tq Flashcards
1
Q
the transpyloric plane goes through which of the following vertebra?
A
L1
2
Q
what type of epithelium is present in the epidermis of the skin?
A
keratinized stratified squamous
3
Q
simple cuboidal epithelium
A
secretory cells
-kidneys, glands, digestive tract
4
Q
simple columnar epithelium
A
absorption
-stomach, intestines
5
Q
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
A
respiratory tract
6
Q
non-keratinized stratified squamous
A
oral cavity
vagina
esophagus
anal
7
Q
the trochanter is located on the _______
A
femur
8
Q
which cell lies in the lacuna of compact bone?
A
osteocyte-mature
9
Q
osteoblast
A
creates bone, immature
10
Q
osteoclast
A
destroy bone
11
Q
osteoprogenitor cells
A
play role in fracture, produce osteoblast, which will become osteocyte
12
Q
which bone of the foot has a groove for the tendon of peroneus/ fibularis longus?
A
cuboid
13
Q
which bone of the foot has a groove for the tendon of flexor hallicus longus
A
calcaneous
14
Q
which is an example of a synovial pivot joint?
A
superior/proximal radio-ulnar joint
15
Q
which is an example of a ovoid/condylmus joint?
A
metacarpo-phalangeal joint
16
Q
which is an example of a hinge joint?
A
humro-ulnar joint
17
Q
which is an example of a saddle joint
A
sternoclavicular joint
18
Q
which ligament is also called the deltoid ligament?
A
medial ligament of the ankle
19
Q
which muscle does not insert into the upper and medial surface of the tibia in the pes anserine area?
A
semimembranosus
20
Q
which nerve innervates the tibialis anterior muscle?
A
deep fibular/ peroneal nerve
21
Q
deep fibular nerve innervates what muscles?
A
- tibialis anterior
- digitorum longus
- hallicus longus
- peroneus tertius
22
Q
saphenous nerve innervates what muscles?
A
medial compartment of the leg
23
Q
superficial fibular nerve innervates what muscles?
A
peroneus brevis and longus
24
Q
sural nerve innervates what muscles?
A
posterior lateral compartment of the leg
25
which muscle does not insert into the mastoid process of the temporal bone?
semispinalis capitis attaches at the occiput
26
which muscles insert on the mastoid?
splenius capitus
SCM
longissimus capitis
27
the connective tissue covering an individual muscle fiber is called _______.
endomysium
28
the right coronary artery is a branch of the _____.
ascending aorta
29
the superior vena cava opens into the _____ of the heart.
right atrium
30
which is the primary lymphatic site where stem vells divide and develop into mature B cell and T cells?
red bone marrow and thymus gland
31
which tonsil is located in oropharynx between the palatoglossal arch and palatopharyngeal arch?
palatine tonsil
32
where is the pharyngeal tonsil
by the entrance of auditory tube
33
where is the lingual tonsil
by root of tongue and epiglottis
34
where is the tubal tonsil
in the eustation tube
35
which part of the duodenum receives the opening of the common bile duct?
second/ descending part
36
what structures lies in posterior mediastinum?
sympathetic trunk
37
what structures lies in middle mediastinum?
ascending aorta
38
what structures lies in superior mediastinum?
arch of aorta
39
what structures lies in middle mediastinum?
pulmonary trunk
40
which muscle of the larynx lies anteriorly and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?
cricothyroid-anterior/lateral
41
which is the large funnel shaped part of the kidney where the ureter begins?
renal pelvis
42
which area of the adreanal gland produces and excretes glucocortoids, such as cortisol?
zona fasciculate
43
which is not a feature of the lateral portion of hte occipital bone?
mastoid process- temporal bone
44
in which region of spine are the intervertebral foramen directed obliqquely anterior, inferior, and lateral?
cervical
45
which ribs are considered true because of attachment directly to the sternum?
ribs 1-7
46
which ribs are considered false?
ribs 7 and 8
47
which ribs are connected to the sternum?
ribs 3-9
48
which ribs are floating ribs?
ribs 11 and 12
49
the middle meningeal artery goes through the _____
foramen spinosum
50
what artery goes through the foramen magnum?
vertebral artery with CN 11, and spinal cord
51
what exits through foramen rotundum
CN V-2 maxillary
52
what exits through the jugular foramen?
