Topics Flashcards

1
Q

What is hyposthenuria and what disease is it associated with? Pts. have _____ urine frequency, ____ urine specific gravity, ______ serum sodium

A

inability for kidneys to concentrate urine, sickle cell disease/trait
-increased, dec, normal

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2
Q

In central insipidus diabetes, serum sodium is ______

A

elevated b/c not releasing ADH to take in water

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3
Q

In primary polydipsia, serum sodium is typically _____

A

low from excessive fluid intake

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4
Q

pts with persistent narrow complex tachycardia (also known as ______) should be tx with?

A

supra ventricular tachycardia, synchronized cardio version

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5
Q

work up of aortic stenosis

A

ECG, cardiac enzymes, echocardiogram, stress test (contraindicated in sever symptomatic AS)

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6
Q

treat AFib w/ WPW with that

A

procainamide

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7
Q

tilt table test is for what?

A

vasovagal syncope without structural heart disease

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8
Q

which three groups are more likely to have atypical sx with acute coronary syndrome and what are the sx?

A

women, elderly, people with diabetes

  • from most com to least com
  • chest pain, dyspnea, n/v, epigastric pain
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9
Q

isolated systolic HTN is caused by ______ stiffness or _____ elasticity of the arterial wall

A

increased, decreased

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10
Q

How should digoxin dose be changed when initiating amiodarone? How does acute digoxin toxicity look?

A

dose should be decreased by 25-50%

-n/v, anorexia, abdominal pain, vision changes

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11
Q

what is first line med for essential tremor

A
beta blockers (propanolol)
-functional type tremor when doing tasks
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12
Q

baroreceptor sensitivity _____ with age

A

dec

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13
Q

initial tx for aortic dissection

A

beta blockers

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14
Q

sudden development of ischemic sx in one leg in a previously asymptomatic patient is most consistent with arterial ______

A

emboli,

long standing would be thrombus as PVD is gradual and both extremities would be affected

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15
Q

What are 3 causes of arterial emboli

A

AFib (left arterial thrombus), left ventricular thrombus following an anterior MI, septic emboli from infective endocarditis

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16
Q

_________ toxicity can happen when people get prolonged infusions of nitrates, esp with renal disease

A

cyanide

-AMS, seizures, coma, lactic acidosis

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17
Q

what is hypertensive encephalopathy characterized by?

A

marked INC in BP w/ signs of cerebral edema (HA, n/v, restlessness, confusion, agitation, seizures, coma)

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18
Q

How does aortic stenosis affect S2?

A

softer as that’s when the aortic valve closes

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19
Q

What arrhythmia is most specific for digoxin toxicity?

A

atrial tachycardia with AV block

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20
Q

what 2 classes of medications can help with inc appetite in cancer related anorexia/ cachexia syndrome?

A

progesterone analogues and corticosteroids

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21
Q

_________ can reduce the risk of febrile non hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

leukoreduction (dec the number of transfused leukocytes through filtering, saline washing, freezing

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22
Q

_______ presents with “soap bubble” appearance on X-ray (eccentric lytic lesions on epiphysis of distal femur)

A

giant cell tumor

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23
Q

treat epidural spinal cord compression with

A

IV glucocorticoids

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24
Q

What imaging to identify cause of SVC syndrome (face AND arm swelling). What’s most common cause of obstruction?

A

CXR, malignancy

-if was JUST ARM swelling, could consider DVT

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25
Q

Whats best initial test for head and neck tumor?

A

panendoscopy (esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy)

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26
Q

post op oliguria typically need

A

a catheter to restore normal urine output, if this doesn’t work-check other sources

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27
Q

Abnormal hemostasis can be common in chronic renal failure, why?

A

abnormal bleeding and bruising are characteristic of uremic coagulopathy

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28
Q

Seizures can lead to what acid base disorder

A

AG metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis) because of skeletal muscle hypoxia
-this is transient and typically resolves w/in 90min

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29
Q

50 yr old pt presents with palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria, arthralgia, hepatosplenomegaly

A

mixed essential cryoglobunemia

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30
Q

Test for Cdiff with stool ___

A

TOXIN not culture

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31
Q

saline responsive metabolic alkalosis is commonly due to loss of _________. How is serum and urine Cl?

A
gastric secretions (vomiting, NG suction)
-low serum Cl, high urine Cl
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32
Q

what typically triggers vasovagal syncope? How do you treat?

