torts Flashcards

1
Q

land possessor traditional approach

A

invitees: inspect and discover dangerous conditions, reasonable steps to protect

Licensee: make property safe or warn of hidden dangers

anticipated trespasser: warn or protect from hidden dangers

trespasser: nothing

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2
Q

attractive nuisance

A

-artificial condition
-landowner knows or should know kids likely to trespass
-kids too young to appreciate risk
-risk of death or substantial bodily harm
-utility of maintaining risk is slight compared to risk of injury
-no reasonable care

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3
Q

learned hand: breach analysis

A

burden of precautions less than probable gravity of harm multiplied by probability of harm

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4
Q

negligence per se

A

-proximate cause
-P in class meant to be protected by statute
-harm meant to be prevented by statute

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5
Q

strict liability elements

A

absolute duty
breach
causation
damages

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6
Q

abnormally dangerous activities

A

-foreseeably high risk of harm
-cannot be made safe
-not common in community
-actual and proximate cause
-damages

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7
Q

wild animals

A

dangerous propensities
causation (including fearful reactions)
damages

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8
Q

domestic animals strict liability

A

if owner knows of dangerous propensities
causation
damages

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9
Q

defective product liability

A

absolute duty

defective product at time of sale or distribution
-manufacturing defect
-design defect
-warning defect:

actual/proximate cause:

damages

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10
Q

implied warranty of merchantability

A

reasonably useful and safe for average use

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11
Q

implied warranty of fitness for particular purpose

A

seller knows or has reason to know of buyer’s purpose

seller guaranteeing fit for purpose

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12
Q

defamation

A

defamatory language: diminish respect
-not opinions

of or concerning P: reasonable person must believe it refers to particular P

publication by D to 3P: intentional or negligent communication

damage to P’s reputation
-general if libel/written
-special if oral/slander

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13
Q

slander per se

A

professional reputation, disease, crimes of moral turpitude, unchaste behavior

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14
Q

defamation defenses

A

truth

consent

absolute privilege: legislative and judicial proceedings, between spouses, or in required publications.

qualified privileges: important public interest, in interest of defendant or third party. lost if exceeds scope or actual malice

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15
Q

misappropriation of right of publicity

A

-unauthorized use of P’s name/likeness/identity
-for D’s advantage
-lack of consent
-injury

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16
Q

intrusion upon seclusion

A

-act of intrustion into private affairs
-objectionable to reasonable person

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17
Q

false light

A

-d published facts about P or attributed views/actions to P
-placed P in false light
-highly offensive to reasonable person

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18
Q

public disclosure of private facts

A

-publication would be highly offensive to reasonable person
-not of legit concern to public

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19
Q

false imprisonment

A

-intentional confinement/restraint of defendant within bounded area
-any amount of time
-no reasonable means of safe escape
-actual damages not necessary if P knew of confinement

Damages—majority: actual damages unnecessary, P can recover nominal and possible punitive damages; minority: actual damages necessary only if P was unaware of confinement

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20
Q

battery

A

-harmful/offensive contact
-with P’s person or anything connected
-intent to touch
-causation

Single-intent rule (majority rule)—D may be liable if D (i) intends to bring about the contact; D need not intend (ii) that the contact is harmful or offensive

Double-intent rule (minority rule)—D must (i) intend to bring about a contact, and (ii) intend that the contact be harmful or offensive

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21
Q

assault

A

-act/threat
-puts P in reasonable apprehension of imminent contact
-intent to cause act
-causation

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22
Q

IIED

A

-intent to cause emotional distress or act with recklessness
-extreme and outrageous conduct
-causation
-damages

public figures must show falsity and actual malice; private P cannot recover if issue was of public concern

bystanders: immediate family, present, perceives conduct, D knows of this

third parties: if D intended ED
public figures: false statement, actual malice

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23
Q

NIED

A

-zone of danger
-ED
-physical manifestation

bystander: closely related to injured; present; observed injury

per se: negligent mishandling of corpse; medical misdiagnosis

Majority—emotional distress must be manifested by physical symptoms (e.g., nightmares, shock, ulcers); minority—allow recovery without a physical manifestation of harm

