Torts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the standard of care for a medical doctor

A

A medical doctor is liable to a patient only when the evidence shows that he has failed to comply with the standard of care for the relevant specialty and medical community and his failure causes the patients injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do courts assess the standard of care of a medical doctor

A

Most courts compare the doctors conduct to national standards rather than those that prevail in his or her locality.

Because the standard requires assessment of typical doctor conduct, expert testimony is almost invariable necessary to establish a doctors negligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Manufacturing defects

A

A producer is strictly liable whenever the product departs from its intended design even though all possible care was exercised in the preparation and marketing of the product.
(includes food products)

The issue is whether a product was defective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Implied warranty of merchantability

A

To be merchantable, the goods, inter alia, must be fit for the ordinary purposes for which such goods are used.

How a product came to be unmerchabtable is irrelevant. What matters is that the products was merchantable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The “market share” liability doctrine

A

pemits the jury to apportion damages based on the market shares of manufacturers of a defective product.

Only available if the manufactures’ defective products are fungible in relation to their capacity to cause harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The alternative liability doctrine

A

permits a jury to find two defendants liable when each was negligent and either could have caused the plaintiffs injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Joint venture or Joint enterprise doctrine

A

allow the jury to impute one defendants tortious conduct to other defendants who are engage din a common project or enterprise and who have made an explicit or implied agreement to engage in tortoise conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Strict products liability

A

applies to all commercial sellers, even a retailer who had no control over the design and manufacture of a product may be found liable if the retailers sells the product.

A producer is strictly liable whenever the product departs from its intended design even though all possible care was exercised in the preparation and marketing of the product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Strict liability for abnormally dangerous activities

A

Derives from Fletcher v. Rylands, “ the D will be liable when he damages another by a thing or activity unduly dangerous and inappropriate…”

Under the First Restatement, strict liability applied to an “ultra hazardous” activity.

Under the Second and Third Restatemetns, strict liability applies to an “abnormally dangerous activity”.

The essential question is whether the risk created is so unusual, either bc of its magnitude or bc of the circumstances surrounding it, as to justify the imposition of strict liability for the harm that results from it, even though it is carried on with all reasonable care.

Second Restatement divined “common usage” as to be a matter of common usage, and activity must be carried on by the great mass of mankind or by any people in the community.

Third Restatement, the strict liability is based on only two factors. An activity is abronmally dangerous if 91) the activity creates a foreseeable and highly risk of physical harm even when reasonable care is exercised by all actors; and (2) the activity is not one of common usage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Proximate cause

A

liability typically extends to individuals within the zone of risk. If an actor conduct creates a recognizable risk of harm only to a particular class of persons, the fact that it causes harm to a person of a different class, to who the actor could not reasonably have anticipated injury, does not render the actor liable to the persons so injured. The actor whose conduct is responsible for an altogether unexpected type of injury usually escapes liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Foreseeability in proximate cause (running from danger or to it)

A

Injuries sustained when running from danger are foreseeable. Courts have also held that danger invites rescue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Independent contractors

A

Typically, one who employs an independent contractor is not vicariously liable for the contractors acts or omissions. But when an actor employs an independent contractor to do the work involving a special danger to others which the employer knows or has reason to know to be inherent in or normal to the work, he is subject to liability for physical harm caused to such others by the contractors failure to take reasonable precautions against such danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Duty owed to an invitee

A

an invitee is a person who enters onto the premises in response to an express or implied invitation of the landowner.

The landowner owes the invitee a general duty to use reasonable and ordinary care in keeping the property safe for the benefit of the invitee. That duty includes the duty to inspect for and correct hidden dangers and defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A common law claim for defamation must satisfy four requirements

A
  1. the Ds defamatory statement,
  2. of and concerning plaintiff,
  3. negligently or intentionally communicated to at least one third person,
  4. thereby damaged the plaintiff’s reputation.

In addition, the P will have to prove some level of fault, depending on his and the defendant’s status (media, public figure); furthermore, if the statement was slander and not within a “per se” category, the P must prove “special” (pecuniary) damages.

“Special damages” slander per se categories: reflecting adversely on business/profession, or imputing a foul and loathsome disease, moral turpitude crime, or lack of chastity in a woman.

Pecuniary loss: a lost job, inheritance, gift, customers, and the like.

