Torts Flashcards

1
Q

Torts

Battery

A

A prima facie case for battery consists of

(1) a voluntary act by the defendant,
(2) defendant’s intent or substantial certainty that harmful or offensive contact will occur,
(3) objectively harmful or offensive contact to the plaintiff, and
(4) direct or indirect causation. No proof of harm is required.

[Remember doctrine of transferred intent for trespass torts (battery, assault, false imprisonment, trespass to land, trespass to chattels). If D has intent to commit tort X against person A and accidentally commits tort Y against person B, intent transfers and D will be liable to B.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Torts

Assault

A

A prima facie case for assault consists of

(1) defendant’s conduct beyond mere words,
(2) plaintiff’s reasonable apprehension and awareness of defendant’s act,
(3) imminent threat of harm, and
(4) plaintiff’s intent. No proof of harm is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Torts

Defamation

A

Common law defamation requires a showing of

(1) a defamatory statement,
(2) of or concerning plaintiff,
(3) publication, and
(4) damages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Torts

Defamation - Constitutional Defamation

A

When the defamation involves a matter of public concern, the plaintiff must prove tow additional elements:

(1) falsity, and
(2) fault.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Torts

Defamation - Constitutional Defamation - Falsity

A

[Was the matter true or false. Beliefs don’t matter here.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Torts

Defamation - Constitutional Defamation - Fault

A

The type of fault plaintiff must prove depends on whether the plaintiff is a public or private figure. If the plaintiff is a private figure, negligence must be shown. If plaintiff is a public figure, malice must be shown. Whether a plaintiff is a public figure turns on whether he voluntarily and intentionally put himself in the public eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Torts

Defamation - Constitutional Defamation - Fault - Malice

A

Malice is defined as knowledge that the defamatory statement was false or reckless disregard as to the statement’s truth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Torts

Defamation - Damages - Libel

A

[Libel]

Libel is defamation that is written. When libel occurs, general damages are presumed. However, the plaintiff may offer actual evidence of damages to increase his reward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Torts

Defamation - Damages - Libel Per Se versus Libel Per Quod

A

[Libel Per Se versus Libel Per Quod]

In a minority of jurisdictions, courts distinguish between libel per se (libel that is defamatory on its face) and libel per quod (not defamatory on its face). For libel per quod, extrinsic evidence is required to prove its injurious nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Torts

Defamation - Damages

A

The type of damages the plaintiff must prove depends on the type of defamation. Here, the type of defamation is (libel/slander) because the defamatory statement was (written/spoken).ONLY DISCUSS WHAT APPLIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Torts

Defamation - Damages - Slander

A

[Slander]

Slander is defamation that is spoken. In cases of slander, plaintiff must prove damages unless the defamation is slander per se.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Torts

Defamation - Constitutional Defamation - Matter of Public Concern

A

[Usually debatable, use all of the facts. Analyze even if end up concluding that matter is not of public concern. If that’s the case, skip falsity and fault.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Torts

Defamation - Constitutional Defamation - Fault - Negligence

A

A defendant acts negligently if they act carelessly or fail to act reasonably with respect to ascertaining the truth of the statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Torts

Defamation - Damages - Slander Per Se

A

[Slander Per Se]

Slander per se exists when the defamatory statement:

(1) adversely reflects one’s conduct in a business or profession;
(2) accuses one of having a loathsome disease;
(3) accuses one of a guilt involving a crime of moral turpitude, or
(4) suggests a woman is unchaste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Torts

Defamation - Defenses to Defamation - Absolute Privilege

A

Defendant may assert an absolute privilege for remarks made

(1) during judicial proceedings,
(2) by legislators in debate,
(3) by federal executive officials,
(4) in compelled broadcasts, and
(5) in between spouses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Torts

Defamation - Defamatory Statement

A

A defamatory statement is one that injures a plaintiff’s reputation and tends to subject plaintiff to hatred, contempt, ridicule, or financial injury. Opinions generally are not considered defamatory, but could be if they imply a fact (i.e., something that could be proven true or false).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Torts

Defamation - Defenses to Defamation - Qualified Privilege

A

Defendant may assert a qualified privilege for

(1) reports of official proceedings,
(2) statements in the interest of publisher,
(3) statements in the interest of the recipient, and (4) statements in the common interest of the publisher and recipient.

