Tour Operator Part 135 and Regs Quiz

Question 1

DISCLAIMER

Answer 1

This flash card study aide is provided to ease and assist in studying much more comprehensive material provided by Federal Regulations / FAR AIM / Applicable Letters of Agreement / Company GOM / OpSpecs. The creator of this study aide accepts no responsibility for inaccuracies or abbreviation of procedures. This is intended to introduce the associated material and all persons using these cards should study and reference the officially distributed material from the applicable sources. It is recommended that after referencing each card, the student should independently verify the information on that card by looking it up and learning the comprehensive information from the direct source. If any inaccuracies, misleading or typo errors are found, please notify the administrator of the study deck.

Question 2

HYPOXIC HYPOXIA

Answer 2

Hypoxic hypoxia is the most common and is caused by decreased oxygen in air or the inability to diffuse the oxygen across the lungs.

If this happens, the person has less than 100% saturation of the blood in the arteries. This can happen if you are at an altitude where the oxygen content of air is low (i.e., over 12,500 feet). Another problem would be if a person’s lungs were damaged so oxygen transfer was impaired

Question 3

HYPEMIC HYPOXIA

Answer 3

Hypemic hypoxia is caused by the reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. Anemia (low hemoglobin) can cause this. The oxygen is available, but there isn’t enough good blood to carry the oxygen. Carbon monoxide poisoning will cause this type of HYPOXIA! The blood holds on to the carbon monoxide from the exhaust leak in your engine and your capacity to carry oxygen decreases, you become hypoxic!

Question 4

STAGNANT HYPOXIA

Answer 4

Stagnant hypoxia is caused by reduced cardiac output (the pump isn’t working good enough) or by venous pooling during high G force stresses. We are all getting older and we have to remember that the function of the heart is essential for pumping the oxygenated blood.

Question 5

HISTOTOXIC HYPOXIA

Answer 5

Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when all systems are working but the cells can’t take” the oxygen from the blood. The oxygen is available. Alcohol or cyanide poisoning can cause this.”

Question 6

ITEMS REQUIRED TO BE ONBOARD TOURISM Part 135 Flights

Answer 6

Documents / Equipment Required in Aircraft
[91.9, 91.203, 91.225, 91.519, 135.21, 135.83, 135.149, 135.160, 135.161]
All aircraft shall carry the following equipment and standardized documents on board. It is the responsibility of the PIC to verify that the current versions of these documents and equipment are on board the aircraft prior to operation:

• Sensitive altimeter (adjustable for barometric pressure)
• ADS-B Out
• Radar Altimeter
• Two-way radio communications equipment
• Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown
• Aircraft registration
• Airworthiness certificate
• Current weight and balance data and equipment list
• Approved aircraft flight manual
• Flashlight with 2 D cell batteries or equivalent in working order
• Approved hand type fire extinguisher
• Complete and current aeronautical charts for the entire route of the planned trip
• Checklist
• Current General Operations Manual
• Flight and maintenance log book to include MEL and deferred list
• All aircraft placards required by the limitations section of the AFM
• Printed passenger briefing cards
• Passenger “sick sacks”
• Safety Water
• Insurance Certificate

For overwater flights:

• Equipped with floats if operations are conducted beyond gliding distance to a safe landing area
• Approved life preserver for each occupant.

Equipment Required in Aircraft for Night VFR
[135.165]
Aircraft shall only operate VFR at night and shall have in addition to the above items, the following equipment on board the aircraft:

• A gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator
• A slip skid indicator
• A gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator
• A gyroscopic direction indicator
• A generator or generators able to supply all probable combinations of continuous in-flight electrical loads for required equipment and for recharging the battery
• An anti-collision light system
• Instrument lights to make all instruments, switches, and gauges easily readable, the direct rays of which are shielded from the pilots’ eyes

Question 7

HOW CAN YOU TELL IF YOU ARE LOOKING AT A CURRENT VALID GOM

Answer 7

Review the LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES in the front of the GOM looking at the dates, and assuring the list is approved and signed by the local FSDO

Question 8

As a 135 crew member, can you refuse a drug test? What are the consequences if you do?