General damages: cover things like damage to reputation or personal relationships, and mental anguish.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Indemnity in strict liability cases

A

indemnity applies to strict liability in such a way that subsequent suppliers can seek indemnity from those before them in the supply chain, so that whoever was responsible for the defect is ultimately liable for it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Private nuisance

A

a landowner who causes a substantial, unreasonable interference with a neighbors use or enjoyment of his property without a valid defense is liable for private nuisance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Misappropriation of identity type of invasion of privacy

A

to establish a prima facie case for invasion of privacy by appropriation of a plaintiffs picture or name, only one element needs to be proved: that there was an unauthorized use by defendant of plaintiff’s picture or name for commercial advantage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Causation

A

a plaintiff bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a defendant actually caused his injury, just as he bears the burden of proving the other parts of his prima facie case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Defense of property

A

one may use reasonable force to prevent trespass, or other interference with one’s land or chattels. However, deadly force (likely to cause death or serious bodily injury) cannot be used except to prevent an intrusion that is likely to cause death or SBI to the inhabitants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For a claim of negligent misrepresentation

A

the defendants mental state must be negligent, the D must have made the statement during the course of his business and with a pecuniary interest in the transaction, and the P must be a person or member of a limited group that the D intended to reach or who the D knows a recipient of the information intended to reach.

Even if these elements are met, recovery for negligent misrepresentation is usually limited to pecuniary loss unless it involves a risk of physical harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Battery

A

is the intentional infliction of a harmful or offensive bodily contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Trespassers

A

the general rule is that the landowner owes not duty to a trespasser to make her land safe, to warn of dangers on it to avoid carrying on dangerous activities on it, or to protect the trespasser in any way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Wild animals

A

the rule is that the owner of a wild animal is strictly liable for the animals conduct creating damage.

24
Q

Outside the zone of danger recovery

A

to recover, a plaintiff who was outside the zone of danger must:

  1. be closely related to the injury victim,
  2. be present at the scene of the injury-producing event and have been aware that the event was causing an injury to the victim; and
  3. have suffered serious emotional distress as a result of his or her presence at the scene.
25
Q

Duty to aid

A

the general rule is that there is no duty to aid unless one of these elements exist: the defendants negligence created the peril, a “special relationship” mandates affirmative acts, or the defendant had previously undertaken to act for the plaintiffs benefit.

26
Q

if a Plaintiff is injured by a product that is defective

A

a plaintiff can prove that a products design is defective by pointing out a reasonable alternative design that offers a better balance of costs and benefits. Usually this better balance means that the alternative design is safer without being significantly more expensive or less useful than the design the defendant used.

Note that if a product is unreasonably dangerous its maker is not saved from liability either by a warning or by the consumers free choice in selecting the product–a manufacturer is obliged to take all reasonable cost effective steps to make the product safe.

27
Q

Firefighters rule

A

the common law rule says that when firefighters or police officers are injured during the course of the job, they normally have no claim against the person whose conduct created the peril. Limited to risks that are inherent in and special to, that particular occupation.

28
Q

Fraud

A

one who fraudulently makes a misrepresentation of fact, opinion, or law for the purpose of inducing another to act or to refrain from acting in reliance upon it, is subject to liability to the other in deceit (fraud) for pecuniary loss caused to him by his justifiable reliance upon the misrepresentation.

29
Q

Abnormally dangerous activities

A

a. an actor who carries on an abnormal dangerous activity is subject to strict liability of physical harm resulting from the activity
b. an activity is abnormally dangerous if:

1) the activity creates a foreseeable and highly significant risk of physical harm even when reasonable care is excercised by all actors and
2) the activity is not one of common usage.

30
Q

When can the burden of proof shift to Ds

A

b) when the P sues all of multiple actors and proves that each engaged in tortious conduct that exposed the P to a risk of harm and that the tortious conduct of one or more of them caused the Ps harm but the P cannot reasonably be expected to prove which actor or actors cause the harm, the burden of proof, including both production and persuasion, on factual caution is shifted to the defendants.

31
Q

S 876 Persons acting in concert

A

for harm resulting to a third person from the tortious conduct of another, one is subject to liability if he (a) does a tortious act in concert with the other or pursuant to a common design with him.

32
Q

Contributory negligence is not applicable when

intentional injury

A

the Ps contributory negligence does not bar recovery against a D for a harm caused by conduct of the D which is wrongful bc it is intended to cause harm to some legal protected interest of the P or a third person.

Contributory negligence as a matter of law cannot be a defense to an action for an intetional tort like battery.

33
Q

Interference with dead bodies

A

one who intentionally, recklessly, or negligently removes, withholds, mutilates, or operates upon the body of a dead person or prevents Ds proper interment or cremation is subject to liability to a member of the family of the deceased who is entitled to the disposition of the body.

34
Q

Assumption of risk in abnormally dangerous activity

A

bars recovery for the harm

35
Q

Liability of multiple tortfeasors for indivisible harm

A

if the independent tortious conduct of two or more persons is a legal cause of an indivisible injury, each person is jointly and severally liable for the recoverable damages caused by the tortious conduct.

36
Q

Injury of “normal consequence”

subsequent injury not related to the first but or normal consequence

A

if the negligent actor is liable for an injury which impairs the physical condition of another’s body, the actor is also liable for harm sustained in a subsequent accident which would have not occurred had the other’s condition not been impaired and which is of normal consequence of such impairment.

37
Q

a landowner can be privileged to use even deadly force to prevent intrusion on his land Only if

A

he reasonable believes that the intruder, unless expelled, is likely to cause death or serious bodily harm.

38
Q

A possessor of land open to the public owes the public a duty to:

(ex, hotel owner who hires contractor)

A

keep the premises reasonably safe, and his duty may not be delegated to an independent contractor.

39
Q

Conversion is

A

an intentional exercise of dominion or control over a chattel which so seriously interferes with the right of another to control it that the actor may justifiably be required to pay the other the full value of the chattels

40
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitor

A

permits the plaintiff to create an inference of the defendants negligence without any direct evidence showing negligence.

41
Q

Private nuisance

A

is a substantial, unreasonable interference with another individuals use or enjoyment of his property.

42
Q

Third parties can recover for emotional distress if:

A
  1. they are present for the physical harm;
  2. they are closely related to the injured person; and
  3. the actor knows of the TPs presence, and must be able to reasonably anticipate the third parties distress that will result from the actors conduct.
43
Q

In most situations, a medical professionals duty of care extends

A

only to his or her patient. Considerations of privacy and confidentiality usually lead courts to deny a duty on the part of therapists to non-patients when only the patient is at risk.

44
Q

When a seller induces a buyer’s consent to a contract by means of a material misrepresentation

A

the resulting contract is voidable at the election of the buyer.

45
Q

The tort of assault requires

A

that the plaintiff have an apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive bodily contact

46
Q

To prevail in a Negligent infliction of emotional distress (NIED0 claim

A

a plaintiff usually has to prove that the defendant was negligent and that the plaintiff suffered emotional distress that manifests in physical symptoms.

A plaintiff does not need to prove physical symptoms in a case involving the mishandling of a corpse because serious emotional distress is deemed foreseeable.

47
Q

Under the doctrine of apparent agency

A

a principal is liable if a reasonable third party would believe–due to an act or neglect on the part of the principal–that an agent had the authority act on the principals behalf, the principal is bound by the actions of the agent, even if there was no agency relationship established between the principal and the purported agent.

48
Q

In order to prevail in a negligence claim

A

the plaintiff must demonstrate there was a duty, that the defendant breached the duty, and the breach of duty caused harm to the plaintiff.

49
Q

The elements of an intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)

A

i. defendant intentionally or reckless
ii. engages in extreme or outrageous conduct, which causes
iii. severe emotional distress

50
Q

Defense of others

A

defense is available to someone who uses

reasonably necessary force when another is at risk of being harmed.

51
Q

Defenses to strict liability

A

defenses that can be raised to a strict liability claim, such as comparative negligence. Assumption of the risk is often used in a comparative fault analysis

52
Q

A negligent tortfeasor is not generally liable for the criminal acts of third parties made possible by his negligence, but there is an exception

A

when the tortfeasor should have realized the likelihood of the crime at the time of his negligence. The issue of foreseeability is generally a question for the jury.

53
Q

AS common law right of publicity

A

can be violated when an advertisement, viewed as a whole, leaves little doubt that the ad is intended to depict a specific celebrity who has not consented to the use of his or her identity.

54
Q

The privilege of self-defense permits the use of force

A

actually and reasonably believed to be necessary given the threat posed by the plaintiff

55
Q

Whether an employee was acting within the scope of his employment is generally a question of fact. An employee’s conduct is within the scope of his employment if:

A

(1) it is of the kind that the employee is employed to perform; (2) it occurs substantially within the authorized time and space limits; and (3) it is motivated, at least in part, by a purpose to serve the employer. The fact that the act was not authorized is not determinative.

56
Q

Safety statutes, like traffic ordinances are typically deemed to protect the public at large

A

an actor is negligent if, without excuse, the actor violates a statute that is designed to protect against the type of accident the actor’s conduct causes, and if the accident victim is within the class of persons the statute is designed to protect.

57
Q

Indemnification

A

full reimbursement for damages paid to the plaintiff. Is available to a tort defendant who has paid the plaintiff’s damage award when, as between the paying and nonpaying defendants, the paying defendant was not at fault in causing the plaintiff’s injuries and the non-paying defendant was at fault.