A

stress, emotional event, sight of blood etc

-counter pressure (lift legs, hand grip) to inc blood flow back to heart

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33
Q

what is the most effective intervention for dec BP

A

weight loss>DASH diet>exercise>dietary sodium>alcohol intake

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34
Q

COPD leads to ____ work of breathing and ____ inspiratory and expiratory flow rates

A

inc, dec

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35
Q

rapid treatment with _______ is needed in patients with severe hyperkalemia who develop significant ECG changes

A

calcium gluconate

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36
Q

moderate hypothermia is treated by ________

A

active rewarming and warmed IV fluids

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37
Q

What is trousseau’s syndrome?

A

hypercoagulabilty disorder that presents with migratory thrombophlebitis (blood clot in a vein leads to inflammation and pain) in weird spots like arm and chest, typically assoc with malignancy like pancreatic

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38
Q

what type of cancer is assoc with pernicious anemia

A

gastric cancer

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39
Q

when pts become pregnant what happens to TSH? How should someone who’s hypothyroid prior to pregnancy adjust their levothyroxine?

A

TSH dec, inc levo at detection of pregnancy

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40
Q

______ is a first line tx for major depression with psychotic features and is appropriate for elderly patients who are refusing to eat or drink and need immediate therapy

A

ECT electroconvulsive therapy (30-60 sec tonic-clonic seizures)

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41
Q

spinal central cord syndrome typically affects the ______ extremities

A

upper

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42
Q

spinal anterior cord syndrome typ affects the _______ extremities

A

lower

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43
Q

hemolytic anemia, hepatic vein thrombosis, and high bilirubin, and abdominal pain think

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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44
Q

what prophylaxis for suspected bacterial meningitis 2-50yrs and >50yrs

A

2-50: vanco and 3rd gen cephalosporin

50+: vanco and 3rd gen cephalosporin and ampicillin

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45
Q

the degree of dec of what electrolyte can let you know how severe the heart failure is

A

hyponatremia

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46
Q

______ nerve fiber injury is associated with positive sx (pain, paresthesias, allodynia-inc pain response)

A

small

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47
Q

______ nerve fiber injury is associated with negative sx (numbness, loss of proprioception and vibration sense, diminished ankle reflexes)

A

large

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48
Q

dry, flat, scaly papulues on skin in sun exposed areas

A

actinic keratosis

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49
Q

_______ presents as macule or raised wart like lesions, pink brown or black “stuck on”

A

seborrheic keratosis

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50
Q

______ can be described as a state of mutism, stupor, posturing and is treated with _______. ______ drugs worsen this state

A

catatonia, benzos (lorazepam), antipsychotics

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51
Q

_______ is an acute arthritis caused by release of Ca rhomboid crystals. See lots WBCs but no bacteria. See what on radiology

A

pseudo gout, meniscal calcification

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52
Q

in polycythemia vera, EPO tends to be_____

A

decreased b/c overproduction of RBCs is from JAK2 kinase mutation

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53
Q

ruptured berry aneurysm is associated with a _______ hemorrhage

A

subarachnoid

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54
Q

_______ is recommended for pts with gross hematuria or w/ microscopic hematuria and other risk factors for bladder cancer

A

cystoscopy

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55
Q

with pyelonephritis, see urine ph>8 think ______ producing organisms like?

A

urease, proteus and klebsiella

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56
Q

_________ is characterized by pain and stiffness in neck, shoulders, pelvic girdle, inc ESR, >50yrs. Tx with?

A

polymyalgia reumatica, low dose prednisone

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57
Q

attributable risk percentage formula

A

ARP=(RR-1)/RR

58
Q

whats first line tx for idiopathic intracranial HTN

A

acetazolemide (inhibits choroid plexus carbonic anhydrase)—>dec CSF prod and intracranial HTN

59
Q

dec renal perfusion leads to ____ renal tubular sodium delivery, which stimulates the _______ system and how does this affect renin, aldo, ADH levels

A

dec, RAAS, inc renin, inc aldo, inc ADH

60
Q

exertional dyspnea, pounding heart sensation, and widened pulse pressure think

A

aortic regurgitation

61
Q

What type of gallop is heard in acute coronary syndrome?

A

S4: heard immediately after atrial contraction and blood is forced into a stiff ventricle

62
Q

s3 gallop

A

heard during rapid filling of ventricles in diastole, turbulent blood flow to the ventricles due to inc volume

63
Q

_____ is the most common cause of MR in the developed world. How does this occur?

A

MVP, myxotamtous degeneration of mitral valve leaflet

64
Q

use _____ in VFib or pulseless ventricular tachycardia

A

defibrillation (provides a high energy shock at random point in the cardiac cycle)

65
Q

in _______ energy delivery is synchronized to the QRS complex to minimize the likelihood of shock occurring during repolarization which can predispose to _____

A

cardio version, VFib

66
Q

What does the ristocetin cofactor assay test for and what disease can it help dx?