Answer 8

61.161

A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator is grounds for:

2. Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or
3. Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

Question 9

Do you have to report offenses of operating a motor vehicle under the influence of drugs or alcohol to the FAA? If so, within what time period?

Answer 9

61.151

Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC–700), PO Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not later than 60 days after the motorvehicle action. The report must include:

i. The person’s name, address, date of birth, and airman certificate number;ii. The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the administrative action;
iii. The date of the conviction or administrative actioniv. The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative action; and
v. A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related to a previously reported motor vehicle action.
2. Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds for:
i. Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the motor vehicle action; or
ii. Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under

Question 10

When does a first class medical expire?

Answer 10

61.23

Question 11

If you are 135 qualified, do you need a flight review?

Answer 11

61.56(c)

Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has

(1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor; and
(2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review.
(d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph
(c) of this section, passed a pilot proficiency check conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege need not accomplish the flight review required by this section.

Question 12

What is considered night in regard to recent flight experience?

Answer 12

61.57

(2) (b) Night takeoff and landing experience.
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise

Question 13

What is considered careless and reckless operation?

Answer 13

91.13

No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.

Question 14

A customer wants to drop the ashes of their spouse from the helicopter on Mt.Charleston; can we do this?

Answer 14

91.15

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Question 15

How close can you operate to another aircraft?

Answer 15

91.111(a)

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Question 16

Can you fly in formation flight?

Answer 16

91.111(b)

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Question 17

What aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft?

Answer 17

91.113(c)

In distress.

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

Question 18

What is the minimum altitude we can fly?

Answer 18

91.119(d)

Helicopters.

(d) Helicopters, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control aircraft. If the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface— (1) A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, provided each person operating the helicopter complies with any routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters by the FAA
135. 203(b)

A helicopter over a congested area at an altitude less than 300 feet above the surface.

Question 19

What should you do if you do not understand a clearance from ATC?

Answer 19

91.123(a)

When a pilot is uncertain of an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC

Question 20

Can you deviate from an ATC clearance

Answer 20

91.123(b)

Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control is exercised.

(c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.

Question 21

What communication and transponder requirements do you need to enter class B airspace?

Answer 21

91.125, 91.131(1)

(1) The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area.
(c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with—
(1) For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system; and
(2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area. (d) Other equipment requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with—
(1) The applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in §91.215 (a), except as provided in §91.215 (e), and
91. 125, Automatic Dependent SurveillanceBroadcast Out.

Question 22

Can you obtain clearance to fly through restricted airspace?

Answer 22

91.133

Restricted and prohibited areas.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area (designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

Question 23

What are the minimum fuel requirements?

Answer 23

91.151

Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.

(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

Question 24

What are the basic VFR weather minimums?

Answer 24

91.155

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and §91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR
when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table:

(b) Class G Airspace. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:
(1) Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds in an airport traffic pattern within 1⁄2 mile of the runway or helipad of intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than 1⁄2 statute mile.

(2) Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1⁄2 mile of the runway, you may operate an airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of clouds.
(c) Except as provided in §91.157, no person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
(d) Except as provided in §91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport—
(1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or

(2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.
(e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the airspace directly below that area.

Question 25

What is considered night in regards to position lights?

Answer 25

91.209

Aircraft lights.

No person may:

(a) During the period from sunset to sunrise
(1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
(2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft
(i) Is clearly illuminated;
(ii) Has lighted position lights; or
(iii) is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights;
(3) Anchor an aircraft unless the aircraft
(i) Has lighted anchor lights; or
(ii) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels; or
(b) Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Question 26

When can you log

NIGHT flight time

Answer 26

AIM 10-2-2 b(g)

Night means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.

Civil Twilight times can be found at Navy’s Air Almanac

Question 27

Do you always need to have your anti collision light on what operating at night?

Answer 27

91.209(b)

Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Question 28

Is the maintenance log required to be carried aboard the aircraft?

Answer 28

135.65 (a)

Each certificate holder shall provide an aircraft maintenance log to be carried on board each aircraft for recording or deferring mechanical irregularities and their correction.

Question 29

What checklist is required to be aboard the aircraft?

