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Toxiciology > Toxicolgy Final > Flashcards

Toxicolgy Final Flashcards

1
Q

The stage(s) of carcinogenesis detected by the SHE cell assay is/are:

A

Promotion

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2
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The in vitro assay(s) that specifically detect(s) cytotoxicity/cell death is/are:

A
  1. Annexin V/PI staining with subsequent flow cytometry
  2. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) release
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3
Q

The stage(s) of carcinogenesis detected by the Ames Test is/are:

A

Initiation

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4
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following would be the best markers to specifically detect toxicant-induced apoptosis?

A
  1. p53 expression
  2. Bax/Bcl-2 ratios
  3. Caspase-3 activity
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5
Q

Which of the following enzyme activities measures nucleoside analogue resistance in the MOLY assay?

A

Thymidine kinase

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6
Q

The animal model currently utilized to assess buccal delivery of compounds because of its large cheek pouches is the:

A

Hamster

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7
Q

The animal model currently utilized in the mass production of polyclonal antibodies is the:

A

Rabbit

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8
Q

The animal model with no peripheral veins for intravenous administration, as well as an increased susceptibility to vitamin C and E deficiencies is the:

A

Guinea pig

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9
Q

The animal model that is resistant to barbiturates and morphine, but has an increased sensitivity to halothane and sevoflurane when compared to other species is the:

A

Hamster

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10
Q

The animal model currently utilized as the best species to recapitulate chronic/congestive heart failure in humans is the:

A

Dog

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11
Q

Which of the following enzyme activities measures nucleoside analogue resistance in the CHO/V79 assay?

A

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase

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12
Q

Oncogenes:

A

are often via translocation to a location with a more active promoter

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the more common sources of DNA damage?
a. ionizing radiation
b. UV light
c. electrophilic chemicals
d. DNA polymerase error
e. x-rays

A

d. DNA polymerase error

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14
Q

Which of the following pairs of DNA repair mechanisms is most likely to introduce mutations into the genetic composition of an organism?
a. nonhomologous end-joining (NHEJ) and base excision repair
b. NHEJ and homologous recombination
c. homologous recombination nucleotide excision repair
d. nucleotide excision repair and base excision repair
e. homologous recombination and mismatch repair

A

b. NHEJ and homologous recombination

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15
Q

Which of the following DNA mutations would NOT be considered a frameshift mutation?
insertion of 5 nucleotides
insertion of 7 nucleotides
deletion of 18 nucleotides
deletion of 13 nucleotides
deletion of 1 nucleotide

A

deletion of 18 nucleotides

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16
Q

Which of the following base-pair mutations is properly characterized as a transversion mutation?
T → C
A → G
G → A
T → U
A → C

A

A → C

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the Ames assay?

A

To determine the frequency of a reversion mutation that allows bacterial colonies to grow in the absence of vital nutrients

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18
Q

In mammalian cytogenic assays, chromosomal aberrations are measured after treatment of the cells at which sensitive cell cycle phase?

A

S phase

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19
Q

Which of the following molecules is used to gauge the amount of a specific gene being transcribed to mRNA?

A

cDNA

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the role of mucus in the conducting airways?
a. Pollutants trapped by mucus can be eliminated via expectoration or swallowing.
b. Mucus is of a basic pH.
c. The beating cilia propels mucus out of the lungs.
d. Mucus plays a role promoting oxidative stress.
e. Free radical scavenging is believed to be a role of mucus.

A

d. Mucus plays a role promoting oxidative stress.

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21
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome sometimes affects premature neonates due to lack of surfactant production by which of the following cell types?

A

Type II pneumocytes.

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22
Q

In a situation where there is an increased metabolic demand for oxygen, which of the following volume measurements will greatly increase?

A

tidal volume (TV)

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23
Q

The free radicals that inflict oxidative damage on the lungs are generated by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. tobacco smoke.
b. neutrophils.
c. ozone.
d. monocytes.
e. SO2.

A

e. SO2

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24
Q

Which of the following gases would most likely pass all the way through the respiratory tract and diffuse into the pulmonary blood supply?
a. O3 (ozone).
b. NO2.
c. H2O.
d. CO.
e. SO2.

A

d. CO.

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25
Q

All of the following statements regarding particle deposition and clearance are true EXCEPT:
a. One of the main modes of particle clearance is via mucociliary escalation.
b. Diffusion is important in the deposition of particles in the bronchial regions.
c. Larger volumes of inspired air increase particle deposition in the airways.
d. Sedimentation results in deposition in the bronchioles.
e. Swallowing is an important mechanism of particle clearance.

A

b. Diffusion is important in the deposition of particles in the bronchial regions.

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26
Q

Which of the following is not a common location to which particles are cleared?
a. stomach.
b. lymph nodes.
c. pulmonary vasculature.
d. liver.
e. GI tract.

A

d. liver.

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27
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis is marked by which of the following?

A

increased type I collagen.

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28
Q

Activation of what enzyme(s) is responsible for emphysema?

A

elastase.

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29
Q

Which of the following measurements would NOT be expected from a patient with restrictive lung disease?
a. decreased FRC.
b. decreased RV.
c. increased VC.
d. decreased FEV.
e. impaired ventilation.

A

increased VC.

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30
Q

In which of the following locations would one NOT find spontaneous depolarization?
a. SA node.
b. myocardium.
c. AV node.
d. bundle of His.
e. Purkinje fibers.

A

b. myocardium.

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31
Q

Which of the following scenarios would increase contractility of the myocardium?

A

increased activity of sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase.

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32
Q

All of the following statements regarding abnormal cardiac function are true EXCEPT:
a. Ventricular arrhythmias are generally more severe that atrial arrhythmias.
b. Ventricular hypertrophy is a common cause of ventricular arrhythmias.
c. Coronary artery atherosclerosis is a major cause of ischemic heart disease.
d. Right-sided heart failure results in pulmonary edema.
e. Tachycardia is classified as a rapid resting heart rate (>100 beats/min).

A

d. Right-sided heart failure results in pulmonary edema.

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33
Q

Ion balance is very important in maintaining a normal cardia rhythm. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Blockade of K+ channels decreases the duration of the action potential.
b. Blockade of Ca2+ channels has a positive inotropic effect.
c. Inhibition of Na+ channels increases conduction velocity.
d. Blockage of the Na+/K+-ATPase increase contractility.
e. Calcium is transported into the cell via a Ca2+-ATPase.

A

d. Blockage of the Na+/K+-ATPase increase contractility.

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34
Q

Which of the following is most likely NOT a cause of myocardial reperfusion injury?
a. cellular pH fluctuations.
b. damage to the sarcolemma.
c. generation of toxic oxygen radicals.
d. Ca2+ overload.
e. inhibition of the electron transport chain.

A

e. inhibition of the electron transport chain.

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35
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the cardio-toxic manifestations of ethanol consumption is FALSE?
a. Acute ethanol toxicity causes decreased conductivity.
b. Chronic alcohol consumption is associated with arrhythmias.
c. Acute ethanol toxicity causes an increased threshold for ventricular fibrillation.
d. Chronic ethanol toxicity can result in cardiomyopathy.
e. Acetaldehyde is a mediator of cardiotoxicity.

A

c. Acute ethanol toxicity causes an increased threshold for ventricular fibrillation.

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36
Q

Cardiac glycosides:

A

can have sympathomimetic and parasympathomimetic effects.

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37
Q
A
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38
Q

Using high doses of anabolic-androgenic steroids is NOT likely associated with which of the following?
a. an increase in LDL.
b. cardiac hypertrophy.
c. myocardial infarction.
d. increased nitric oxide synthase expression.
e. a decrease in HDL.

A

d. increased nitric oxide synthase expression.

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of vascular toxicity?
membrane disruption.
a. oxidative stress.
b. bioactivation of protoxicants.
c. reduction and accumulation of LDL in
d. endothelium.
e. accumulation of toxin in vascular cells.

A

reduction and accumulation of LDL in endothelium.

40
Q

Which of the following statements regarding axons and/or axonal transport is FALSE?
a. Single nerve cells can be over 1 m in length.
b. Fast axonal transport is responsible for movement of proteins from the cell body to the axon.
c. Anterograde transport is accomplished by the protein kinesin.
d. The motor proteins, kinesin and dynein, are associated with microtubules.
e. A majority of the ATP in nerve cells is used for axonal transport.

A

e. A majority of the ATP in nerve cells is used for axonal transport.

41
Q

Which of the following statements is not characteristic of Schwann cells in Wallerian degeneration?
a. Schwann cells provide prysical guidance needed for the regrowth of the axon.
b. Schwann cells release trophic factors that stimulate growth.
c. Schwann cells act to clear the myelin debris with the help of macrophages.
d. Schwann cells increase synthesis of myelin lipids in response to axonal damage.
e. Schwann cells are responsible for myelination of axons in the peripheral nervous system.

A

d. Schwann cells increase synthesis of myelin lipids in response to axonal damage.

42
Q

Prenatal exposure to ethanol can result in mental retardation and hearing deficits in the newborn. What is the cellular basis of the neurotoxicity?