A

platelet aggregation, vWdisease

67
Q

If someone comes in with a severe headache what do you get, and if that’s negative how do you follow up?

A

CT scan look for hemorrhage, and then Lumbar puncture looking for inc opening pressure and RBCs

68
Q

with COPD when does oxygen therapy decrease mortality?

A

When O2 sat is <88%

69
Q

when have elderly patient with pathologic fracture, renal failure, anemia, and hypercalcemia, think? Test with what?

A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA, SPEP( serum protein electrophoresis)

70
Q

symptomatic super bradycardia: what is best acute tx, long term?

A

acute: atropine, long term: ICD

71
Q

what four things have been shown to dec mortality in systolic HF

A

ACEi, Beta blockers, spironolactone, ICD

72
Q

what is the only population you tx asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

pregnant women

73
Q

what is acute tx for suspected adrenal insufficiency

A

IV hydrocortisone?

74
Q

COPD bleb rupture can lead to a ______. Tx by?

A

symptomatic pneumothorax, chest tube insertion

75
Q

METFORMIN is contraindicated in what disease?

76
Q

what is de quervain’s tenosynovitis? How do you tx?

A

swelling of the thumb tendons caused by repetitive motion, hurts to make a fist,
tx: thumb spica splint=immobilization

77
Q

What are some assoc. conditions with pseudo gout and what labs would you get for these?

A

hemochromatosis, hypothyroidism, and hyperparathyroidism

so ferritin/transferrin/TIBC, TSH, Ca

78
Q

in a patient with achalasia, who has a hx os osteoporosis, what’s best med?

A

zolendronic acid is a PO bisphosphonate, alendronate is PO so contraindicated given risk of pill esophagitis

79
Q

when have a healthy patient that has back pain that improves with rest and dec with exercise, think of ________ and tx with?

A

ankylosing spondylitis, tx: NSAIDs

-RF is negative and have HLA B 27 genotype, and can have uveitis

80
Q

management of acute asthma exacerbation is

A

oxygen with nebulizer albuterol

81
Q

most common recurrence after acute pericarditis

A

recurrent pericarditis

82
Q

if have someone with pyelonephritis who does not get better after susceptible abx tx, think?

A

renal or perinephric abscess

  • observe w/ CT
  • if abscess is <5cm: observe w/ abx
  • if abscess > 5c: give abx and drainage
83
Q

why is a normal PaCO2 a bad sign in acute respiratory exacerbation

A

pts. should be hyperventilating–> dec in CO2 and a respiratory alkalosis, if it’s normal: pt is getting tired of compensating

84
Q

what is acute retroviral syndrome

A

acute HIV presentation can be: fever, chills, sore throat, mucocutaneous lesions, maculopapular rash

85
Q

TAILS mnemonic for microcytic anemia

A

thalassemias, anemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency, lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemia

86
Q

when someone comes in with suspected meningitis and they’re stable what do you do

A

CT scan, LP, empiric abx or antivirals

87
Q

difference and cut off for hypertensive emergency and urgency?

A

BP> 180/120

urgency: no signs of organ damage, gradually lower BP over a few days
emergency: end organ damage, rapidly lower BP over minutes to hrs (nitroglycerin, nitroprusside, labetolol, captopril, hydralazine)

88
Q

Best way to tx migraines acutely? Two medications for migraine prophylaxis?

A

sumatriptan (oral) or chlorpromazine (IV so better if pt presents with vomiting)
-propanolol, amitryptiline

89
Q

Low FeNa signals ______ AKI and high FeNa signals _____ AKI

A

prerenal (holding on to Na to inc volume), intrinsic (not filtering properly so inc Na in urine)

90
Q

distinguish between gout and septic arthritis via

A

joint aspiration w/ synovial fluid analysis

-gout will ahh elevated uric acid levels but this isn’t sensitive or specific

91
Q

if a person gets stuck by a needle by someone with Hep B and has unknown vaccination status how do you tx? What if you know their vaccinated?

A
  • both HBIG (passive immunity) and hep B vaccine (active immunity)
  • reassurance
92
Q

Difference between sepsis, sever sepsis, septic shock

A

consider SIRS criteria: temp >38C or <36, HR >90, RR>20 or PaCO2 <30, leukocyte > 12 or <4 w/ >10% bands

  • sepsis is when theres a source of infxn
  • severe sepsis adds in SIRS criteria
  • septic shock is severe sepsis that doesn’t respond to adequate fluid resuscitation
93
Q

How is a pleural effusion BEST diagnosed

A

thoracentesis

94
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for bronchiectasis?