Answer 29

135.83

Operating information required.

(a) The operator of an aircraft must provide the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot shall use them:

(1) A cockpit checklist.

(3) Pertinent aeronautical charts.

Question 30

Who may manipulate the controls during a flight?

Answer 30

135.115

Manipulation of controls.

No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight conducted under this part, nor may any person manipulate the controls during such flight unless that person is

(a) A pilot employed by the certificate holder and qualified in the aircraft; or
(b) An authorized safety representative of the Administrator who has the permission of the pilot in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.

Question 31

What must be included in the passenger safety briefing?

Answer 31

135.117

Briefing of passengers before flight.

1. Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited
2. The use of safety belts, including instructions on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belts
3. Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits
4. Location of survival equipment
5. If the flight involves extended overwater operation, ditching procedures and the use of required flotation equipment
6. Location and operation of fire extinguishers.

(c) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be given by the pilot in command or a crewmember
(e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must be supplemented by printed cards which must be carried in the aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each passenger.

The use of personal electronic devices during flight related activities is limited to use by passengers in non-transmit mode (airplane mode) during any phase of flight

Question 32

Can passengers drink alcoholic beverages on board the aircraft?

Answer 32

135.121

Alcoholic beverages.

(a) No person may drink any alcoholic beverage aboard an aircraft unless the certificate holder operating the aircraft has served that beverage.
(b) No certificate holder may serve any alcoholic beverage to any person aboard its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated.
(c) No certificate holder may allow any person to board any of its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated.

Question 33

When must passenger seat belts be fastened?

Pilots?

Answer 33

135.128 (a)

Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board an aircraft operated under this part shall occupy an approved seat or berth with a separate safety belt properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday.

Question 34

Who is excluded from an exit row seat?

Answer 34

135.129 (a)(1)

Applicability. This section applies to all certificate holders operating under this part, except for on-demand operations with aircraft having 19 or fewer passenger seats and commuter operations with aircraft having 9 or fewer passenger seats.

CONSIDER

Transportation of Handicapped Persons
Handicapped persons capable of enplaning and deplaning unassisted will have no restrictions in seating, provided it is quite clear that they are capable of exiting the aircraft expeditiously in the event of an emergency as determined by the PIC.

Handicapped persons confined to a wheelchair flying on company aircraft are required to be accompanied by a responsible person capable of aiding the person in case of emergency. If only one handicapped person is to be carried on a full aircraft, he or she should be placed on the inside seat, not next to an exit, when the aircraft configuration allows. Sundance pilots are authorized and encouraged to assist our guests in any way that the pilot-in-command deems safe and reasonable.

If two handicapped persons are to be carried on a full aircraft, they shall be placed on inside seats, not next to an exit, when the aircraft configuration allows. In this case, it will be necessary to designate the remaining passengers to assist in an emergency.

NOTE: The pilot will be responsible for the evacuation of the handicapped persons in the event of an emergency. However, it is highly unlikely that he could assist more than two handicapped persons expeditiously. Also, it may be that the pilot himself is unable to assist. Except for extreme emergency situations, there will never be more than two handicapped persons carried on a single flight. In addition, there must always be at least one other adult capable of assisting in the event of an emergency.

Question 35

When must you carry a flashlight?

Answer 35

135.159(f)

For night flights

(3) A flashlight having at least two size D cells or equivalent.

Question 36

When may equipment be inoperable?

Answer 36

135.179(a)

No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:

(1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
(2) The certificate-holding district office has issued the certificate holder operations specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the certificate holders operations specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operations specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification.
(3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must: (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition.
(4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot.
(5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the operations specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List.
(b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List:
(1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.
(2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.
(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part.

Question 37

What is the minimum visibility required to operate

VFR day? Night? (Part 135)

Answer 37

135.205 (b)

No person may operate a helicopter under VFR in Class G airspace at an altitude of 1,200 feet or less above the surface or within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport unless the visibility is at least

(1) During the day– 1/2 mile

(2) At night–1 mile.

Question 38

May a helicopter be operated, VFR, without visual reference to the surface?

