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Comp test/Board review > tq > Flashcards

tq Flashcards

1
Q

the transpyloric plane goes through which of the following vertebra?

A

L1

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2
Q

what type of epithelium is present in the epidermis of the skin?

A

keratinized stratified squamous

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3
Q

simple cuboidal epithelium

A

secretory cells

-kidneys, glands, digestive tract

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4
Q

simple columnar epithelium

A

absorption

-stomach, intestines

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5
Q

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

A

respiratory tract

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6
Q

non-keratinized stratified squamous

A

oral cavity
vagina
esophagus
anal

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7
Q

the trochanter is located on the _______

A

femur

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8
Q

which cell lies in the lacuna of compact bone?

A

osteocyte-mature

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9
Q

osteoblast

A

creates bone, immature

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10
Q

osteoclast

A

destroy bone

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11
Q

osteoprogenitor cells

A

play role in fracture, produce osteoblast, which will become osteocyte

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12
Q

which bone of the foot has a groove for the tendon of peroneus/ fibularis longus?

A

cuboid

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13
Q

which bone of the foot has a groove for the tendon of flexor hallicus longus

A

calcaneous

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14
Q

which is an example of a synovial pivot joint?

A

superior/proximal radio-ulnar joint

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15
Q

which is an example of a ovoid/condylmus joint?

A

metacarpo-phalangeal joint

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16
Q

which is an example of a hinge joint?

A

humro-ulnar joint

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17
Q

which is an example of a saddle joint

A

sternoclavicular joint

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18
Q

which ligament is also called the deltoid ligament?

A

medial ligament of the ankle

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19
Q

which muscle does not insert into the upper and medial surface of the tibia in the pes anserine area?

A

semimembranosus

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20
Q

which nerve innervates the tibialis anterior muscle?

A

deep fibular/ peroneal nerve

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21
Q

deep fibular nerve innervates what muscles?

A
  • tibialis anterior
  • digitorum longus
  • hallicus longus
  • peroneus tertius
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22
Q

saphenous nerve innervates what muscles?

A

medial compartment of the leg

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23
Q

superficial fibular nerve innervates what muscles?

A

peroneus brevis and longus

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24
Q

sural nerve innervates what muscles?

A

posterior lateral compartment of the leg

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25
Q

which muscle does not insert into the mastoid process of the temporal bone?

A

semispinalis capitis attaches at the occiput

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26
Q

which muscles insert on the mastoid?

A

splenius capitus
SCM
longissimus capitis

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27
Q

the connective tissue covering an individual muscle fiber is called _______.

A

endomysium

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28
Q

the right coronary artery is a branch of the _____.

A

ascending aorta

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29
Q

the superior vena cava opens into the _____ of the heart.

A

right atrium

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30
Q

which is the primary lymphatic site where stem vells divide and develop into mature B cell and T cells?

A

red bone marrow and thymus gland

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31
Q

which tonsil is located in oropharynx between the palatoglossal arch and palatopharyngeal arch?

A

palatine tonsil

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32
Q

where is the pharyngeal tonsil

A

by the entrance of auditory tube

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33
Q

where is the lingual tonsil

A

by root of tongue and epiglottis

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34
Q

where is the tubal tonsil

A

in the eustation tube

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35
Q

which part of the duodenum receives the opening of the common bile duct?

A

second/ descending part

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36
Q

what structures lies in posterior mediastinum?

A

sympathetic trunk

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37
Q

what structures lies in middle mediastinum?

A

ascending aorta

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38
Q

what structures lies in superior mediastinum?

A

arch of aorta

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39
Q

what structures lies in middle mediastinum?

A

pulmonary trunk

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40
Q

which muscle of the larynx lies anteriorly and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?

A

cricothyroid-anterior/lateral

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41
Q

which is the large funnel shaped part of the kidney where the ureter begins?

A

renal pelvis

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42
Q

which area of the adreanal gland produces and excretes glucocortoids, such as cortisol?

A

zona fasciculate

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43
Q

which is not a feature of the lateral portion of hte occipital bone?

A

mastoid process- temporal bone

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44
Q

in which region of spine are the intervertebral foramen directed obliqquely anterior, inferior, and lateral?

A

cervical

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45
Q

which ribs are considered true because of attachment directly to the sternum?

A

ribs 1-7

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46
Q

which ribs are considered false?

A

ribs 7 and 8

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47
Q

which ribs are connected to the sternum?

A

ribs 3-9

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48
Q

which ribs are floating ribs?

A

ribs 11 and 12

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49
Q

the middle meningeal artery goes through the _____

A

foramen spinosum

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50
Q

what artery goes through the foramen magnum?

A

vertebral artery with CN 11, and spinal cord

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51
Q

what exits through foramen rotundum

A

CN V-2 maxillary

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52
Q

what exits through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IV, IX, X, XI, ascending and pharyngeal arterial branches

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53
Q

what muscle is innervated by the medial branch of the dorsal primary rami?

A

rotatores longus

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54
Q

which nerve innervates the posterior digastric muscle?