[Scope of Qualified Privilege]

Qualified privileges do not protect statements that are made to more parties than the interested recipient, give details outside the scope of the defined interest, or are made with malice or lack of good-faith.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Torts

Defamation - Defenses to Defamation - Truth

A

Truth is an absolute defense to defamation.

[Does not apply to constitutional defamation, as plaintiff already had the burden of proving falsity.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Torts

Defamation - Of or Concerning Plaintiff

A

The plaintiff must establish that a reasonable recipient of the information would understand that the statement referred to plaintiff.

[Colloquium]

Even if the statement does not explicitly name the plaintiff, he can still establish colloquium if extrinsic evidence relates the statement to the plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Torts

Defamation - Defenses to Defamation - Consent

A

Defendant is not liable for defamation if the plaintiff consented to dissemination of the statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Torts

Defenses to Intentional Torts

A

(1) Consent (Express or Implied)
(2) Self-Defense
(3) Defense of Others
(4) Defense of Property - No deadly force allowed; reasonable force to prevent intrusion on own land or reclaim wrongfully taken property is OK
(5) Parental Discipline
(6) Privilege of Arrest
(7) Private or Public Necessity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Torts

Defenses to Intentional Torts - Defense of Others

A

Requires

(1) reasonable belief that that other person has right to use force to defend himself, and
(2) reasonable force in proportion to anticipated harm to the other.

(A) Mistake as to third-party danger OK if reasonable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Torts

Defenses to Intentional Torts - Private or Public Necessity

A

Private necessity is a qualified privilege that lets a person to enter another’s land or use another’s property to protect his own person or property from harm. If a person has the privilege of private necessity, they are not liable for trespass but are responsible for actual damages to the other’s property.

Public necessity is an absolute privilege to avert imminent public disaster (i.e., risk to the safety of many people). If a person has the privilege of public necessity, they are not liable for damages caused by actions reasonably taken under a reasonable belief of public necessity, even if the actions taken are ultimately not necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Torts

Defenses to Intentional Torts - Privilege of Arrest

A

Felony - Private Actor

Requires that

(1) a felony was actually committed, and
(2) reasonable suspicion that the person arrested committed the felony.

Felony - Police

Requires
(1) reasonable belief that felony was committed and (2) reasonable suspicion that the person arrested committed the believed felony.

Misdemeanor

Requires that a misdemeanor be committed in front of arresting party (police or private).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Torts

Defenses to Intentional Torts - Self Defense

A

This defense requires
(1) reasonable anticipation of harm
(2) and reasonable force in proportion to the anticipated harm.
(A) Reasonable mistake does not invalidate defense.
(B) Deadly force only proportional if anticipated harm is serious bodily injury or death.
(C) Majority of jurisdictions do not impose a duty to retreat.
(D) Initial aggressors are generally not entitled to claim self-defense (but might be if victim responded with disproportionate force).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Torts

False Imprisonment

A

A prima facie case for false imprisonment consists of

(1) an act or failure to act by defendant, with
(2) intent to confine or restrain another within boundaries,
(3) actual confinement of the plaintiff,
(4) plaintiff’s awareness of or injury by the confinement, and
(5) a causal link between defendant’s act and plaintiff’s confinement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Torts

Defamation - Publication

A

Publication requires that the statement be communicated to a third party who understands the defamatory meaning and its application to plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Torts

False Imprisonment - Shopkeeper’s Privilege

A

Shopkeepers have the right to detain suspected shoplifters

(1) on or near the premises,
(2) for a reasonable duration,
(3) using reasonable force, and
(4) based on reasonable suspicion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Torts

Injurious Falsehoods

A

Injurious falsehoods are actionable if they are either

(1) trade libel resulting in special damages, or
(2) malicious publication of false statements derogatory to P’s title in real property resulting in special damages due to diminished value by third parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Torts

Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress

A

A prima facie case for assault consists of

(1) intent or recklessness,
(2) extreme and outrageous conduct by defendant that is beyond human decency,
(3) causation, and
(4) severe emotional distress.