Answer 38

135.207

No person may operate a helicopter under VFR unless that person has visual surface reference or, at night, visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the helicopter.

Question 39

What are the maximum duty times and flight time requirements?

Answer 39

135.267(a)

No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember’s total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed

(1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter.

(2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters.

(3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight when added to any other commercial flying by that flight crewmember may not exceed

(1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or

(2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under this Part for the operation being conducted. (c) A flight crewmember’s flight time may exceed the flight time limits of paragraph (b) of this section if the assigned flight time occurs during a regularly assigned duty period of no more than 14 hours and

(1) If this duty period is immediately preceded by and followed by a required rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours of rest;

(2) If flight time is assigned during this period, that total flight time when added to any other commercial flying by the flight crewmember may not exceed

(i) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or

(ii) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots; and
(3) If the combined duty and rest periods equal 24 hours.
(d) Each assignment under paragraph (b) of this section must provide for at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment.
(e) When a flight crewmember has exceeded the daily flight time limitations in this section, because of circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather conditions), that flight crewmember must have a rest period before being assigned or accepting an assignment for flight time of at least
(1) 11 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 30 minutes;
(2) 12 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 30 minutes, but not more than 60 minutes; and
(3) 16 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 60 minutes.

(f) The certificate holder must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter.

Question 40

Explain the procedure for writing up maintenance discrepancies.

Answer 40

• On the maintenance log in the appropriate section. Name of pilot
• Date
• Nature of failure, malfunction, or defectiv. Identification of the part and system involved

Question 41

Explain how to get maintenance away from the base?

Answer 41

Obtaining Maintenance Away from Normal Base of Operations

When maintenance is required while away from the home base, the Director of Maintenance or his designee is authorized to have necessary work performed. If the Director of Maintenance or his designee is not immediately available, a pilot is authorized to have necessary work performed by a certified A&P mechanic or a properly rated FAA approved repair station, provided that the aforementioned have a valid FAA Part 120 compliant Anti-Drug and Alcohol Program in place.

A company A&P mechanic will inspect all “away from home maintenance” as soon as the aircraft returns to base to determine that such work is satisfactory and the necessary logbook entries are made.

Question 42

Can we carry dry ice?

If yes, how much?

Answer 42

Yes, not exceeding 5.07 pounds per package used as a refrigerant for the contents of a package. The package must be marked with the name of the contents being cooled, the net weight of the dry ice or an indication that the net weight is 5.07 pounds or less, and marked “Carbon Dioxide, Solid” or “Dry Ice,” and must be in checked baggage.

Question 43

The left position light is out.

Explain how to defer this item.

How will this affect operations?

Answer 43

1. The Pilot in Command will record the discrepancy in the Daily Flight Record inaccordance with the procedures specified in the Company’s Operations Manual.
2. The Pilot in Command will report the discrepancy to Maintenance. The Director of Maintenance (or designee) will review and defer the discrepancy if acceptable by the approved MEL.

Aircraft now cannot be flown during hours of darkness

Question 44

After you have been cleared to land at McCarran airport, you lose radio communications. What do you do?

Answer 44

Squawk 7600 and continue flight

Watch the tower for any light gun signals

Question 45

ATC LIGHT SIGNAL

STEADY GREEN

Answer 45

Question 46

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

FLASHING GREEN

Answer 46

Question 47

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

STEADY RED

Answer 47

Question 48

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

FLASHING RED

Answer 48

Question 49

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

FLASHING WHITE

Answer 49

Question 50

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

ALTERNATING RED AND GREEN

Answer 50

Question 51

What are the different types of frontal systems? Define.

Answer 51

Cold Front:

A cold front occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Cold fronts move more rapidly than warm fronts, progressing at a rate of 25 to 30 m.p.h. However, extreme cold fronts have been recorded moving at speeds of up to 60 m.p.h. A typical cold front moves in a manner opposite that of a warm front; because it is so dense, it stays close to the ground and acts like a snowplow, sliding under the warmer air and forcing the less dense air aloft. The rapidly ascending air causes the temperature to decrease suddenly, forcing the creation of clouds. The type of clouds that form depends on the stability of the warmer air mass. A cold front in the Northern Hemisphere is normally oriented in a northeast to southwest manner and can be several hundred miles long, encompassing a large area of land. Prior to the passage of a typical cold front, cirriform or towering cumulus clouds are present, and cumulonimbus clouds are possible. Rain showers and hazes are possible due to the rapid development of clouds. The wind from the south-southwest helps to replace the warm temperatures with the relative colder air. A high dewpoint and falling barometric pressure are indicative of imminent cold front passage.

