Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cali Bar > Torts > Flashcards

Torts Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
MBE flashcards
1
Q

What are the elements of a prima facie intentional torts case?

A

An act by the defendant
Intent by the defendant to bring about a physical or mental effect on another person.

Effect must have been caused by defendant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What ways can intent be achieved?

A

Where the defendant has a desire or purpose to bring about the effect

Or

The defendant knows with substantial certainty that the effect will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is transferred intent?

A

Where the defendant intended to effect one person but ended up affecting the other, the defendant can be charged with an intentional tort against the other person.

This also applies where harm is a different type of tort than intended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is transferred intent available for conversion?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is transferred intent applicable to iied?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can causation be satisfied if defendants act was a substantial factor in bringing about the effect?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the elements of battery?

A

Intent
Harmful or offensive
Contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the elements of assault?

A

Intent
Causing apprehension of
Imminent
Harmful or offensive contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the elements of iied?

A

Intentionally causing
Severe emotional distress
By extreme and outrageous conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is intent satisfied for iied?

A
  1. Desire and purpose to cause
  2. Has substantially certain knowledge effect will occur
  3. Reckless disregard for the high probability emotional distress will occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When may there be third party liability for iied?

A

Defendant intentionally or recklessly directs extreme and outrageous conduct at someone other than the plaintiff and

  1. Plaintiff was physically present, known by defendant to be present and is a close relative to x
  2. Plaintiff suffers bodily harm as a result of the severe emotional distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the elements of false imprisonment?

A 
Intentionally
Confined 
Bounded Area 
No reasonable means of escape 
Awareness of confinement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is trespass to land?

A

Intentional physical invasion of the land of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is mistake as to land ownership a defense to trespass to land?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How may the physical invasion on the land of another be achieved?

A
  1. Entry without permission
  2. Remaining without right
  3. Placing or projecting an object upon the land without permission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the elements to trespass to chattel?

A

Intentionally
Interfere with use or possession of
Chattel
Damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is mistake as to ownership a defense to trespass to chattels?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the measure of damages in trespass to chattels cases?

A

Chattel’s loss of value cause by loss of use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is conversion?

A

Intentional interference with a plaintiff’s possession or ownership so substantial that it warrants the defendant paying its fill value

Intent
Substantial interference with use or possession
Chattel
Damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the defenses to intentional torts?

A 
Consent
Self defense 
Defense of others
Defense of property
Recapture of chattels
Shopkeeper’s privilege 
Arrest under legal authority 
Necessity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the majority view as to whether a defendant can consent to a crime being committed?

A

Consent ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define self-defense

A

A person is entitled to use reasonable force to prevent harmful or offensive contact, and threatened confinement or imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is deadly force acceptable?

A

Defendant in danger of death or sbi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much force may one use in self-defense?

A

As much as necessary to prevent he threatened harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When may a defendant use force in the defense of others?

A

Where the person he is defending would have been justified using that force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When may a defendant use reasonable force to defend his Real or personal property?

A

Where defendant had made a verbal demand that the intruder stop, or it reasonably appears futile or dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When may a property owner use reasonable force to regain possession of chattels?

A

Fresh pursuit

Note: deadly force not permitted in recapture of chattel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is shopkeeper’s privilege?

A

Shopkeepers can temporarily detain a person they reasonably believe to be in possession of stolen goods.

Must be temporary. Police must be called to make the arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When may a person interfere with the real property of another pursuant to necessity?

A

Reasonably and apparently necessary to prevent gbh to another or the defendant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What damages ensue when property is damaged by public necessity?

A

No compensation allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the duty of care?

A

The duty to act as a reasonable person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

To whom is the duty of care owed?

A 
Foreseeable plaintiffs (Cardozo) 
Everyone (Andrews)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When does a defendant have an affirmative duty to act?

A

Special relationship
Causing the danger
Volunteer assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the fireman’s rule?

A

Firefighter and cops can’t sue for injuries in the line of duty that stem from risks inherent in the profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To what standard of care are children held?

A

Conform to conduct of child of similar age, intelligence and experience.

Where child doing adult activity, held to an adult standard of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the duty of care of an owner of land to prevent outsiders from hazardous conditions?

A

No duty to prevent from hazardous natural conditions on premises, duty to prevent harm for unreasonably dangerous artificial hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a landowners duty of care to undiscovered trespasser?