A

microcephaly.

43
Q

Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to place a neuron at risk of toxic damage?
a. high metabolic rate.
b. ability to release neurotransmitters.
c. long neuronal processes supported by the soma.
d. excitable membranes.
e. large surface area.

A

b. ability to release neurotransmitters.

44
Q

The use of meperidine contaminated with MPTP will result in a Parkinson’s disease-like neurotoxicity. Where is the most likely site in the brain that MPTP exerts its toxic effects?

A

substantia nigra.

45
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the PNS and the CNS is TRUE?
a. Nerve impulse transduction is much faster in the CNS than in the PNS.
b. PNS axons can regenerate, whereas CNS axons cannot.
c. Remyelination does not occur in the CNS.
d. Oligodendrocytes perform remyelination in the PNS.
e. In the CNS, oligodendrocyte scarring interferes with axonal regeneration.

A

b. PNS axons can regenerate, whereas CNS axons cannot.

46
Q

Platinum (cisplatin) results in which of the following neurologic problems?

A

peripheral neuropathy.

47
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of axonopathies?
a. There is degeneration of the axon.
b. The cell body of the neuron remains intact.
c. Axonopathies result from chemical transaction of the axon.
d. A majority of axonal toxicants cause motor deficits.
e. Sensory and motor deficits are first noticed in the hands and feet following axonal degeneration.

A

d. A majority of axonal toxicants cause motor deficits.

48
Q

All of the following statements regarding lead exposure are true EXCEPT:
a. exposure results in peripheral neuropathy.
b. Lead slows peripheral nerve conduction in humans.
c. Lead causes the transection of peripheral axons.
d. Segmental demyelination is a common result of lead ingestion.
e. Lead toxicity can result in anemia.

A

c. Lead causes the transection of peripheral axons.

49
Q

Regarding excitatory amino acids, which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Glutamate is the most common excitatory amino acid in the CNS.
b. Excitotoxicity has been linked to conditions such as epilepsy.
c. Overconsumption of monosodium glutamate (MSG).
d. An ionotropic glutamate receptor is coupled to a G protein.
e. Glutamate is toxic to neurons.

A

d. An ionotropic glutamate receptor is coupled to a G protein.

50
Q

The impairment of hepatic function can have numerous negative consequences. Which of the following is likely NOT caused by impaired hepatic function?
a. jaundice.
b. hypercholesterolemia.
c. hyperammonemia.
d. hyperglycemia.
e. hyperalbuminemia.

A

d. hyperglycemia.

51
Q

All of the following statements regarding the liver are true EXCEPT:
a. The major role of the liver is to maintain metabolic homeostasis of the body.
b. The liver encounters ingested nutrients before the heart does.
c. Hepatic triads contain a branch of the hepatic portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery, and a bile ductule.
d. The liver manufactures and stores bile.
e. The large fenestrae of hepatic sinusoids facilitate exchange of materials between the sinusoid and the hepatocyte.

A

d. The liver manufactures and stores bile.

52
Q

Activation of which of the following cell types can result in increased secretion of collagen scar tissues, leading to cirrhosis?

A

Ito cell

53
Q

Wilson’s disease is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the failure to export which of the following metals into bile?

A

copper.

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of apoptosis?
a. cell swelling.
b. nuclear fragmentation.
c. lack of inflammation.
d. programmed death.
e. chromatin condensation.

A

a. cell swelling.

55
Q

A patient suffering from canalicular cholestasis would NOT be expected to exhibit which of the following?
a. increased bile salt serum levels.
b. jaundice.
c. increased bile formation.
d. dark brown urine.
e. vitamin A deficiency.

A

c. increased bile formation.

56
Q

Which of the following statements regarding liver injury is FALSE?
a. Large doses of acetaminophen have been shown to cause a blockade of hepatic sinusoids.
b. Hydrophilic drugs readily diffuse into hepatocytes because of the large sinusoidal fenestrations.
c. There are sinusoidal transporters that take toxicants up into hepatocytes.
d. Hepatocellular cancer has been associated with androgen tissue.
e. In cirrhosis, excess collagen is laid down in response to direct injury or inflammation.

A

b. Hydrophilic drugs readily diffuse into hepatocytes because of the large sinusoidal fenestrations.

57
Q

The inheritance of a “slow” aldehyde dehydrogenase enzyme would result in which of the following after the ingestion of ethanol?

A

nausea.

58
Q

Which of the following is not a common mechanism of hepatocellular injury?
a. deformation of the hepatocyte cytoskeleton.
b. mitochondrial injury.
c. cholestasis.
d. interference with vesicular transport.
e. increased transcytosis between hepatocytes.