As the cold front passes, towering cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds continue to dominate the sky.

Depending on the intensity of the cold front, heavy rain showers form and might be accompanied by lightning, thunder, and/or hail. More severe cold fronts can also produce tornadoes. During cold front passage, the visibility will be poor, with winds variable and gusty, and the temperature and dewpoint drop rapidly. A quickly falling barometric pressure bottoms out during frontal passage, then begins a gradual increase.

After frontal passage, the towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds begin to dissipate to cumulus clouds with a corresponding decrease in the precipitation. Good visibility eventually prevails with the winds from the west-northwest. Temperatures remain cooler and the barometric pressure continues to rise.

Warm Front

A warm front occurs when a warm mass of air advances and replaces a body of colder air. Warm fronts move slowly, typically 10 to 25 miles per hour (m.p.h.).The slope of the advancing front slides over the top of the cooler air and gradually pushes it out of the area.

Warm fronts contain warm air that often has very high humidity. As the warm air is lifted, the temperature drops and condensation occurs.

Generally, prior to the passage of a warm front, cirriform or stratiform clouds, along with fog, can be expected to form along the frontal boundary. In the summer months, cumulonimbus clouds (thunderstorms) are likely to develop. Light to moderate precipitation is probable, usually in the form of rain, sleet, snow, or drizzle, punctuated by poor visibility. The wind blows from the south-southeast, and the outside temperature is cool or cold, with increasing dewpoint. Finally, as the warm front approaches, the barometric pressure continues to fall until the front passes completely.

During the passage of a warm front, stratiform clouds are visible and drizzle may be falling. The visibility is generally poor, but improves with variable winds. The temperature rises steadily from the inflow of relatively warmer air. For the most part, the dewpoint remains steady and the pressure levels off. After the passage of a warm front, stratocumulus clouds predominate and rain showers are possible. The visibility eventually improves, but hazy conditions may exist for a short period after passage. The wind blows from the south-southwest. With warming temperatures, the dewpoint rises and then levels off. There is generally a slight rise in barometric pressure, followed by a decrease of barometric pressure.

Stationary Front

Neither air mass is replacing / displacing the other

When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days. This front is called a stationary front. The weather associated with a stationary front is typically a mixture that can be found in both warm and cold fronts.

Occluded

Cold air mass catches up to warm air mass and displaces it from underneath. An occluded front occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. As the occluded front approaches, warm front weather prevails, but is immediately followed by cold front weather. There are two types of occluded fronts that can occur, and the temperatures of the colliding frontal systems play a large part in defining the type of front and the resulting weather. A cold front occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front is colder than the air ahead of the slow-moving warm front. When this occurs, the cold air replaces the cool air and forces the warm front aloft into the atmosphere. Typically, the cold front occlusion creates a mixture of weather found in both warm and cold fronts, providing the air is relatively stable. A warm front occlusion occurs when the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air of the cold front. When this is the case, the cold front rides up and over the warm front. If the air forced aloft by the warm front occlusion is unstable, the weather will be more severe than the weather found in a cold front occlusion. Embedded thunderstorms, rain, and fog are likely to occur. The warm front slopes over the prevailing cooler air and produces the warm front type weather. Prior to the passage of the typical occluded front, cirriform and stratiform clouds prevail, light to heavy precipitation is falling, visibility is poor, dewpoint is steady, and barometric pressure is falling. During the passage of the front, nimbostratus and cumulonimbus clouds predominate, and towering cumulus may also be possible. Light to heavy precipitation is falling, visibility is poor, winds are variable, and the barometric pressure is leveling off. After the passage of the front, nimbostratus and altostratus clouds are visible, precipitation is decreasing and clearing, and visibility is improving.

