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Tox Medic > Tox Medic > Flashcards

Tox Medic Flashcards

1
Q

Any substance or material that has the ability to adversely affect a person’s health is a ____.

A

Hazardous material

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2
Q

What is the most important factor in determining the level of hazmat suit needed?

A

Chemical or substance involved

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3
Q

Name 3 places a hazmat incident could occur.

A
  1. Industrial facilities
  2. Residential structures
  3. Medical settings
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4
Q

The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off enough vapors to ignite but not sustain combustion is it’s ___.

A

Flash point

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5
Q

Name the 3 strategic priorities when responding to a hazmat incident.

A
  1. Deny entry
  2. Isolate the area
  3. Identify the product
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6
Q

Give 3 ways we can protect citizens during a hazmat incident.

A
  1. Prevent them from entering area
  2. Evacuate the area
  3. Protect in place
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7
Q

A level A suit is ___.

A

Fully encapsulating

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8
Q

What are two limits mandated by law?

A

Permissible exposure limit (PEL)

Short-term exposure limit (STEL)

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9
Q

What are 3 factors that help the recognition of hazardous materials?

A
  1. Occupancy
  2. Placards, markings, labels
  3. Container size and shape
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10
Q

The IDLH (immediately dangerous to life and health) indicates an exposure of ___.

A

30 minutes

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11
Q

When does research begin?

A

En route to the emergency indicent

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12
Q

Four areas that information should be obtained during research?

A
  1. Physical properties
  2. Toxicokinetics
  3. Toxicodynamics
  4. Treatment
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13
Q

What is toxicokinetics?

A

What the body does to the poison

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14
Q

List the 4 things that the body does to a hazardous material.

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Biotransformation
  3. Circulation/distribution
  4. Elimination
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15
Q

What are the 4 ways a hazmat can enter the body?

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Injection
  3. Ingestion
  4. Skin/eye absorption
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16
Q

Contamination from a tool and/or a person that was contaminated is the definition of ___.

A

Secondary contamination

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17
Q

What is toxicodynamics?

A

What the poison does to the body

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18
Q

List 4 areas of decontamination.

A
  1. Skin decon
  2. Eye decon
  3. Respiratory decon
  4. GI decon
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19
Q

What are the six steps of treating a hazmat and/or WMD victim following proper decon?

A

(ABCDEF)

  1. Airway
  2. Breathing
  3. Circulation
  4. Disability/neuro
  5. Exposure
  6. Field antidote
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20
Q

What does respiratory decon consist of?

A

Removing the victim from the source of contamination and insuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation

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21
Q

Entry of a substance into the body through the GI tract is:

A

Ingestion

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22
Q

Which type of contamination occurs when a patient is directly exposed to hazmat and the contamination is limited to pt only?

A

Primary

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23
Q

Which hazardous material is a high water soluble respiratory irritant gas?

A

Ammonia

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24
Q

How do respiratory irritant gases damage the airway?

A

Production of a corrosive mixture producing local tissue damage

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25
Q

List 2 signs and symptoms of an exposure to respiratory irritant gases.

A
  1. Coughing

2. Pale, cool, diaphoretic

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26
Q

What are the steps in proper treatment of a victim exposed to a respiratory irritant gas?

A
  1. Should induce respiratory decon
  2. O2
  3. Ventilatory support
  4. IV
  5. Monitor
  6. Albuterol/atrovent
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27
Q

What is a low water soluble respiratory irritant gas?

A

Phosgene

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28
Q

How should a victim of an exposure to a respiratory irritant gas be decontaminated?

A

Respiratory decon

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29
Q

Pulmonary irritant gases are classified according to their __.

A

Water solubility

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30
Q

A pulmonary irritant gas that is highly water soluble will usually limit the affects to the ___.

A

Upper airway

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31
Q

Pulmonary irritant gases form what type of mixture with the mucous of the respiratory tract?

A

Corrosive mixtures

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32
Q

Pulmonary irritant gases affect the nervous system in what way?