[3rd-Party Relative of Victim]
If plaintiff is a third-party relative of the victim, he must establish two additional elements:
(1) a relationship of immediate family to the victim targeted by the defendant, and
(2) defendant’s knowledge that plaintiff was present and aware of defendant’s conduct towards the victim.

[3rd-Party Non-Relative of Victim]
If plaintiff is a third-party non-relative of the victim, he must establish that:
(1) he was present and aware of at the time of defendant’s conduct towards the victim, and
(2) he suffered bodily harm as a consequence of witnessing defendant’s conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy

A

There are four different torts that comprise the tort of invasion of privacy.

To sue successfully for invasion of privacy, the plaintiff only has to prove one of the four torts. They are:

(1) intrusion upon seclusion or private affairs,
(2) misappropriation,
(3) false light, or
(4) publication of private facts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Common Elements

A

In order for a plaintiff to have a claim for any invasion of privacy, he or she must establish

(1) causation, and
(2) damages.

[Focus on proximate causation only, as no time to talk about cause in fact.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Torts

Intentional Interference with Business Relations

A

IIBR can be established by

(1) intentional interference with contract causing breach and harm to plaintiff,
(2) interference with prospective economic advantage through egregious conduct, or
(3) theft of trade secrets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Defenses - Absolute Privilege

A

Defendant may assert an absolute privilege for remarks made

(1) during judicial proceedings,
(2) by legislators in debate,
(3) by federal executive officials,
(4) in compelled broadcasts, and
(5) in between spouses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Defenses - Qualified Privilege

A

Defendant may assert a qualified privilege for

(1) reports of official proceedings,
(2) statements in the interest of publisher,
(3) statements in the interest of the recipient, and
(4) statements in the common interest of the publisher and recipient.

[Scope of Qualified Privilege]

Qualified privileges do not protect statements that are made to more parties than the interested recipient, give details outside the scope of the defined interest, or are made with malice or lack of good-faith.

37
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - False Light

A

False light occurs where a defendant gives publicity to plaintiff concerning views he does not hold or actions he did not take. The false light must be highly offensive to a reasonable person and the information must be made public.

38
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Intrusion Upon Seclusion or Private Affairs

A

A plaintiff has a claim for intrusion upon seclusion or private affairs when a defendant intrudes upon the solitude or seclusion of another OR his private affairs in a way that is objectionable to a reasonable person. Affairs and areas are private when a plaintiff has a reasonable expectation of privacy in them.

39
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Intrusion Upon Seclusion or Private Affairs - Intrusion

A

Intrusion is broad, and covers physical intrusions, observation, overhearing, or various forms of prying or investigation.

40
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Defenses - Consent

A

Defendant is not liable if plaintiff consented to the invasion of privacy.

41
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Intrusion Upon Seclusion or Private Affairs - Seclusion / Private Affairs

A

Reasonable Expectation of Privacy

An (area is secluded / affair is private) if a reasonable person would expect to have privacy in it. [analysis]

Objectionable to a Reasonable Person

The defendant’s conduct is an intrusion if a reasonable person would consider it to be an objectionable violation of privacy. [analysis]

42
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Misappropriation

A

Misappropriation occurs when a defendant engages in an unauthorized use of plaintiff’s name or likeness for commercial benefit. Liability is limited to commercial advertisements or promotions.

43
Q

Torts

Invasion of Privacy - Publication of Private Facts

A

This tort is committed when a defendant publicly discloses private information about plaintiff that is highly offensive to a reasonable person and not of legitimate concern to the public. Public figures have a lessened expectation of privacy.

44
Q

Torts

Negligence

A

A prima facie case for negligence consists of

(1) duty,
(2) breach of that duty,
(3) causation, and
(4) damages.

45
Q

Torts

Negligence - Causation

A

Causation must be both actual and proximate.