A

facial nerve

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55
Q

nerve to anterior digastric

A

via ansa vervicalis

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56
Q

what muscle attaches to the spinous process of axis?

A

obliquus capitus inferior and rectus capitis posterior major

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57
Q

superior continuation of the ligamentum flavum is the ________.

A

posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

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58
Q

joints formed by the vertebral body and the intervertebral discs are classified as _____.

A

amphiarthrodial symphysis

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59
Q

which structure will not originate from somatic mesoderm? muscles and tendons

A

dorsal root ganglion—> neuralectoderm—>neural crest

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60
Q

which spinal cord tract carries pain and temperature sensations?

A

spinothalamic

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61
Q

spinothalamic

A

lateral: -pain/temp
arterior: -crude touch pressure

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62
Q

posterior columns

A

vibration
position sense
proprioception

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63
Q

corticospinal

A

motor tracts

descending

64
Q

which neuroglia makes CSF in the CNS?

A

ependymal cells

65
Q

microglia

A
  • immune regulation
  • synaptic and neuronal pruning
  • extracellular signaling
66
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

myelin of CNS

67
Q

schwann cells

A

myelin of PNS

68
Q

the _____ arises from the metencephalon?

A

cerebellum and pons

69
Q

which artery arises from ipsilateral vertebral artery?

A

posterior inferior cerebellar

70
Q

which joins with sigmoid sinus at the jugular foramen?

A

inferior petrosal sinus

71
Q

which nerve innervates the abductor pollicus longus muscle?

A

posterior interosseous

72
Q

nerve roots arising from the anterior divisions of hte ventral rami of L2-L4 will innervate ______ muscle.

A

adductors

73
Q

where are the cell bodies of hte neurons that send secretomotor axons to the parotid gland?

A

otic ganglion

74
Q

what nerve innervates the skin around the medial malleolus and into the medial aspect of the foot?

A

saphenous nerve

75
Q

What is the first structure light passes through when stimulating the retina for vision?

A

cornea

76
Q

The ability of a single presynaptic neuron to fire many times in succession to cause the
postsynaptic neuron to reach its threshold it is due to:

A

temporal summation

77
Q

What type of receptor does a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron usually activate at its target
organ?

A

muscarinic

78
Q

Which type of peripheral receptors convey fine touch from non-hairy skin through the dorsal
columns?

A

meissners corpuscles

79
Q

Which area contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic centers as well as cranial nerves V – VIII?

A

pons CN 5-8

80
Q

Destruction of which cortical area will result in an inability to formulate sentences?

A

broca’s area

81
Q

When comparing skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle, which statement is ​
false​?

A

Skeletal muscle has less internal stores of calcium than cardiac muscle

82
Q

Which is a characteristic of fast glycolytic muscle fibers?

A

low resistance to fatigue

83
Q

What is recorded on a lead II EKG when the atria depolarize?

A

the P wave

84
Q

Which of the folowing will not increase heart rate?

A

Slower depolarization of the pacemaker potential

85
Q

What event is auscultated as the S1 heart sound?

A

Closure of the tricuspid valve

86
Q

Residual lung volume = __________.

A

about 1 liter

87
Q

Which pancreatic cells are responsible for production of glucagon?

A

alpha cells

88
Q

Angiotensen converting enzyme is produced in the(BY THE JUXTAGLOMERULAR CELLS)

A

lung

89
Q

Medullary respiratory neurons are stimulated by and increase in CSF concentration of which of the following?

A

hydrogen ions

90
Q

Which type of muscle contraction is described as increased tension with lengthening of the
muscle?

A

eccentric

91
Q

Which hormone is produced and secreted from the anterior pituitary gland?

A

prolactin

92
Q

which part of the nephron is lined with brush border epithelium

A

proximal conculuted tubule

93
Q

Spermatogenesis occurs in _____________.

A

Sertoli cells

94
Q

A majority of lipid absorbtion occurs in the ________.

A

duodenum

95
Q

which cells become the optic nerve?

A

ganglion cells

96
Q

what is the active form of vitamin b6

A

pyridoxal phosphate

97
Q

Ribonucleotide reductase is allosterically activated by which of the following?

A

ATP binding

98
Q

Which of the following vitamins is a key component of NAD+ and NADP+?

A

niacin

99
Q

Triacylglycerols have fatty acids linked by ester bonds to what compound as their backbone?

A

glycerol

100
Q

What are the two primary products of the action of pancreatic lipase on phosphatidylcholine?

A

glycerylphosporylcholine and two fatty acids

101
Q

the fatty acid syntase pathway results in which primary product?

A

palmitate

102
Q

What type of enzyme inhibitor binds reversibly to a different site as the substrate and changes the
shape of the enzyme to lower Vmax?

A

non-competitive inhibitor

103
Q

Which cell relies solely on substrate level phosphorylation for production of ATP from glucose?

A

erthryocyte

104
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for gluconeogenesis?

A

fructose 1,6-bishophotase

105
Q

which lipid is the most abundant in cell membranes?