CN IV, IX, X, XI, ascending and pharyngeal arterial branches
53
what muscle is innervated by the medial branch of the dorsal primary rami?
rotatores longus
54
which nerve innervates the posterior digastric muscle?
facial nerve
55
nerve to anterior digastric
via ansa vervicalis
56
what muscle attaches to the spinous process of axis?
obliquus capitus inferior and rectus capitis posterior major
57
superior continuation of the ligamentum flavum is the ________.
posterior atlanto-occipital membrane
58
joints formed by the vertebral body and the intervertebral discs are classified as _____.
amphiarthrodial symphysis
59
which structure will not originate from somatic mesoderm? muscles and tendons
dorsal root ganglion---> neuralectoderm--->neural crest
60
which spinal cord tract carries pain and temperature sensations?
spinothalamic
61
spinothalamic
lateral: -pain/temp
arterior: -crude touch pressure
62
posterior columns
vibration
position sense
proprioception
63
corticospinal
motor tracts
| descending
64
which neuroglia makes CSF in the CNS?
ependymal cells
65
microglia
- immune regulation
- synaptic and neuronal pruning
- extracellular signaling
66
oligodendrocytes
myelin of CNS
67
schwann cells
myelin of PNS
68
the _____ arises from the metencephalon?
cerebellum and pons
69
which artery arises from ipsilateral vertebral artery?
posterior inferior cerebellar
70
which joins with sigmoid sinus at the jugular foramen?
inferior petrosal sinus
71
which nerve innervates the abductor pollicus longus muscle?
posterior interosseous
72
nerve roots arising from the anterior divisions of hte ventral rami of L2-L4 will innervate ______ muscle.
adductors
73
where are the cell bodies of hte neurons that send secretomotor axons to the parotid gland?
otic ganglion
74
what nerve innervates the skin around the medial malleolus and into the medial aspect of the foot?
saphenous nerve
75
What is the first structure light passes through when stimulating the retina for vision?
cornea
76
The ability of a single presynaptic neuron to fire many times in succession to cause the
postsynaptic neuron to reach its threshold it is due to:
temporal summation
77
What type of receptor does a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron usually activate at its target
organ?
muscarinic
78
Which type of peripheral receptors convey fine touch from non-hairy skin through the dorsal
columns?
meissners corpuscles
79
Which area contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic centers as well as cranial nerves V – VIII?
pons CN 5-8
80
Destruction of which cortical area will result in an inability to formulate sentences?
broca's area
81
When comparing skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle, which statement is
false?
Skeletal muscle has less internal stores of calcium than cardiac muscle
82
Which is a characteristic of fast glycolytic muscle fibers?
low resistance to fatigue
83
What is recorded on a lead II EKG when the atria depolarize?
the P wave
84
Which of the folowing will not increase heart rate?
Slower depolarization of the pacemaker potential
85
What event is auscultated as the S1 heart sound?
Closure of the tricuspid valve
86
Residual lung volume = __________.
about 1 liter
87
Which pancreatic cells are responsible for production of glucagon?
alpha cells
88
Angiotensen converting enzyme is produced in the(BY THE JUXTAGLOMERULAR CELLS)
lung
89
Medullary respiratory neurons are stimulated by and increase in CSF concentration of which of the following?
hydrogen ions
90
Which type of muscle contraction is described as increased tension with lengthening of the
muscle?
eccentric
91
Which hormone is produced and secreted from the anterior pituitary gland?
prolactin
92
which part of the nephron is lined with brush border epithelium
proximal conculuted tubule
93
Spermatogenesis occurs in _____________.
Sertoli cells
94
A majority of lipid absorbtion occurs in the ________.
duodenum
95
which cells become the optic nerve?
ganglion cells
96
what is the active form of vitamin b6
pyridoxal phosphate
97
Ribonucleotide reductase is allosterically activated by which of the following?
ATP binding
98
Which of the following vitamins is a key component of NAD+ and NADP+?
niacin
99
Triacylglycerols have fatty acids linked by ester bonds to what compound as their backbone?
glycerol
100
What are the two primary products of the action of pancreatic lipase on phosphatidylcholine?
glycerylphosporylcholine and two fatty acids
101
the fatty acid syntase pathway results in which primary product?
palmitate
102
What type of enzyme inhibitor binds reversibly to a different site as the substrate and changes the
shape of the enzyme to lower Vmax?
non-competitive inhibitor
103
Which cell relies solely on substrate level phosphorylation for production of ATP from glucose?
erthryocyte
104
what is the rate limiting enzyme for gluconeogenesis?
fructose 1,6-bishophotase
105
which lipid is the most abundant in cell membranes?
glycerophospholipids
106
which metabolic reaction does not require oxygen?
glycolysis
107
which vitamin is water soluable?
vitamin b6
108
which amino avid is acidic?
aspartate
109
which amino acid can be synthesized in the body from pyruvate?
alanine
110
Which type of bond is used to link amino acids together in polypeptide chain?
peptide bond
111
enzymes:
do not affect the Keq of a reaction
112
which hormone stimulates glycogenesis?
insulin
113
Fish, eggs, and dairy products have high bioavailability of which vitamin?