Actual causation is “but-for” causation, wherein the defendant is only liable if the injury would not have occurred but for his negligence, or the defendant’s conduct was a substantial factor in causing the injury. Proximate causation exists when the act and resulting injuries were a foreseeable result of the defendant’s conduct.

Actual Causation[analysis]

Proximate Causation[analysis]

[Eggshell skull]

Although the plaintiff’s particular vulnerability was not foreseeable, the eggshell skull doctrine states that tortfeasors take their victims as they find them. Thus, the plaintiff’s vulnerable condition does not remove defendant’s conduct as the proximate cause of plaintiff’s injuries.

46
Q

Torts

Negligence - Damages

A

A plaintiff must prove damages in the form of physical injury or property damage. Economic harm alone is insufficient for a claim of negligence.

[Eggshell skull]

As explained above, defendant is liable for all of the plaintiff’s injuries that he proximately caused. Therefore, defendant will be liable even for unusually high damages that are due to plaintiff’s particular vulnerabilities.

47
Q

Torts

Negligence - Breach

A

A breach occurs when a defendant fails to conform to the standard of care. As noted above, here the standard of care is one of (reasonable care / heightened reasonableness and care).

48
Q

Torts

Negligence - Defenses

A

ONLY DISCUSS THOSE WHICH MIGHT APPLY

[Contributory negligence]

[Comparative negligence]

[Assumption of risk]

[No defenses]

All of the defenses to negligence (contributory negligence, comparative negligence, and assumption of risk) require some degree of fault on the part of plaintiff. Here, plaintiff was innocent of any negligence, did not assume any risk, and therefore did not contribute to his injuries. Therefore, no defenses apply.

49
Q

Torts

Negligence - Duty

A

All people have a duty to prevent an unreasonable risk of harm to others.

Under the majority view (Cardozo approach) a duty is owed only to those plaintiffs that are foreseeable and in the zone of danger. [analysis]

Under the minority view (Andrews approach) a duty is owed to all. [analysis]

50
Q

Torts

Negligence - Standard of Care

A

Absent a special relationship, the standard of care for this duty is one of reasonableness. All people are entrusted to act as the reasonable and prudent person would in the same or similar circumstances. Whether a person has acted reasonably is judged objectively.

51
Q

Torts

Negligence - Standard of Care - Heightened Standard of Care

A

Landowners, professionals, and common carriers must exercise a heightened standard of care. People entrusted with a heightened standard of care are liable for even slight negligence.

52
Q

Torts

Negligent or Intentional Mispresentations

A

A prima facie case of intentional or negligent misrepresentation requires

(1) false representation of material fact or false information,
(2) knowledge or reckless disregard of truth [intentional] or negligence,
(3) justifiable and actual reliance by the plaintiff, and
(4) actual pecuniary damages.

53
Q

Torts

Private / Public Nuisance

A

A prima facie case of private nuisance consists of:

(1) substantial and unreasonable interference with
(2) plaintiff’s use or enjoyment of his land.

A prima facie case of public nuisance consists of unreasonable interference with a right common to the general public.

54
Q

Torts

Private / Public Nuisance - Abatement and Remedies

A

Abatement of Private Nuisance

In order for plaintiff to engage in abatement of the nuisance,

(1) plaintiff must give defendant notice of the nuisance,
(2) defendant must refuse to act to address the nuisance, and
(3) plaintiff must use reasonable force to abate the nuisance.

Abatement of Public Nuisance

Absent unique injury, only public authorities may abate public nuisances.

Remedies

Remedies are damages and/or injunctive relief (balance the equities).

55
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer

A

There are five theories of liability upon which to base a products liability claim

(1) strict liability,
(2) negligence,
(3) implied warranties,
(4) representation / express warranties, and
(5) intent.

56
Q

Torts

Private / Public Nuisance - Defenses

A

Defenses are generally inapplicable to public nuisances.Regulatory compliance is an incomplete defense to private nuisance; not determinative.”Coming to the nuisance” does not entitle defendant to judgment as a matter of law, but jury may consider.