A

glycerophospholipids

106
Q

which metabolic reaction does not require oxygen?

A

glycolysis

107
Q

which vitamin is water soluable?

A

vitamin b6

108
Q

which amino avid is acidic?

A

aspartate

109
Q

which amino acid can be synthesized in the body from pyruvate?

A

alanine

110
Q

Which type of bond is used to link amino acids together in polypeptide chain?

A

peptide bond

111
Q

enzymes:

A

do not affect the Keq of a reaction

112
Q

which hormone stimulates glycogenesis?

A

insulin

113
Q

Fish, eggs, and dairy products have high bioavailability of which vitamin?

A

Cobalamine (Vit. B12)

114
Q

Which carbohydrate is NOT a hexose?

A

Ribose

115
Q

Which is pyrimidine?

A

Uracil

116
Q

Which is an irreversible cellular change?

A

Neoplasia

117
Q

Non-uniform loss of joint space with development of osteophytes, but little to no inflammatory
response, is a frequent finding in which disease?

A

Osteoarthritis

118
Q

Which type of tumor arises from tissues derived from Mesoderm?

A

Sarcoma

119
Q

Which clotting factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?

A

​

Factor VIII

120
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis infection of the lungs?

A

Casseous

121
Q

Which mediator of inflammation accounts for pain at the site of acute inflammation?

A

Bradykinan

122
Q

what is the most common genetic chromosomal anomaly?

A

Trisomy 21 downs syndrome

123
Q

Asthma and anaphylaxis are associated with which hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type I

124
Q

Which disease occurs when the immune system attacks capillaries supplying skeletal muscle?

A

dermatomyositis

125
Q

Which disease results when a child consumes adequate calories but lacks sufficient dietary
protein?

A

kwashiorkor

126
Q

Which pathology results from Thiamine deficiency?

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

127
Q

Cardiac failure of gradual onset with thinning of the heart muscle wall is ________.

A

Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy

128
Q

What is the most common contributing factor to hip fractures in elderly people?

A

​

Osteoporosis

129
Q

Which disease results when the body produces antibodies against Acetylcholine receptors at the
neuromuscular junction?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

130
Q

Which occurs at rest due to spasm of coronary arteries?

A

prinzmetal angia

131
Q

The majority of cerebral ischemic strokes occur in the territory of the ________.

A

middle cerebral artery

132
Q

Malignant Hypertension is defined as:

A

very high BP that comes on suddenly

133
Q

which clinical finding is typical for addison’s disease?

A

decreased cortisol

134
Q

Which condition is with the presence of RBCs, Red blood Casts & Protein on urinalysis?

A

Acute Glomerulonephritis

135
Q

Upper gastrointestinal bleeding manifested by either Hematemesis or Melena is most
commonly caused by ________.

A

peptic ulcer

136
Q

The symptoms of Scarlet Fever are due to

A

Erythrogenic Toxin

137
Q

Which flagellated protozoa causes intestinal discomfort & is often found in unsafe
drinking water?

A

giardia lamblia

138
Q

Herpes Simplex Type II virus most commonly establishes latent infection in the nerve
cells of the________.

A

Sacral Ganglia

139
Q

Which epidemiologic term is defined as “a measure of the frequency of the occurrence of
death in a defined population during a specific interval of time”?

A

mortality

140
Q

An antigen that occurs in various tissues of the same species is referred to as a(an)
________.

A

Alloantigen

141
Q

Which disease is spread via respiratory route?

A

measles

142
Q

Which step in the gram staining procedure rinses the bacteria so that gram-negative
bacteria can be counter-stained?

A

iodine

143
Q

Ribosome is the site of ___ in bacteria cells.

A

protein syntesis

144
Q

Which test will best differentiate a streptococcal infection from a staphylococcal
infection?

A

catalase test

145
Q

What ype of cell is most effective at combating bacterial infections?

A

neutrophils

146
Q

Autoantibodies to double-strained DNA are typical findings in which of the following
disorders?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematous

147
Q

Which of the following is not an opportunistic enteric bacterium?

A

shingella

148
Q

Which is not a characteristic of the agents of spongiform encephalopathies?

A

Are naked fragments of RNA

149
Q

Which immunoglobin is the largest and first responder to appear in initial exposure to an
antigen?

A

IgM

150
Q

What disease is LEAST likely to be transmitted by a tick?

A

Aspergillosis

151
Q

Which scientist began the trend of sterilizing or disinfecting surgical instruments?

A

Joseph Lister

152
Q

Pharyngitis or Tonsillitis (Strep Throat) is the result of an infection with ________.

A

strep pyogenes

153
Q

What is transmitted by undercooked beef?

A

Taenia Saginata

154
Q

What is the most common fungal infection affecting the genitals, inner thigh, & buttock
region?

A

tinea cruris

155
Q

Which parasitic infestation is the largest of the worms and most common, affecting
approx. 25% of the world’s population?

A

Ascariasis Lumbericoides

Comp test/Board review (2 decks)

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