A

No duty to make land safe or earn of hazardous conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What us landowners duty of care to known or frequent trespassers?

A

To warn of known dangers and artificial conditions that pose risk of death or sbi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the attractive nuisance doctrine?

A

Landowners must exercise ordinary care to avoid foreseeable injury to children if landowners

Knows kids trespass
Condition poses unreasonable risk of death/sbi
Children don’t discover risk because
Expense to remedy is slight compared to risk
Owner fails to use reasonable care to eliminate danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a landowners duty to a licensee?

A

Warn of dangerous conditions

Use reasonable care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Does a landowner owe a licensee a duty to inspect or repair property?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is an invitee?

A

A person who enters lands in response to an invitation to do business

Or public invited for land open to public at large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What duty owed to invitees?

A

Duty to reasonably inspect for hidden dangers and make reasonable repairs

44
Q

What is a tenants duty to maintain premises?

A

Same as landowner’s

45
Q

What are landlord’s duties?

A

Warn of existing dangers
Repair not negligently
Maintain common areas

46
Q

What is negligence per se?

A 
Violates statute 
Plaintiff is within protected class
Harm is type of harm statute intends to prevent
47
Q

What is res ipsa loquitor?

A

Creates an inference of negligence in situations where the type of accident doesn’t normally occur if no negligence, and other causes eliminated by evidence

48
Q

What liability where there are joint tortfeasors?

A

Joint and several.

49
Q

Is a defendant liable for intervening causes of injury?

A

Yes, if foreseeable

50
Q

When are punitive damages available for torts?

A

Where defendant’s conduct wanton and willful

51
Q

What is plaintiff’s obligations re damages?

A

Mitigate them (ie. Seek treatment)

52
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

Recovery barred where plaintiff contributed to his injuries

53
Q

What is comparative negligence?

A

Damages in proportion to fault

54
Q

What is assumption of risk?

A

A defense to negligence where plaintiff knew risk and consented despite

55
Q

What liability for an owner whose animals trespass?

A

Strict liability for reasonably foreseeable damage

56
Q

What liability for wild animals?

A

Strict where injuries from animal’s dangerous propensity that is the character of the species

57
Q

When is there strict liability for an owner of a domestic animal?

A

Where owner knew of that animal’s dangerous tendencies

58
Q

What is ultra hazardous activity?

A

1 high degree of harm

  1. Can’t elongate risk through care
  2. Activity uncommon
  3. Activity not appropriate for location
  4. danger outweighs value to community
59
Q

Is contributory fault a defense to strict liability?

A

No

60
Q

When is a seller liable for injuries caused by a product it sells?

A

Seller is a commercial supplier who placed item in stream of commerce

61
Q

How is breach proven in products liability case?

A

Product is defective

62
Q

What types of defects exist for products?

A

Manufacturing
Design
Warning defect

63
Q

What tests do courts consider for design defects?

A

Consumer expectation test

Risk utility test

64
Q

How does compliance with industry standards affect a finding of a product’s defectiveness?

A

Compliance not conclusive proof not defective

Noncompliance can establish defective

65
Q

When are there damages for products liability.

A

Physical injury

Property damage

66
Q

What are defenses to products liability?

A

Assumption of risk
Comparative/ contributory negligence

Disclaimers not a defense

67
Q

Under what theories can product liability be established?

A 
Intent
Strict liability 
Negligence 
Warrantee 
Misrepresentation
68
Q

What are the types of warrantees?

A

Express
Fit for merchantability, ordinary purpose
Fit for particular purpose

69
Q

What are the defenses to warranty?

A

Assumption of risk
Comparative/contributory negligence for misuse
Failure to give notice of breach under UCC

70
Q

When will seller be liable for misrepresentation of fact?

A

Material fact concerning quality or uses of goods
Intended to induce reliance
Did induce reliance

71
Q

What are the elements of intentional misrepresentation?

A 
Misrepresentation 
Scienter
Intent to induce reliance 
Causation 
Justifiable reliance 
Pecuniary damages
72
Q

What are the elements of negligent misrepresentation?

A
  1. Misrepresentation by defendant in business capacity
  2. Defendant acted with no reasonable grounds for believing the misrepresentation true
  3. Intent to induce plaintiff’s reliance
  4. Causation
  5. Justifiable reliance
  6. Pecuniary damages
73
Q

What is a private nuisance?