Cobalamine (Vit. B12)
114
Which carbohydrate is NOT a hexose?
Ribose
115
Which is pyrimidine?
Uracil
116
Which is an irreversible cellular change?
Neoplasia
117
Non-uniform loss of joint space with development of osteophytes, but little to no inflammatory
response, is a frequent finding in which disease?
Osteoarthritis
118
Which type of tumor arises from tissues derived from Mesoderm?
Sarcoma
119
Which clotting factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?
| Factor VIII
120
What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis infection of the lungs?
Casseous
121
Which mediator of inflammation accounts for pain at the site of acute inflammation?
Bradykinan
122
what is the most common genetic chromosomal anomaly?
Trisomy 21 downs syndrome
123
Asthma and anaphylaxis are associated with which hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I
124
Which disease occurs when the immune system attacks capillaries supplying skeletal muscle?
dermatomyositis
125
Which disease results when a child consumes adequate calories but lacks sufficient dietary
protein?
kwashiorkor
126
Which pathology results from Thiamine deficiency?
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
127
Cardiac failure of gradual onset with thinning of the heart muscle wall is ________.
Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy
128
What is the most common contributing factor to hip fractures in elderly people?
| Osteoporosis
129
Which disease results when the body produces antibodies against Acetylcholine receptors at the
neuromuscular junction?
Myasthenia Gravis
130
Which occurs at rest due to spasm of coronary arteries?
prinzmetal angia
131
The majority of cerebral ischemic strokes occur in the territory of the ________.
middle cerebral artery
132
Malignant Hypertension is defined as:
very high BP that comes on suddenly
133
which clinical finding is typical for addison's disease?
decreased cortisol
134
Which condition is with the presence of RBCs, Red blood Casts & Protein on urinalysis?
Acute Glomerulonephritis
135
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding manifested by either Hematemesis or Melena is most
commonly caused by ________.
peptic ulcer
136
The symptoms of Scarlet Fever are due to
Erythrogenic Toxin
137
Which flagellated protozoa causes intestinal discomfort & is often found in unsafe
drinking water?
giardia lamblia
138
Herpes Simplex Type II virus most commonly establishes latent infection in the nerve
cells of the________.
Sacral Ganglia
139
Which epidemiologic term is defined as “a measure of the frequency of the occurrence of
death in a defined population during a specific interval of time”?
mortality
140
An antigen that occurs in various tissues of the same species is referred to as a(an)
________.
Alloantigen
141
Which disease is spread via respiratory route?
measles
142
Which step in the gram staining procedure rinses the bacteria so that gram-negative
bacteria can be counter-stained?
iodine
143
Ribosome is the site of ___ in bacteria cells.
protein syntesis
144
Which test will best differentiate a streptococcal infection from a staphylococcal
infection?
catalase test
145
What ype of cell is most effective at combating bacterial infections?
neutrophils
146
Autoantibodies to double-strained DNA are typical findings in which of the following
disorders?
Systemic Lupus Erythematous
147
Which of the following is not an opportunistic enteric bacterium?
shingella
148
Which is not a characteristic of the agents of spongiform encephalopathies?
Are naked fragments of RNA
149
Which immunoglobin is the largest and first responder to appear in initial exposure to an
antigen?
IgM
150
What disease is LEAST likely to be transmitted by a tick?
Aspergillosis
151
Which scientist began the trend of sterilizing or disinfecting surgical instruments?
Joseph Lister
152
Pharyngitis or Tonsillitis (Strep Throat) is the result of an infection with ________.
strep pyogenes
153
What is transmitted by undercooked beef?
Taenia Saginata
154
What is the most common fungal infection affecting the genitals, inner thigh, & buttock
region?
tinea cruris
155
Which parasitic infestation is the largest of the worms and most common, affecting
approx. 25% of the world’s population?
Ascariasis Lumbericoides
