Tort Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Bolam test used for in professional negligence?

A

To determine what constitutes reasonable medical advice, backed by a body of medical expertise and opinion.

The Bolam test is applied at the second stage of assessing professional negligence.

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2
Q

What must the court decide in Stage 1 of the Bolam test?

A

What is ‘material’ in terms of risks and whether there is a requirement to inform the patient.

This decision is not connected to medical expertise.

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3
Q

Define the duty of care in negligence.

A

A duty of care is owed to persons who can reasonably foreseeably be injured by another’s actions.

This includes individuals closely and directly affected by another’s act.

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4
Q

What are the ways to generate a duty of care for omissions?

A
  • Precedent
  • Statutory Duty
  • Contractual Duty
  • Sufficient Control
  • AOR
  • Creation of Risk

AOR refers to ‘Assumption of Responsibility’.

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5
Q

What is the basic standard of care for breach of duty?

A

D must have behaved as a reasonable and prudent person would in all circumstances.

This is known as the ‘reasonable man’ standard.

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6
Q

Who may have a lower standard of care?

A
  • Children
  • Anyone with an Illness/Disability

If a person is aware of their impairment and acts anyway, they may lose the privilege of a lower standard.

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7
Q

What is the burden of proof for establishing a breach?

A

Balance of probabilities (B.O.P).

This means the claimant must show it is more likely than not that a breach occurred.

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8
Q

What does ‘Res Ipsa Loquitur’ mean?

A

The thing speaks for itself; used in cases where breach is evident without needing to establish a direct act of negligence.

This is particularly useful in cases of concurrent liability.

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9
Q

What is factual causation in clinical negligence?

A

Determining if the claimant would not have undergone treatment but for the negligence.

Involves tests such as ‘but for’ and B.O.P over 55%.

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10
Q

What is legal causation concerned with?

A

Whether the chain of causation can be regarded as broken and remoteness.

This includes considerations of acts of God, third parties, and the claimant.

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11
Q

What is the test for remoteness of damage?

A

Was the damage reasonably foreseeable?

If it is not too remote, the claimant can recover for their claim.

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12
Q

What are the necessary elements for consent to be valid?

A
  • The claimant had capacity
  • The claimant had knowledge
  • The claimant knew the risks
  • The claimant acted voluntarily

Consent may be negated by statute, and employees have special considerations.

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13
Q

What does contributory negligence refer to?

A

A partial defense that reduces damages based on the claimant’s own negligence contributing to the harm.

Under the Law Reform Contributory Negligence Act 1945, it leads to a percentage reduction in damages.

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14
Q

What is the main purpose of damages in tort law?

A

To provide compensatory relief for losses, not penalize.

Most damages are classified as special (provable) or general (non-quantifiable).

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15
Q

What does the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 cover?

A

Statutory bereavement, loss of income and service dependency, and funeral expenses.

It does not cover intangible benefits.

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16
Q

What defines an employer’s liability?

A

An employee suing the employer for not taking reasonable care in the workplace.

This is distinct from labor/employment law.

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17
Q

What is the duty of care for employers?

A

Employers must take reasonable care to provide a safe working environment, including safe equipment and systems of work.

This is a non-delegable duty.

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18
Q

What are the four duties of an employer regarding employee safety?

A
  • Safe/competent employees
  • Safe/proper plant and equipment
  • Safe place of work & premises
  • Safe systems of work

Safe systems of work is an umbrella term for how things are managed in the workplace.

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19
Q

What is the employer’s responsibility when a task is more difficult?

A

The employer needs to provide greater supervision and safety systems.

This is to ensure that employees are encouraged to use the safest system of work.

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20
Q

What is the ultimate test for employer liability?

A

The ultimate test is reasonable care.

There are exceptions to the rule regarding this test.

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21
Q

What is the ‘but for’ test in causation?

A

It is a standard test to determine if the harm would not have occurred ‘but for’ the employer’s actions.

This test can be contested by the employer with evidence.

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22
Q

What is the test for remoteness in employer liability?

A

The ‘reasonably foreseeable’ test.

Psychiatric harm can be recovered as a consequential harm, but not as a standalone claim.

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23
Q

True or False: ‘Consent’ can be used as a defense in most cases of employer liability.

A

False.

‘Consent’ is only available as a defense in exceptional circumstances.

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24
Q

What does vicarious liability imply for employers?

A

Employers can be held responsible for the torts committed by their employees or those under their control.

This is true even if the employer is not at fault.

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25
Q

What are the requirements for a vicarious liability claim?

A
  • A tort was committed
  • The defendant is an employee or has a relationship akin to employment
  • The tort was committed in the course of employment

All vicarious liability claims are considered strict liability.

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26
Q

What is the control test in determining vicarious liability?

A

It assesses the degree of control exercised by the employer over the work.

It helps establish whether an employment relationship exists.

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27
Q

What is the sufficient closeness test in vicarious liability?

A

If the defendant is ‘sufficiently close’ to an employment relationship, it may indicate vicarious liability.

This can arise from various circumstances indicating a quasi-employment relationship.

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28
Q

What is the main exception to employer liability for employee actions?

A

Unauthorised acts or frolicking on their own.

This means that if an employee acts outside the scope of employment, the employer may not be liable.

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29
Q

What constitutes psychiatric harm in legal terms?

A

Medically recognized psychiatric harm, such as PTSD or clinical depression.

Grief and simple distress are excluded from this definition.

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30
Q

Who is classified as a primary victim?

A

The person who is directly harmed or fears for their life during an incident.

Primary victims can recover for psychiatric harm if they meet specific conditions.

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31
Q

What is the criteria for secondary victims to claim psychiatric harm?

A
  • Reasonably foreseeable harm
  • Proximity in time and space
  • Must be physically present during the event as a ‘witness’
  • ties of love and affection with the primary victim

Secondary victims must not have suffered physical injury to claim psychiatric harm.

32
Q

What is the test for primary victims’ claims for psychiatric harm?

A
  • Suffered actual physical injury
  • Had reasonable fear for their life
  • The defendant must have reasonably foreseen harm

Ordinary rules of duty of care apply.

33
Q

What distinguishes pure economic loss (PEL) from consequential economic loss (CEL)?

A

PEL is not recoverable unless exceptions apply, while CEL is recoverable due to a substantive tort claim.

PEL occurs without prior physical damage to person or property.

34
Q

What is the legal rule for bringing a claim for occupational stress?

A

Employers owe a duty of care for any psychiatric harm caused by work-related stress.

Employers must proactively monitor for signs of stress.

35
Q

What are the elements of trespass to land?

A
  • Direct & physical
  • Intentional & voluntary
  • An interference

If the interference is not direct, it may fall under private nuisance.

36
Q

What remedies are available for trespass to land?

A
  • Damages
  • Injunction
  • Re-entry
  • Recovery of land
  • Mesne profits

There is no remoteness requirement in trespass to land.

37
Q

What constitutes private nuisance?

A

Any substantial and unreasonable interference with the use or enjoyment of land.

Personal injury cannot be recovered under nuisance claims.

38
Q

Who can be sued for private nuisance?

A
  • Creator of the nuisance
  • Occupier of the land
  • Owner of the land

Liability may apply to independent contractors under certain conditions.

39
Q

What is the minimum requirement for compensation in nuisance cases?

A

Compensation should be given as a bare minimum.

Compensation is generally required to address the impact of the nuisance.

40
Q

How does planning permission influence the nature of land?

A

Planning permission can change the nature of land, but it cannot confer complete immunity.

This means that even with planning permission, nuisances may still be actionable.

41
Q

What type of nuisances are most common in legal cases?

A

Longer nuisances are the majority of cases, but a single isolated nuisance can also be sufficient.

The duration of the nuisance can impact the case but is not the sole determining factor.

42
Q

What does (hyper)sensitivity refer to in nuisance claims?

A

It is a characteristic of the claimant that can remove the unreasonableness or unlawfulness of the nuisance completely.

This concept relates to the standard of what is considered ‘reasonable’.

43
Q

What is the implication of malice in nuisance cases?

A

Malice is plainly unreasonable and leads to automatic success in a claim for the defendant(invalidates claim).

Malicious behavior is viewed very negatively in nuisance law.

44
Q

What factors can influence a court’s decision regarding public benefit in a nuisance case?

A

Public benefit can be factored into the court’s decision, leading to remedies like a partial injunction.

This involves balancing competing rights and a cost/risk analysis.

45
Q

What types of loss are recoverable for nuisance?

A
  • Property Damage
  • Loss of Profits
  • General loss of amenity

These categories help delineate what damages can be claimed in nuisance cases. Physical injury is never recoverable.

46
Q

What is the primary remedy for nuisance?

A

An injunction is the primary remedy.

Injunctions can be either full or partial depending on the circumstances.

47
Q

What is the prescriptive defense in nuisance cases?

A

It applies if the nuisance has been occurring for 20+ years, although this need not be continuous.