Question 52

What changes will you notice after crossing a front?

Answer 52

Temperature, wind speed and direction, and humidity will change rapidly over a short distance

Question 53

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

Answer 53

1. Cumulus - updrafts
2. Mature - rain starts, updrafts and downdrafts,
3. Dissipating - downdrafts

Question 54

What in-flight hazards are associated with thunderstorms?

Answer 54

1. Turbulence
2. Lightning
3. Icing
4. Hail
5. Low ceiling, low visibility
6. Wind shear
7. Microbursts

Question 55

What is wind shear?

Answer 55

A difference in wind speed and direction over a relatively short distance in the atmosphere.

Question 56

What are the types of icing?

Answer 56

1. Clear - hard and glossy
2. Rime - Brittle and frost-like
3. Mixed - mixture of Clear and Rime - hard and rough

Question 57

What are the types of fog?

Answer 57

1. Ground (radiation) - cool humid air over cool ground (no wind)
2. Steam - cold dry air passes over warm ocean water

Moisture evaporates from water surface

Happens just above water surface

3. Advection - moist air moves over colder ground or water (winds)
4. Upslope fog - moist stable air cooled as it moves up sloping terrain
5. Precipitation induced fog - warm rain falling through cool air. Evaporation from rain saturates cool air and forms fog
6. Ice fog - occurs in cold weather when the temperature is much below freezing andwater vapor freezes directly as ice crystals.

Question 58

How would you recognize wind shear?

Answer 58

• Rapid decrease in airspeed
• Rapid decrease in climb rate
• Rapid increase in sink rate
• Increase in AOA above normal range

Question 59

How would you recognize a thunderstorm?

Answer 59

Look for “anvil”, cumulus “boiling up”effect, lightning

Question 60

How would you escape wind shear problems?

Answer 60

1. Listen to PIREPS and avoid that area
2. If encountering wind shear, report as PIREP

Question 61

What are some do’s and don’ts of thunderstorm flying?

Answer 61

DON’T

Don’t land or take off in the face of a thunderstorm

Don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm

DO

Do avoid large thunderstorms by 20 miles

Do remember that vivid and frequent lightning indicates a severe thunderstorm

Question 62

What would you do if you entered a thunderstorm?

Answer 62

1. Tighten safety belt and harness
2. Plan course to take you through the storm in a minimum amount of time (and hold that course)
3. Turn on pitot heat
4. Use power settings for reduced turbulence airspeed recommended in aircraft manual.
5. Turn up cockpit lights to lessen temporary blindness caused by lightning
6. Keep eyes on instruments
7. Don’t change power settings
8. Maintain constant attitude
9. Don’t turn back once in the thunderstorm (NOTE: In Rotorcraft, consider possibility of slowing to best manuver speed and reverse course to exit ASAP. Consider which way the storm is moving)

Question 63

PROHIBITED AREA

(Define)

Answer 63

Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

May not use.

Question 64

RESTRICTED AREA

(Define)

Answer 64

The flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited is subject to restriction. RA denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, airial gunnery, or guided missiles.May be used with permission from controlling agency.

Question 65

WARNING AREA

(Define)

Answer 65

From 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S. that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Question 66

MILITARY OPERATIONS AREA (MOA)

(Define)

Answer 66

Established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever a MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through a MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC.Operations include; air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low altitude tactics. Active MOA may contain military aircraft in excess of 250 knots (below 10K feet). May enter, but pilots should contact FSS within 100 NM to determine if MOA is active. Prior to entering MOA pilots should contact controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Question 67

ALERT AREAS

(Define)

Answer 67

Areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity.

Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas.

Question 68

CONTROLLED FIRING AREA

(Define)

Answer 68

Activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. Activities are suspended immediately when spotters, radar or lookouts indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. Not charted because pilots need not change flight path.

Question 69

WHAT REQUIRES USE OF PERSONAL FLOATATION DEVICES FOR TOURISTS?