A

e. increased transcytosis between hepatocytes.

59
Q

Ethanol is not known to cause which of the following types of hepatobiliary injury?

A

canalicular cholestasis.

60
Q

The kidney is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
a. synthesis of renin.
b. acid-base balance.
c. reabsorption of electrolytes.
d. regulation of extracellular fluid.
e. release of angiotensin.

A

e. release of angiotensin.

61
Q

Which of the following does NOT contribute to filtrate formation in the nephron?
a. capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b. positive charge of glomerular capillary wall.
c. hydraulic permeability of glomerular capillary wall.
d. colloid oncotic pressure.
e. size of filtration slits.

A

b. positive charge of glomerular capillary wall.

62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the loop of Henle?
a. There is reabsorption of filtered Na+ and K+.
b. Tubular fluid in the thin descending limb is isosmotic to the renal interstitium.
c. Water is freely permeable in the thin ascending limb.
d. Na+ and Cl- are reabsorbed in the thin ascending limb.
e. The think ascending limb in impermeable to water.

A

c. Water is freely permeable in the thin ascending limb.

63
Q

Although the kidneys constitutes 0.5% of total body mass, approximately how much of the resting cardiac output do they receive?

A

20% to 25%.

64
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur after a toxic insult to the kidney?
a. GFR will decrease in the unaffected kidney.
b. Tight-junction integrity will increase in the nephron.
c. The unaffected cells will undergo atrophy and proliferation.
d. Clinical tests will likely show normal renal function.
e. Glomerulotubular balance is lost.

A

d. Clinical tests will likely show normal renal function.

65
Q

Chronic renal failure does not typically result in:

A

decrease in GFR of viable nephrons.

66
Q

All of the following statements regarding toxicity to the kidney are true EXCEPT:
a. Concentration of toxins in tubular fluid increase the likelihood that the toxin will diffuse into tubular cells.
b. Drugs in the systemic circulation are delivered to the kidneys at relatively high amounts.
c. The distal convoluted tubule is the most common site of toxicant-induced renal injury.
d. Immune complex deposition within the glomeruli can lead to glomerulonephritis.
e. Antibiotics and/or antifungal drugs affect the functioning of the nephron at multiple locations.

A

c. The distal convoluted tubule is the most common site of toxicant-induced renal injury.

67
Q

Which of the following test results is NOT correctly paired with the underlying kidney problem?
a. increased urine volume - defect in ADH synthesis.
b. glucosuria – defect in reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule.
c. proteinuria – glomerular damage.
d. proteinuria – proximal tubular injury.
e. brush-border enzymuria – glomerulonephritis.

A

e. brush-border enzymuria – glomerulonephritis.

68
Q

Renal cell injury is NOT commonly mediated by which of the following mechanisms?
a. loss of membrane integrity.
b. impairment of mitochondrial function.
c. increased cytosolic Ca2+ concentration.
d. increased Na+, K+-ATPase activity.
e. caspase activation.

A

d. increased Na+, K+-ATPase activity.

69
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to nephrotoxicants?
a. Mercury poisoning can lead to proximal tubular necrosis and acute renal failure.
b. Cisplatin may cause nephrotoxicity because of its ability to inhibit DNA synthesis.
c. Chronic consumption of NSAIDs results in nephrotoxicity that is reversible with time.
d. Amphotericin B nephrotoxicity can result in ADH-resistant polyuria.
e. Acetaminophen becomes nephrotoxic via activation by renal cytochrome P450.

A

c. Chronic consumption of NSAIDs results in nephrotoxicity that is reversible with time.

70
Q

Which of the following cells or substances is NOT part of the innate immune system?
a. lysozyme.
b. monocytes.
c. complement.
d. antibodies.
e. neutrophils.

A

d. antibodies.

71
Q

Myeloid precursor stem cells are responsible for the formation of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. platelets.
b. lymphocytes.
c. basophils.
d. erythrocytes.
e monocytes.

A

b. lymphocytes.

72
Q

When an Rh- mother is exposed to the blood of an Rh+ baby during childbirth, the mother will make antibodies against the Rh factor, which can lead to the mother attacking the next Rh+ fetus. This is possible because of which antibody’s ability to cross the placenta.

A

IgG.

73
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding important cytokine function in regulating the immune system?
a. IL-1 induces inflammation and fever.
b. IL-3 is the primary T-cell growth factor.
c. IL-4 induces B-cell differentiation and isotype switching.
d. Transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β) enhances monocyte/macrophage chemotaxis.
e. Interferon gamma (IFN-gamma) activates macrophages.