57
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Express Warranty / Representation

A

Breach of an express warranty arises when a product does not conform to the affirmative representations made by the defendant. The representation must have been part of the bargain at the time the purchase was made. Any consumer, user, or bystander can sue under this theory.

58
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Implied Warranty

A

There are two warranties implied in every sale of goods that can serve as the basis for a products liability suit. Any buyer, family member, or houseguest can sue under these theories and the plaintiff does not have to prove fault on the part of the defendant.

59
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Express Warranty / Representation - Defenses

A

[Disclaimers]
Disclaimers are valid only if consistent with warranty.

[Comparative Fault]

[Contributory Negligence]
Not a bar except when it overlaps assumption of risk.

[Assumption of Risk - bars recovery]

If the plaintiff knew that the product was defective and used it anyway, or ignores a relevant warning label, plaintiff’s recovery will be completely barred.

60
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Implied Warranty - Defenses

A

[Comparative Fault]

[Contributory Negligence]

Not a bar except when it overlaps assumption of risk.

[Assumption of Risk - bars recovery]

If the plaintiff knew that the product was defective and used it anyway, or ignores a relevant warning label, plaintiff’s recovery will be completely barred.

[Disclaimers - but not for limitation of consequential damages for personal injury]

61
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Implied Warranty - Warranty of Fitness for a Particular Purpose

A

The warranty of fitness for a particular purpose is breached when the defendant has reason to know the particular purpose for which the consumer goods are required, and that the buyer is relying on the skill and judgment of the seller to select and furnish suitable goods that conform to that purpose.

62
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Intent

A

A defendant will be liable to anyone injured by an unsafe product if the defendant intended the consequences or knew that they were substantially certain to occur. Any injured plaintiff can sue under this theory.

[Very few manufacturers intend for customers to be hurt, but quite a few have reason to know that certain injuries are substantially certain to occur.]

63
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Implied Warranty - Warranty of Merchantability

A

This warranty is breached when the goods are not of average acceptable quality or are not fit for the general purpose for which they were intended.

64
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Intent - Defenses

A

[Comparative Fault]

[Contributory Negligence]

[Assumption of Risk - bars recovery]

65
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Negligence Theory of Products Liability

A

In order for a plaintiff to recover under a “negligence” theory for products liability, she must show that the manufacturer of the product had a duty her, that manufacturer breached that duty, and that the breached duty caused her damages.

66
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Negligence Theory of Products Liability - Causation

A

See above.

67
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Negligence Theory of Products Liability - Damages

A

See above.

68
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Negligence Theory of Products Liability - Duty and Breach

A

Breach of a duty is inferred when negligent conduct leads to the supplying of a defective product. Defect has been discussed supra.

69
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Negligence Theory of Products Liability - Duty and Breach - Negligent Conduct

A

[Just talk about reasonableness.]

70
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability

A

The prima facie case for strict products liability is

(1) strict duty,
(2) breach of that duty (supply of a defective product),
(3) causation, and
(4) damages.

71
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Causation

A

Actual Causation

This element is inferred if the defect was present when the product left defendant’s control. See analysis above.

Proximate Causation

Proximate causation exists when the act and resulting injuries were a foreseeable result of defendant’s conduct or the defendant’s conduct was a substantial factor in causing the injury.

72
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Breach

A

Under a strict liability theory, a breach occurs if the defendant supplies a defective product and the product was defective when it left defendant’s control.

73
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Damages

A

Plaintiff must prove that he or she sustained damages in the form of physical injury.

74
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Defect - Inadequate Warning

A

Inadequate warnings are a type of design defect that result from the manufacturer’s failure to give adequate warnings as to the risks involved in the product. For liability to attach, the danger must not be apparent to user and use of the warning must not have a serious impact on the product’s price or utility.

75
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Defect - Manufacturing Defect

A

A manufacturing defect occurs when one of the products on an assembly line is more defective than the rest.

To prove a manufacturing defect, the plaintiff may apply either

(1) the consumer expectations test, or
(2) the risk-utility test, as defined above.