Answer 69

§ 136.9 Life preservers for over water.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, the operator and pilot in command of commercial air tours over water beyond the shoreline must ensure that each occupant is wearing a life preserver from before takeoff until flight is no longer over water.
(b) The operator and pilot in command of a commercial air tour over water beyond the shoreline must ensure that a life preserver is readily available for its intended use and easily accessible to each occupant if:
(1) The aircraft is equipped with floats; or
(2) The airplane is within power-off gliding distance to the shoreline for the duration of the time that the flight is over water.
(3) The aircraft is a multi engine that can be operated with the critical engine inoperative at a weight that will allow it to climb, at least 50 feet a minute, at an altitude of 1,000 feet above the surface, as provided in the Airplane Flight Manual or the Rotorcraft Flight Manual, as appropriate.
(c) No life preserver is required if the overwater operation is necessary only for takeoff or landing.

Question 70

WHAT SECTION REQUIRES PASSENGER BRIEFING FOR TOURISTS?

Answer 70

§ 136.7 Passenger briefings.

(a) Before takeoff each pilot in command shall ensure that each passenger has been briefed on the following:
(1) Procedures for fastening and unfastening seatbelts;
(2) Prohibition on smoking; and
(3) Procedures for opening exits and exiting the aircraft.
(b) For flight segments over water beyond the shoreline, briefings must also include:
(1) Procedures for water ditching;
(2) Use of required life preservers; and
(3) Procedures for emergency exit from the aircraft in the event of a water landing.

Question 71

WHAT MUST A PILOT REVIEW EACH DAY BEFORE CONDUCTING FLIGHTS/TOURS?

WHAT SECTIONS OUTLINES THIS?

Answer 71

§ 136.13 Helicopter performance plan and operations.

(a) Each operator must complete a performance plan before each helicopter commercial air tour, or flight operated under 14 CFR 91.146 or 91.147. The pilot in command must review for accuracy and comply with the performance plan on the day the flight is flown. The performance plan must be based on the information in the Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM) for that helicopter, taking into consideration the maximum density altitude for which the operation is planned, in order to determine:
(1) Maximum gross weight and center of gravity (CG) limitations for hovering in ground effect;
(2) Maximum gross weight and CG limitations for hovering out of ground effect; and
(3) Maximum combination of weight, altitude, and temperature for which height/velocity information in the RFM is valid.
(b) Except for the approach to and transition from a hover for the purpose of takeoff and landing, or during takeoff and landing, the pilot in command must make a reasonable plan to operate the helicopter outside of the caution/warning/avoid area of the limiting height/velocity diagram.
(c) Except for the approach to and transition from a hover for the purpose of takeoff and landing, during takeoff and landing, or when necessary for safety of flight, the pilot in command must operate the helicopter in compliance with the plan described in paragraph (b) of this section.

Question 72

A CONCISE DEFINITION OF OPERATIONAL CONTROL

Answer 72

PERSON ABLE TO INITIATE, CONDUCT AND TERMINATE FLIGHTS

Question 73

FOR APRT 135 TOUR OPERATIONS, HOW OFTEN MUST A EC130B4, OR AN AS350B3E BE WEIGHED?

Answer 73

THEY ARE SINGLE ENGINE AIRCRAFT, ONLY WHEN A SIGNIFICANT CHANGE IS MADE

(Company will re-weight every 36 months as policy)

§ 135.185 Empty weight and center of gravity: Currency requirement.

(a) No person may operate a multiengine aircraft unless the current empty weight and center of gravity are calculated from values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within the preceding 36 calendar months.
(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to -
(1) Aircraft issued an original airworthiness certificate within the preceding 36 calendar months; and
(2) Aircraft operated under a weight and balance system approved in the operations specifications of the certificate holder.

Question 74

FREQUENCIES AN ELT USES

Answer 74

121.5MHz

406MHz

Question 75

EXPLAIN A REASON THERE IS A SEPERATE DEFERAL LOGBOOK IN THE MAINTENANCE CAN CARRIED ON THE AIRCRAFT

Answer 75

IN CASE THE AIRCRAFT LOGBOOK WITH THE ORIGINAL DISCRPANCY HAS BEEN FILLED, AND A NEW LOGBOOK PLACED IN THE CAN. TRACKING