This defense can protect a defendant if the nuisance has been established over a long period.

48
Q

Who can initiate a public nuisance claim?

A

The Attorney General, Local Authority, or Council can sue, but not individuals unless they show special damage.

Individuals must prove they have suffered over and above the rest of the class affected.

49
Q

What are the elements of public nuisance?

A
  • An act or omission
  • One-off event or Continuous
  • A class of His Majesty’s subjects affected
  • Materially affects comfort and convenience

These elements must be present for a public nuisance claim to be valid.

Materially affects the comfort and convenience of a class of Her Majesty’s subjects.

50
Q

What remedies are available for public nuisance?

A

The only remedies available are a partial or full injunction.

Damages are NOT available for public nuisance claims.

51
Q

What is the scope of Rylands v Fletcher?

A

Anything that the defendant brings onto their land that is likely to do mischief if it escapes.

This concept is a specific type of private nuisance.

52
Q

Who can be sued under Rylands v Fletcher?

A
  • The collector of the nuisance
  • The person in control of the land

This includes any party that has a direct role in the creation or control of the nuisance.

53
Q

What type of loss is recoverable under Rylands v Fletcher?

A
  • Property Damage
  • Consequential Economic Loss (CEL)

Only property-damage oriented losses are recoverable.

54
Q

What is the key test for duty of care under the 1957 Occupiers Liability Act?

A

To take care such as is ‘reasonable’ in all circumstances regarding keeping the premises in good repair.

This standard applies specifically to visitors.

55
Q

What defines an ‘occupier’ under the Occupiers Liability Act?

A

An occupier is someone who has a ‘sufficient degree of control’ over the property.

Ownership is not a requirement for occupier status.

56
Q

What is the key difference in the duty of care owed to trespassers under the 1984 Occupiers Liability Act?

A

The duty of care is not automatically generated unless the occupier has knowledge of the trespasser’s presence.

This creates a much lower standard compared to the duty owed to visitors.

57
Q

What are the key rules in product liability for tort?

A
  • No claim for the loss of the defective product itself
  • No exclusion or limitation clauses for product liability

These rules emphasize the liability surrounding the effects of defective products.

58
Q

What act governs product liability?

A

Consumer Protection Act (CPA) 1987.

This act establishes strict liability for defective products.

59
Q

What constitutes a defect under product liability law?

A

A defect is anything that falls below general or standard expectations of a consumer.

This primarily relates to consumer expectations.

60
Q

Who can sue under product liability law?

A

Anyone who ‘uses’ the product or is a ‘victim’ of the product.

Business losses are non-recoverable due to being classified as pure economic loss.

61
Q

What is a defect?

A

Anything that falls below general or standard expectations of a consumer

This is primarily about consumer expectations.

62
Q

Who can sue in a product liability case?

A

Whoever ‘uses’ the product or is a ‘victim’ of the product

Business losses are non-recoverable.

63
Q

Who can be sued under product liability?

A

Producer, importer, supplier

Any person who ‘won or abstracted’ it or ‘holds himself out’ to be a producer.

64
Q

What is the limitation period for product liability claims?

A

3 years

65
Q

What type of liability does the CPA 1987 impose?

A

Strict liability

This creates high expectations for producers, importers, and suppliers.

66
Q

What constitutes a breach in product liability?

A

Quality manufacture of the product falling below the reasonable/standard product standard

Design limitations cannot be sued for.

67
Q

How is factual causation determined in product liability?

A

Whether the tort was caused ‘wholly or partly’ by the defect

68
Q

What is the principle of caveat emptor?

A

The buyer is expected to make a sufficiently thorough and ‘reasonable inspection’

Not respecting this may limit the award for product liability.

69
Q

What types of harm are recoverable under product liability?

A

Most types of harm, except pure economic loss

No remoteness test or standard applies.

70
Q

What are the four caveats in product liability claims?

A
  • Pure economic loss is excluded
  • No claim for loss of the product itself
  • No claim for property value below £275
  • No claim for damage to property for commercial purposes
71
Q

What is required for a product to be eligible for a claim?

A

The product must be intended for private use

This includes marketing/purpose and actual use.

72
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

A normal rule in product liability defences

73
Q

What is the ‘state of the art’ defence?

A

The defect did NOT exist at the relevant time due to the state of scientific & technological knowledge

Mere warnings can act as a partial defence.

74
Q

What are some bars to claims under the CPA 1987?

A
  • Business purposes
  • Claims below £275
75
Q

What remedies are available in product liability cases?

A
  • Damages
  • Right to a new defect-free product (sometimes)