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24
Q

trespass to chattels

A

-interference with P’s possession
-intent to interfere
-causation
-damages: repair or loss of use

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25
Q

conversion

A

-substantial interference with P’s possession so deprives P of use
-intent to interfere
-causation
-damages: full value

*mistake as to thinking it is yours is no defense

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26
Q

trespass to land

A

physical invasion of another’s land
intent to invade

defenses :consent, necessity (private or public)

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27
Q

private nuisance

A

-substantial and unreasonable interference

Substantial: Offensive, inconvenient, or annoying to a reasonable, ordinary person

Unreasonable: Injury outweighs utility of behavior.

-with use or enjoyment of land

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28
Q

public nuisnace

A

unreasonable interference with right common to general public: health safety property
-private individual: special harm

**balance utility of nuisance with harm

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29
Q

self defense

A

reasonable force for defending herself against unprivileged use of force if reasonably believes force is necessary and proportionate

person using self defense must also not be negligent

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30
Q

vicarious liability

A

employee + within scope of employment
IC + nondelegable duty
IC + apparent authority

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31
Q

shopkeeper privilege

A

defense to false imprisonment

reasonable suspicion of P stealing, can detain P for reasonable amount of time and reasonable manner and on or immediately near premises

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32
Q

abnormally dangerous activity defense

A

defense: assumption of risk, voluntarily and knowingly

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33
Q

animals strict liability defense

A

def: assumption of risk

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34
Q

strict products liability defense

A

defenses: contributory negligence and assumption of risk

35
Q

defamation and public figure or public official, or public matter

A

also must prove:
-statement is false
-actual malice, knowledge or reckless disregard

-actual damages must be proven: damages to P’s reputation
–> private figure can recover punitive damages

36
Q

defamation and private figure and public topic

A

-false
-private figure: negligence or actual malice
–damages and punitive damages if private figure and malice

37
Q

manufacturing defect

A

-manufacturing defect: deviation from manufacturer’s intent

38
Q

design defect

A

–> consumer expectation test: ordinary consumer expectations
–> risk-utility test: reasonable alternative design was economically feasible and available, failure to use

39
Q

warning defect

A

foreseeable risk of harm not obvious to ordinary user could have been reduced with warnings

40
Q

absolute duty strict products liability

A

D is in business of selling commercial product

41
Q

actual causation strict products liability

A

defective when left D’s hands

42
Q

proximate causation strict products liability

A

injuries occurred b/c product used in intended or reasonably foreseeable way

43
Q

necessity

A

defense to trespass to land
public: allows to enter to prevent public disaster + reasonable belief
private: to protect herself or property. pay actual damages.

44
Q

transferred intent

A

TFAB

trespass to land/chattels
false imprisonment
assault
battery

45
Q

private nuisance defenses and remedies

A

coming to nuisance reduces damages
regulatory compliance is partial defense

abatement if gave D notice and D does nothing

damages of loss of property value

46
Q

public nuisance defenses and actions

A

regulatory compliance is partial defense
abatement by public official

47
Q

malicious prosecution

A

(i) intentional institution of criminal (or civil) proceedings against P;
(ii) termination in P’s favor;
(iii) absence of probable cause for prior proceedings;
(iv) improper purpose; and
(v) damages

48
Q

abuse of legal process

A

(i) wrongful use of process for an ulterior motive and
(ii) definite act or threat against P in order to accomplish ulterior motive.

49
Q

interference w business relationship

A

(i) existence of a valid contractual relationship between P and a 3rd party or valid business expectancy;
(ii) D’s knowledge of the relationship or expectancy;
(iii) intentional interference by D including a breach or termination of the relationship or expectancy and
(iv) damages.

privilege if proper competition

50
Q

intentional misrepresentation

A

i. [Affirmative] misrepresentation of a material fact
ii. Which D knew/believed to be false or had no foundation when she made the stmt
iii. Intent to induce P to act or refrain from acting in reliance on the misrepresentation
iv. Actual reliance (causation)
v. Reliance was justifiable (usually requires that the stmt is fast not just opinion)
vi. Damages: P must suffer actual pecuniary loss.

51
Q

negligent misrepresentation

A

i. Misrepresentation by D in a business or professional capacity
ii. Breach of duty toward a particular P
iii. Causation
iv. Justifiable reliance; and
v. Damages

52
Q

defense of property

A

reasonable force may be used if reasonably believes it is necessary to protect the property

53
Q

privilege of felony arrest - private person

A

felony must haven in fact been committed,

and person must reasonably believe the arrestee committed it.

Reasonable degree of force; deadly only when threat of serious harm.

54
Q

privilege of felony arrest - police

A

officer must reasonably believe that a felony has been committed and the person he arrests has committed it.

Reasonable degree of force;
deadly only when threat of serious harm.

55
Q

misdo arrest

A

must be a breach of peace and committed in the presence of the arresting party.

Reasonable degree of force; never deadly force.

56
Q

defense of property

A

Reasonable Force—may be used if the person reasonably believes it is
necessary to prevent tortious harm to the property. NEVER deadly.

57
Q

recapture of chattels

A

Recapture of Chattels (Personal Property): Reasonable force may be used to reclaim personal property that has been wrongfully taken, but only if you first request its return, unless that would be futile.

If the original taking was lawful (like a bailment) then only peaceful
means may be used.

58
Q

force to regain possession of land

A

Common law—reasonable force permitted

Modern rule—use of force is no longer permitted; only legal process

59
Q

municipal immunity

A

Traditionally, municipal tort immunity attached to the performance of traditional government functions but not to the performance of proprietary functions that are usually performed by a private company.

60
Q

breach of warranty for products liability: majority vs minority

A

Under the majority approach, only a purchaser or members of a purchaser’s family or household have standing to sue for breach of a product warranty, but they can only recover for personal injury. need privity

Minority approach is anyone injured regardless of privity

61
Q

learned intermediary doctrine

A

Under the learned intermediary rule, the manufacturer of a prescription drug or medical device typically satisfies its duty to warn by informing the prescribing physician of problems with the drug or device rather than informing the patient taking the drug.

62
Q

owner liability statutes

A

. In jurisdictions with owner liability statutes, the owner of an automobile may be liable for the tortious acts of anyone driving the car with permission.

63
Q

res ipsa loquitur

A

To obtain a res ipsa loquitur jury instruction, a plaintiff must prove that

(i) his injury was caused by an instrumentality or agent within the exclusive control of the defendant,

(ii) the accident was of a kind that ordinarily does not occur in the absence of negligence, and

(iii) the harm was not due to any action on the part of the plaintiff.

The third requirement is not satisfied if a plaintiff’s own negligence increases the likelihood of the defendant’s negligence.

64
Q

multiple causes and causation

A

Multiple causes: defendant’s action needs to be substantial cause

acting in concert: ​​​​​​​When multiple defendants engage in joint tortious conduct and one or more of them causes the plaintiff’s harm, all of the defendants are jointly and severally liable for the harm.

65
Q

damages for trespass to land

A

(i) the cost to repair the injury or to replace the destroyed property plus any recovery for the loss of the use of the property, or (ii) the diminution in the fair market value of the property.

and nominal damages

66
Q

intentional tort elements

A

Tortious conduct—voluntary act/failure to act

Requisite mental state—purposeful (or reckless for IIED), or defendant (D) knows the consequence is substantially certain

Causation—resulting harm legally (i.e., factually and proximately) caused by D’s conduct

67
Q

consent for def to intentional torts

A

Actual (express)—P is willing for the conduct to occur; revoked by clear communication

Apparent—D reasonably believes that P actually consents

Presumed (implied)—D is justified based on prevailing social norms or D has no reason to believe P would not actually consent if D had requested consent

Emergency—usually medical, purpose of conduct is to prevent/reduce risk to P’s life/health

68
Q

bystanders and self def

A

Not liable for injuries to bystanders—D may use nondeadly force against a bystander if (i) the force P is using against D is substantially greater than the force D uses against the bystander, and (ii) D’s use of force against the bystander is immediately necessary