A

Substantial
Unreasonable
Interference
With another’s use or enjoyment of his land

74
Q

How is an unreasonable interference with property determined?

A

Harm outweighs utility

Harm greater than plaintiff should be required to bear without consideration

75
Q

What is a public nuisance?

A

Substantial interference with health, morals, welfare, safety or property rights of the community

76
Q

When may a private party recover for public nuisance?

A

When party suffered damage that is different in kind (not just degree) from damage suffered by general public

77
Q

What are the defenses to nuisance?

A

Legislative authority
Assumption of risk
Coming to nuisance for purpose of bringing a lawsuit

78
Q

What is defamation?

A

False
Defamatory statement
Published
Damages reputation

79
Q

Do defamatory statements have to actually damage the plaintiff’s reputation?

A

No, plaintiff must show that it would have had it been believed

80
Q

What is different about damages for libel v slander?

A

General damages are presumed in libel, in slander cases special damages must be proven, unless slander per se

81
Q

What is slander per se?

A

Adversely reflects fitness to conduct business
Alleges loathsome disease
Alleges criminal behavior
Alleges serious sexual misconduct

82
Q

What must be proven in addition to the elements of defamation to prove constitutional law defamation?

A 
Public figure
Actual malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard)
83
Q

Where actual malice shown for defamation of a public figure, what happens to damages?

A

They are presumed

84
Q

Where a private person alleges defamation what must be proven?

A

Negligence regarding the false statement

85
Q

What kind of damages where a private person proves defamation?

A

Only actual injury damages unless malice is shown.

Where malice shown, damages presumed and punitive damages permitted.

86
Q

What are the defenses to defamation?

A

Consent
Truth
Absolute privilege
Qualified privilege

87
Q

When is there absolute privilege to make defamatory statements?

A

Court/legislative proceedings
Between spouses

Privilege applies even where there is actual malice

88
Q

How may a publication lose qualified privilege?

A

Acting with actual malice

Publishing excessively when not reasonably necessary

89
Q

When does a publication have qualified privilege?

A

Statements made to protect publisher’s interests

To protect a third party

To act in the public interest to report

90
Q

What does misappropriation of likeness require?

A

Unauthorized use
Picture or name
Commercial advantage

91
Q

What is intrusion on plaintiff’s solitude?

A

Intrusion into a private aspect
Of plaintiff’s life
In a private place that is highly objectionable to
A reasonable person

92
Q

What is placing a plaintiff in a false light?

A

Attributing views to plaintiff he doesn’t hold

Objectionable to a reasonable person

93
Q

In respect to placing a plaintiff in a false light, when must actual malice be proven?

A

Public interest

Public figure

94
Q

What is publicity of private life?

A

Public disclosure of private facts

Objectionable to a reasonable person

95
Q

What is malicious prosecution?

A 
Institution of criminal proceedings 
Termination in plaintiff’s favor 
Absence of PC
Improper purpose 
Damages suffered by accused
96
Q

Who may be liable for misuse of public process?

A

Any person actively involved in bringing proceedings.

Prosecutors immune.

97
Q

What is respondeat superior?

A

Where employee commits torts with intent to further employer’s purpose, employer is jointly liable with employee

98
Q

When may a party be liable for the acts of his independent contractor?

A 
Negligent hiring
Nondelegable duty (peculiar risk of harm or inherently dangerous activity)
99
Q

What torts may not be pursued via a survival action?

A

Defamation, right to privacy, malicious prosecution

100
Q

What is strict products liability?

A

Where defendant manufactures, sells, distributes a product that is defective, he is strictly liable where it is the actual and proximate cause of harm to plaintiff.

101
Q

What is the Good Samaritan rule?

A

It limits liability on rescue to reckless acts

102
Q

What is a landowner’s duty to known trespassers?

A

Warn of hidden dangers

103
Q

What is landlord’s duty to warn tenant of?

A

Latent defects (dangerous artificial conditions known to landlord)

104
Q

What kind of liability for possession of wild animals and abnormally dangerous activities?

A

Strict

105
Q

How may defamation by matter of private concern be proven?

A

Publication

106
Q

When is a temporary restraining order issued as a remedy for a tort?

A

Irreparable harm
Likely success on merits
Inadequate legal remedy
Balance of hardship

Cali Bar (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions