control or switch during the different phases of flight?

A

The Area of Responsibility

42
Q

The color of the terrain profile lines on the VSD are the same as those used for ground proximity data shown on the map portion of the center MAP display

A

True

43
Q

How do we check for the flightcrew oxygen (cilinder) valve to be in the full open position

A

By holding the RESET/TEST switch down and pushing the EMERGENCY/TEST selector for 5 seconds.

44
Q

Just after takeoff you get a windshear warning. How do you set maximum thrust?

A

Move thrust levers to the full forward stop(firewalling)

45
Q

Situation: on the ground. Wing anti icing shall be used:

A

Always when engine anti-iceing is used except when the airplane is or will be protected by a type II or IV de- or anti-icing fluid.

46
Q

The EGT digital box flashes white during ground start. What does this show?

A

This is a possible hot start

47
Q

How is pressurization and ventilation of the cabin controlled?

A

By modulating the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve.

48
Q

When does the engine cooldown period start?

A

If no idle reverse is used: when thrust is reduced to idle for landing.

49
Q

During normal engine start, maximum motoring is:

A

When the rate of N2 acceleration is less than 1% per 5 seconds

50
Q

What are the possible sources of bleed air?

A

Engines, APU and external air cart

51
Q

When flying manually(mcp changes)

A

The PF direct the PM to make changes on the MCP

52
Q

Oxygen for passengers:

A

Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators located in each PSU

53
Q

When shall the “CABIN CREW - PREPARE FOR LANIDNG” call be given?

A

At or above FL100

54
Q

Under which of these conditions can you deploy the thrust reversers?

A

On the ground with the forward thrust levers at idle

55
Q

The ILS glideslope may be captured from

A

Above and below

56
Q

What is the standard CDU configuration for takeoff?

A

PF: Takeoff reference page. PM: Legs page

57
Q

How do the flight spoilers help the airplane roll during flight

A

They decrease lift on the low wing(aileron up)

58
Q

Which of the answers below is a method to disengage the autopilot during a single autopilot approach?

A

By activating the stabilizer trim switch

59
Q

When shall a visual inspection of the aircraft be made(walk around)?

A

Before each flight

60
Q

The recommended use of wing anti-ice system during flight in icing conditions is:

A

Allow ice to accumulate before switching on the wing anti-ice

61
Q

What is the correct approach speed correction?

A

Half of the steady headwind component + the full gust increment above the steady wind.(max Vref + 15, FAS bleedoff is Vref-HW)

62
Q

Condition: after landing. If prolonged operation in icing conditions with the leading and trailing edge flaps are extended was needed:

A

Do not retract the flaps to less than 15 until flap areas have been checked to be free of contaminants

63
Q

Airport elevation is 2000ft, QNH is 1013HPa, airport temperature is -15c, a published flightpath altitude is 5000ft. Which height requires cold temperature altitude correction(CTAC) to fly the correct flightpath?

A

The height between airport elevation and the published flight path: 3000ft.

64
Q

After engine start, if taxi route is through ice, snow, slush or standing water in low temperatures:

A

Taxi out with the flaps up

65
Q

What is the preferred flap setting for landing?

A

Flaps 30

66
Q

When taxiing in with one engine out, N1 values above –% are not recommended

A

40%

67
Q

How does an overheat/ fire detector loop determine the difference between an overheat or a fire?

A

By use of predetermined temperature limits

68
Q

Which is an icing condition?

A

Rain, 5 degrees celsius

69
Q

What is the appropriate speed in turns greater than high speed runway turnoffs and the normal and maximum taxi speeds?

A

10kts, 20kts and 30kts

70
Q

In case of a non-stabilized approach, at which lowest altitude shall the PM give the call “NOT STABILIZED, GO AROUND”?

A

1000ft AFE (IMC), 500ft AFE (VMC)

71
Q

Which of the options below will produce the highest deceleration rate when braking?

A

Full pedal braking

72
Q

When an airport has no Noise Abatement Departure Procedure(NADP) specified, use:

A

NADP 2 (800ft)

73
Q

What is the lowest altitude allowed to use speedbrakes?

A

1000ft AGL

74
Q

What are high lift devices on the B737NG

A

Trailing edge flaps and the leading edge flaps and slats

75
Q

How is level change climb or descend initiated?

A

Select new Altitude on MCP and engage the LVL CHG mode.

TQ 737 (1 decks)

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