69
Q

affirmative duty

A

Assumption of duty

Placing another in peril

By contract

By authority

By relationship (e.g., employer-employee, parent-child, common carrier-passenger)

By statute imposing an obligation to act

70
Q

standards of care for special Ds

A

Common carriers (planes, trains, buses)—highest duty of care consistent with practical operation of the business (majority)

Innkeepers—ordinary negligence (majority); “slight negligence” (common law)

Automobile drivers—absent “guest statute” (minority—refrain from wanton & willful misconduct), ordinary care to guests as well as passengers (majority)

Bailor
Gratuitous—duty to warn bailee of known dangerous defects o Compensated—duty to warn bailee of defects that are known or should have been known by the bailor had he used reasonable diligence

Bailee
Gratuitous—liable only for gross negligence
Compensated—must exercise extraordinary care
Mutual benefit—must take reasonable care

Sellers of real property—duty to disclose known, concealed, unreasonably dangerous conditions; liability to third parties continues until buyer has a reasonable opportunity to discover and remedy defect

71
Q

invitee: recreation

A

Recreational land use (some jurisdictions)—possessor who opens land to public for recreation generally not liable for injuries sustained by recreational land users unless (i) charges a fee or (ii) acts willfully, maliciously, or with gross negligence

72
Q

off premise victims

A

No duty for harm by natural condition (except rotting trees in urban areas)

Duty to prevent unreasonable risk of harm caused by artificial condition

73
Q

wrongful life vs birth

A

Wrongful life—minority allows action by child for failure to perform contraceptive procedure or diagnose congenital defect; damage limited to those attributable to disability

Wrongful birth—if birth due to failed contraceptive procedure or diagnosis of defect, many states permit parents to recover medical expenses for caring for disabled child; some states allow mother to recover pain/suffering damages and medical expenses for labor

74
Q

dram shop liability

A

many states recognize cause of action against seller of intoxicating beverages when a third party is subsequently injured due to buyer’s intoxication; most states only allow liability if buyer was minor or intoxicated at time of sale; many states extend to social hosts for injuries to intoxicated guest and/or third parties

75
Q

immunity govt actors

A

immunity applies if is performing discretionary functions entrusted by law unless acts with malice or improper purpose; no tort immunity for carrying out ministerial acts

Absolute immunity from personal liability—legislators performing their legislative functions, judges performing their judicial functions, prosecutors

76
Q

last clear chance

A

Last clear chance rule—abolished in most jurisdictions; P may mitigate legal effect of own fault if D had last clear chance to avoid injuring P; D’s actual knowledge of P’s inattention required for liability to inattentive P; D liable to helpless P if knew or should have known of P’s helpless peril

cotnributory neg jxs

77
Q

modified comp negligence

A

If P is less at fault than Ds combined, P’s recovery reduced by percentage of fault

If P is more at fault than Ds combined, P recovers nothing

If P and D are equally at fault, P recovers 50% of his total damages (in minority jurisdictions P recovers nothing if equally at fault)

78
Q

trespassing animals

A

owner/possessor S/L for reasonably foreseeable damage caused by trespassing animald

79
Q

disclaimers for consumer goods

A

Consumer goods—limitation of consequential damages for personal injury is unconscionable

80
Q

libel per quod

A

if defamatory statement requires proof of extrinsic facts to show it is defamatory, P must prove either special damages or a category of slander per se

81
Q

interference with prospective econ advantage

A

no contract

More egregious conduct required for liability, should be independently tortious; violates federal or state law; improper conduct per balancing analysis

Business competitor will not be liable for encouraging switching business

82
Q

theft of trade secrets

A

P owns valid trade secret (provides a business advantage)

Not generally known

Reasonable precautions to protect

D took secret by improper means

83
Q

trade libel

A

malicious publication of derogatory statement relating to P’s title to business property/quality of products, and interference or damage to business relationships;

proof of special damages required and mental suffering damages unavailable;

truth and fair competition are valid defenses

84
Q

slander of title

A

publication of false statement derogatory to P’s title to real property; malice; special damages as a result of diminished value in the eyes of third parties