A

b. IL-3 is the primary T-cell growth factor.

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step performed during an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)?
a. A chromogen is added and color is detected.
b. The antigen of interest is fixed to a microtiter plate.
c. Radioactively labeled cells are added to the solution.
d. Enzyme-tagged secondary antibodies are added to the solution.
e. Test sera are added.

A

c. Radioactively labeled cells are added to the solution.

75
Q

The delayed hypersensitivity response (DHR) test does NOT:

A

evaluate memory T-cells’ ability to lyse foreign target cells.

76
Q

The number of alveolar macrophages in smokers is greatly increased relative to nonsmokers. What is a characteristic of alveolar macrophages found in smokers?

A

They have decreased bactericidal activity.

77
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. It is mediated by IgE.
b. It involves immune complex deposition in peripheral tissues.
c. It involves mast-cell degranulation.
d. Anaphylaxis is an acute, systemic, and very severe type I hypersensitivity reaction.
e. It is usually mediated by preformed histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.

A

b. It involves immune complex deposition in peripheral tissues.

78
Q

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity is NOT mediated by antibodies?
a. type I.
b. type II.
c. type III.
d. type IV.
e. type V.

A

d. type IV.

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of autoimmune disorders?
a. subjection to positive selection in the thymus.
b. anergic T cells become activated.
c. interference with normal immunoregulation by CD8+ suppressor T cells.
d. lack of subjection to negative selection in the thymus.
e. decreased self-tolerance.

A

a. subjection to positive selection in the thymus.

80
Q

All of the following statements regarding plant toxicity are true EXCEPT:
a. Genetic variability plays a role in the toxicity of a plant.
b. Plant toxins are most highly concentrated in the leaves.
c. Young plants may have a higher toxin concentration than older plants.
d. The weather can influence the toxicity of plants.
e. Soil composition can alter a plant’s productions.

A

b. Plant toxins are most highly concentrated in the leaves.

81
Q

Contact with which of the following plant genus would be LEAST likely to cause an allergic dermatitis?

A

ppp

82
Q

Which of the following statements regarding lectin toxicity is FALSE?

A

ppp

83
Q

Colchicine, found in lily bulbs:

A

blocks microtubule formation.

84
Q

Activation of a vanilloid receptor is characteristic of which of the following chemicals?

A

capsaicin.

85
Q

Which of the following plant species is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias on ingestion?

A

pp

86
Q

Which of the following plant toxins does NOT affect the neuromuscular junction?

A

ppp

87
Q

Which of the following statements regarding animal toxins is FALSE?
a. Animal venoms are strictly metabolized by the liver.
b. The kidneys are responsible for the excretion of metabolized venom.
c. Venoms can be absorbed by facilitated diffusion.
d. Most venom fractions distribute unequally throughout the body.
e. Venom receptor sites exhibit highly variable degrees of sensitivity.

A

a. Animal venoms are strictly metabolized by the liver.

88
Q

Scorpion venoms do NOT:

A

affect calcium channels.

89
Q

Which of the following statements regarding widow spiders is TRUE?
a. Widow spiders are exclusively found in tropical regions.
b. Both male and female widow spiders bite and envenomate humans.
c. The widow spider toxin decreases calcium concentration in the synaptic terminal.
d. Alpha-latrotoxin stimulates increased exocytosis from nerve terminals.
e. A severe alpha-latrotoxin envenomation can result in life-threatening hypotension.

A

d. Alpha-latrotoxin stimulates increased exocytosis from nerve terminals.

90
Q

Which of the following diseases is not commonly caused by tick envenomation?

A

cat scratch fever.

91
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic Lepidoptera envenomation?
a. increased prothrombin time.
b. decreased fibrinogen levels.
c. decreased partial thromboplastin time.
d. increased risk of hemorrhaging.
e. decreased plasminogen levels.

A

c. decreased partial thromboplastin time.

92
Q

Which of the following animals has a venom containing histamine and mast cell-degranulating peptide that is known for causing hypersensitivity reactions?

A

bees.

93
Q

Which of the following enzymes is not typically found in snake venoms?

A

histaminase.

94
Q

Which of the following statements regarding snakes is FALSE?
a. Inorganic anion are often found in snake venoms.
b. About 20% of snake species are venomous.
c. Snake venoms often interfere with blood coagulation mechanisms.
d. Proteolytic enzymes are common constituents of snake venoms.
e. Snakebite treatment is often specific for each type of envenomation.

A

a. Inorganic anion are often found in snake venoms.

Toxiciology (2 decks)

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