A

Hypoxia

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33
Q

A simple asphyxiate has what effect on the body?

A

Displaces oxygen

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34
Q

List two signs and symptoms of an exposure to a simple asphyxiate.

A
  1. Cyanosis

2. Tachypnea

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35
Q

What does the proper treatment of a pt exposed to a simple asphyxiate consist of?

A

Respiratory decon
Oxygenation
Adequate ventilation

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36
Q

Carbon monoxide affects the body by creating ___.

A

Carboxyhemoglobin (this makes the red blood cells unable to transport O2)

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37
Q

Carbon monoxide is a type of ___.

A

Systemic asphyxiate

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38
Q

An example of a pt for whom hyperbaric oxygen therapy is indicated as a result of carbon monoxide exposure is ___.

A

4 month pregnant patient

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39
Q

How does cyanide affect the body?

A

It binds cytochrome oxidase at the cellular level and decreases ATP production.

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40
Q

What are 2 signs and symptoms of CO exposure?

A

Cherry red skin

Tachypnea

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41
Q

List 2 signs and symptoms of an exposure to cyanide.

A

Tachypnea

PVC’s

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42
Q

Explain the proper treatment of a pt exposed to CO.

A

Respiratory decon
Oxygenation/ventilation
Tx in a hyperbaric chamber

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43
Q

Explain the proper treatment of a pt exposed to cyanide.

A

Skin/eye/respiratory decon
Oxygenation/ventilation
Cyanide antidote kit

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44
Q

Methemoglobin formers affect the body by:

A

Creating methemoglobin (which makes the hemoglobin unable to carry O2)

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45
Q

List 2 methemoglobin formers.

A
  1. Nitrobenzene

2. Nitric acid

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46
Q

List 2 signs and symptoms of methemoglobin formers.

A
  1. Tachypnea

2. PVC’s

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47
Q

What is the proper treatment of a pt exposed to methemoglobin formers?

A

Skin/eye/respiratory decon
Oxygenation/ventilation
Methylene blue

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48
Q

The antidote for chemicals causing methemoglobinemia is?

A

Methylene blue

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49
Q

What 3 drugs does the cyanide antidote kit contain?

A
  1. Amyl nitrite
  2. Sodium nitrite
  3. Sodium thiosulfate
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50
Q

Amyl nitrite and sodium nitrite have what effect on the body?

A

Convert the iron in the hemoglobin from ferrous iron (Fe +2) to ferric iron (Fe +3)

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51
Q

A common organophosphate is:

52
Q

How do cholinesterase inhibitors affect the body?

A

Binds to acetylcholinesterase

53
Q

List 2 signs and symptoms of an exposure to cholinesterase inhibitors.

A

Tachycardia
Weakness
Lacrimation
Salivation

54
Q

Explain the proper treatment of a victim exposed to a cholinesterase inhibitor.

A 
Skin/eye/respiratory decontamination
Oxygenation/ventilation
Cardiac monitoring
Valium
Atropine
2-PAM
55
Q

Atropine is given for which signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisonings?

A

Bradycardia and bronchorhea

56
Q

The antidote given for organophosphate poisonings to reactivate acetylcholinesterase is?

57
Q

Your patient has been contaminated with organophosphates and the SLUDGE syndrome is apparent, your medical treatment for this patient is?

58
Q

Acids cause what type of skin damage?

A

Coagulum necrosis

59
Q

Bases cause what type of skin damage?

A

Liquefactant necrosis

60
Q

Explain how an acid and a base affect the body.

A

Acids cause coagulum necrosis

Bases cause liquefactant necrosis

61
Q

Hydrofluoric acid causes what?

A

Hypocalcemia

62
Q

List 2 signs and symptoms of an exposure to an acid and a base.

A

Acids—Coagulative necrosis, hypoxia if airway involved, hypovolemia if large burn
Bases—Liquefactant necrosis, hypoxia if airway involved, hypovolemia if large burn

63
Q

Decontamination of a patient that splashed acid into their eyes should last for at least ___ minutes.

A

15 minutes

64
Q

In addition to local tissue damage, a patient that is a victim of acid burns must be monitored for?

A

Hypovolemia

65
Q

List one example of a hydrocarbon.

A

Propane (and others)

66
Q

Name the 3 ways hydrocarbons affect the body.

A
  1. Defatting dermatitis
  2. Opening the GABA receptors
  3. Increased myocardial sensitivity to catecholamines
67
Q

Hydrocarbons affect the skin by causing:

A

Defatting dermatitis

68
Q

Hydrocarbons can cause bradycardia or tachycardia?

A

Tachycardia

69
Q

Hydrocarbons affect what type of receptor?

70
Q

CNS depression caused by hydrocarbon exposure is due to:

A

GABA affects (nartotic-like effects)

71
Q

Explain the proper treatment of a victim exposed to hydrocarbons.

A 
Skin/eye/respiratory decon
Oxygenation/ventilation
Monitor/IV
Propanolol
Diazepam
72
Q

Fluorides are attracted to:

73
Q

List 2 signs and symptoms of an exposure to fluorides:

A
  1. Runs of PVC’s

2. Seizures

74
Q

Explain the proper treatment of a patient exposed to fluorides:

A 
Skin/eye/respiratory decon
Cardiac monitoring
ACLS algorithm
Calcium chloride
Diazepam
75
Q

How does a decreased calcium level affect the nervous system?

A

Decreases the cell’s resting potential

76
Q

Hypocalcemia can be seen on the monitor by what 3 things?

A
  1. Prolonged QT interval
  2. PVC’s
  3. V-tach
77
Q

Hydrazine can be classified as a:

78
Q

GABA allows what to enter the CNS cell?

79
Q

Hydrazine does what to GABA?

A

Inhibits the production

80
Q

Which medications would you administer to a seizing patient that was exposed to hydrazine?

81
Q

The use of force or violence to intimidate or coerce a segment of the population is the definition of ___.

82
Q

Name the 2 types of terrorist groups.

A
  1. Foreign

2. Domestic

83
Q

Name 3 foreign terrorist organizations.

A
  1. Al Quaida
  2. Hezbollah
  3. Hamas
84
Q

Name 3 domestic terrorist organizations.

A
  1. KKK
  2. Skinheads
  3. Militias
85
Q

Name 3 countries that sponsor terrorism.

A
  1. Iran
  2. Libya
  3. North Korea
86
Q

Name 3 reasons why a terrorist would use a weapon of mass destruction (WMD).

A
  1. Cheap
  2. Effective
  3. Difficult to detect
87
Q

What does BNICE stand for?

A 
B - Biological
N - Nuclear
I - Incendiary
C - Chemical
E - Etiological (always thought this was "explosive," but the book says etiological)
88
Q

Give 5 high profile places or events a terrorist may target.

A
  1. Large crowds
  2. Materials in transit
  3. Government offices
  4. Family planning clinics
  5. High profile events
89
Q

Why are explosives the most used tool of a terrorist?

A

Easy to make
High number of casualties
Inspires fear in populace

90
Q

Name 3 bacterial agents that may be used as a weapon.

A
  1. Anthrax
  2. Bubonic plague
  3. Cholera
91
Q

Name 2 viruses that may be used as a weapon.

A
  1. Small pox

2. Viral hemorrhagic fever

92
Q

Name 2 toxins that may be used as a weapon.

A
  1. Botulinum

2. Ricin

93
Q

How were biological weapons used in the 1760 French Indian Wars?

A

French gave blankets from smallpox victims to Indians, introducting smallpox into the population

94
Q

How were biological weapons used in World War I?

A

Targeting of livestock with Anthrax

95
Q

How were biological weapons used in 1979 Sverdlovsk Russia?

A

Accidental release of Anthrax

96
Q

How were biological weapons used in 2001 New York and Washington D.C.?

A

Anthrax mailed in letters

97
Q

Name 3 biological agents that are not transmissible.

A
  1. Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE)
  2. Botulinum
  3. Ricin
98
Q

What is the difference between biological and chemical agents?

A

Biological - natural, delayed onset, can be contagious, may replicate
Chemical - manmade, volatile, do not replicate

99
Q

What is the difference between a primary aerosol and a secondary aerosol?

A 
Primary = released directly into the air
Secondary = released onto the ground, and stirred up
100
Q

A biological agent is weaponized when it has what 3 things:

A
  1. Milled down to 1-4 microns
  2. Hydrophobic
  3. Silicate added to keep it airborne
101
Q

What is an overt attack?

A

People are exposed and responsibility is claimed right away

102
Q

What is a covert attack?

A

People are exposed and no claims of responsibility are made

103
Q

Why is field detection of a biological agent harder than that of chemical agents?

A

Biological agents have no smell or taste and have a delayed onset

104
Q

Name 4 common signs and symptoms of most biological agents

A
  1. Fever
  2. Nausea
  3. Vomiting
  4. Headache
105
Q

What kind of PPE should be worn when dealing with patients exposed by biological weapon?

A

Gloves, gown, sleeves, eye protection, HEPA mask

106
Q

What kind of decontamination should be used when dealing with a patient exposed to a biological weapon?

A

Soap and water

107
Q

What are the 2 types of treatments for patients that have been exposed to biological weapons?

A
  1. Antibiotic therapy

2. Supportive care

108
Q

Name 3 parts of an atom:

A
  1. Protons
  2. Neutrons
  3. Electrons
109
Q

The process of unstable atoms trying to become stable by emitting ionizing radiation is the definition of ___.

A

Radioactivity

110
Q

Name the 4 types of radiation.

A
  1. Alpha
  2. Beta
  3. Gamma
  4. Neutron
111
Q

Alpha radiation:

  • How far does it travel?
  • How do you protect yourself from its effects?
A

1-2 inches

Paper, cloth, dead layer of skin

112
Q

Beta radiation:

  • How far does it travel?
  • How do you protect yourself from its effects?
A

10 feet

Thick clothing, 1/4 inch aluminum, 1/4 inch plastic

113
Q

Gamma radiation:

  • How far does it travel?
  • How do you protect yourself from its effects?
A

Hundreds of feet

1 in of lead, 3 in of steel, 6 in of concrete, 1 foot of dirt

114
Q

Neutron radiation:

  • How far does it travel?
  • How do you protect yourself from its effects?
A

Hundreds of feet

10 in of plastic, 1 foot of concrete, 3 feet of dirt, 3 feet of water

115
Q

What is the difference between radiological material and radiological contamination?

A

Radiological material = material containing unstable (radioactive) atoms
Radiological contamination = radioactive material in an unwanted place

116
Q

What is the difference between radiological and nuclear?

A 
Radiological = deals with radiation or material that emits radiation
Nuclear = the process that involves splitting a nucleus (fission) or combining nuclei of atoms
117
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

A 
As
Low
As
Reasonably
Achievable
118
Q

Name 3 sources of natural radiation.

A
  1. Cosmic radiation
  2. Terrestrial radiation
  3. Radon gas
119
Q

Name 3 sources of manmade radiation.

A
  1. Medical radiation
  2. Building materials
  3. Domestic water supply
120
Q

On average, how many MREMS a year are you exposed to?

A

~360 MREMS/year (approx. 1 per day)

121
Q

What cells are more sensitive to radiation? Why?

A

Blood, sperm, intestinal tract, hair follicles

Why: they are fast-dividing

122
Q

What kind of physical effects could be expected with a dose rate of 50-100 rems?

A

Low WBC count (temporary)

123
Q

What kind of physical effects could be expected with a dose rate of 100-200 rems?

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, no permanent disability

124
Q

What kind of physical effects could be expected with a dose rate of 200-450 rems?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, hair loss

125
Q

What kind of physical effects could be expected with a dose rate of 450-600 rems?

Tox Medic (1 decks)

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