76
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Defect

A

There are 3 types of defects: design defects, manufacturing defects, and inadequate warnings. A product can only be defective if it is unreasonably dangerous.

77
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Defenses

A

[Contributory Negligence]

[Comparative Fault]

[Unreasonable or Unforeseeable Misuse / Alteration / Modification]

(Misuse / alteration / modification) is not a defense if the (misuse / alteration / modification) was reasonably foreseeable. However, if plaintiff unreasonably or unforeseeably (misused / altered / modified) the product, and said (misuse / alteration / modification) caused the plaintiff’s injuries, the plaintiff’s recovery will be precluded or reduced, as appropriate.

[Assumption of Risk]

If the plaintiff knew that the product was defective and used it anyway, or ignores a relevant warning label, plaintiff’s recovery will be completely barred.

78
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Present When Product Left Defendant’s Control

A

[Should be obvious from chain of commerce.]

79
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability Defect - Design Defect

A

A design defect occurs when ever product on an assembly line has the same dangerous propensities.

To prove the existence of a design defect, the plaintiff must show either that:

(1) the product failed to perform as safely as the ordinary consumer would expect, taking into account reasonable misuse (consumer expectations test), or
(2) that the defendant could have made the product safer without serious impact on the product’s price or utility (the feasibility or risk-utility test).

80
Q

Torts

Products Liability - Manufacturer - Strict Liability - Strict Duty

A

Commercial suppliers have a strict duty to supply safe products that are free from defects.

81
Q

Torts

Trespass to Chattels / Conversion

A

A prima facie case of trespass to chattels consists of

(1) intentional act to commit an act which
(2) interferes with plaintiff’s right of possession, and
(3) damages.

82
Q

Torts

Trespass to Chattels / Conversion - Interferes with Plaintiff’s Right of Possession

A

Defendant interferes with plaintiff’s right of possession when he

(1) dispossess plaintiff of the property,
(2) uses the property, or
(3) intermeddles with the property. If the interference is so severe as to completely deprive plaintiff the use of the chattel, defendant’s interference constitutes conversion. Otherwise, defendant’s interference is trespass to chattels.

(A) Mistake is not a defense.

83
Q

Torts

Vicarious Liability

A

The question is whether (employer) is liable for the tort of (employee) even though (employer) was not the direct cause of plaintiff’s injury. Vicarious liability is a theory under which one party can be liable for torts committed by anther party.

84
Q

Torts

Trespass to Land

A

A prima facie case of trespass to land consists of

(1) intent to enter land or cause a physical invasion, and
(2) physical invasion of property.

Actual damages are not required to establish trespass to land, but affect the amount of recovery.

85
Q

Torts

Vicarious Liability - Respondeat Superior - Defenses

A

[Intentional Torts / Frolics and Detours]

Intentional torts are usually outside the scope of employment because they are considered frolics and detours. However, an intentional frolic and detour can be in the course and scope of employment if the employer somehow benefits from it, even if the employer did not authorize it.

86
Q

Torts

Vicarious Liability - Respondeat Superior

A

Respondeat superior is a type of vicarious liability wherein the employer is liable for the torts committed by its employees who are acting in the course and scope of their employment. Therefore, in order to determine the liability of (employer), it is necessary to determine whether (employee) committed a tort within the course and scope of employment.[Discussion of employee’s tort goes here]

87
Q

Torts

Wrongful Use of Legal System

A

Wrongful use of the legal system is actionable if it is either

(1) malicious suit for improper purpose and without merit, or
(2) willful abuse of legal process for improper purposes.

For (1), damages include legal expenses, lost work time, loss of reputation, and emotional distress. Action must be dismissed in favor of person against whom it was brought. Also, prosecutors and judges are immune from this claim.

For (2), proof of damages required.

88
Q

Torts

False Imprisonment - Actual Confinement

A

Plaintiff is not confined if he has reasonable means of escape or if the “boundaries” of confinement are too large (i.e., boundaries of an entire country. State boundaries, however, are within the meaning of confinement).