95
Q

3 methods to test for suspected Cushing’s syndrome

A

urine 24 hr free cortisol, dexamethasone suppression test, late night salivary cortisol

96
Q

how does chronic glucocorticoid use affect ACTH, cortisol, aldosterone

A

dec ACTH, dec cortisol, normal aldo(dec in primary autoimmune adrenal insufficiency w/ severe hyperkalemia)

97
Q

thyroid cancer that invades blood vessels

A

follicular

98
Q

thyroid cancer with psammoma bodies

99
Q

thyroid cancer with inc calcitonin

100
Q

When do you I’ve fresh frozen plasma

A

with severe coagulopathy (DIC, liver disease) w/ active bleeding

101
Q

When do you give packed red blood cells

A

when Hgb <7 and pt is stable

hub <9 for acute coronary syndrome

102
Q

When do you give platelets?

A

when platelets <10,000

103
Q

What is ABO incompatibility in pregnancy and how does it affect the baby?

A

When a mother who is type O has a baby with type A or B blood
-Affected infants are usually asymptomatic at birth or have mild anemia that lasts a few days and jaundice (which responds to phototherapy)

104
Q

tx papillary thyroid cancer with

A

surgical resection followed by radiation if there is inc risk of tumor recurrence

105
Q

in DKA what fluids do you give?

A

normal saline and normal insulin, add D5W when glucose <200

106
Q

if someone has a PE, how is Ca affected

A

PE=respiratory alkalosis and this means that more H+ is dissociated from albumin which means more Ca can bind albumin and this leads to dec ionized free Ca(which is the active form) so you see muscle spams

107
Q

fever w/ sore throat in anyone who recently started antithyroid drugs suggests and what do you do?

A

agranulocytosis, STOP PTU or the drug

108
Q

Hflu B vaccine is not administered after what age

109
Q

What can be a side effect of metoclopromide because of what if blocks

A

it is a D2 blocker so can lead to dystonia, restlessness, and parkinsonism

110
Q

asymptomatic hematuria on UA follow up

A

get another UA in a month, if still there get a urine culture

111
Q

_________ as a single dose has been shown to lessen hospitalization for croup when they are not in respiratory distress

A

dexamethasone

112
Q

nasal crease is a sign of and is associated with

A

chronic nasal itching, allergic rhinitis

113
Q

what imaging in acute setting of diverticulitis

A

CT scan, colonoscopy and barium enema can inc risk of perforation

114
Q

Long standing mitral stenosis can lead to _____ enlargement which leads to what with the esophagus

A

LA, esophageal compression

115
Q

knee injury is a strong predisposing factor for ______ cyst

A

popliteal (trauma stimulates the production of synovial fluid)

116
Q

hepatic adenoma tx?

A

stop OCP, and reimage in 6 months if <5cm, if greater than consider surgical resection

117
Q

presentation of thromboangiitis obliterans, Best thing to stop doing to improve prognosis

A

intermittent claudication, Raynaud’s phenomenon, migratory thrombophlebitis
STOP SMOKING

118
Q

diastolic murmur with opening snap in apex

A

mitral stenosis

119
Q

holosystolic murmur at apex

A

mitral regurgitation

120
Q

in psoriasis _______ hyperproliferate

A

keratinocytes

121
Q

when have someone with fatty diarrhea, anemia, and skin problems think

122
Q

a positive d xylose test (less than normal) indicates

A

malabsorption

123
Q

tx pregnant women with antiphoslipid syndrome with

A

low dose aspirin(low dose makes effects negligible) and heparin (doesn’t cross placenta)

124
Q

milk alkali syndrome sx

A

nausea, vomiting, constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, neuropsych sx,
-lab: hyperCa, metabolic alkalosis, AKI, suppressed pTH

125
Q

oral estrogen levels _____ TBG. This leads to an ______ number of TBG binding sites. This leads to a ______ free thyroxine and ___ TSH in hypothyroid patients

A

inc TBG by dec it’s clearance, inc TBG sites, dec free thyroxine to bind up all the TBG, increase TSH

126
Q

what is the best test to evaluate improvement in DKA

A

anion gap and beta hydroxybutyrate

127
Q

In Graves disease their are antibodies to _____ receptor

128
Q

In Hashimotos there are antibodies to ____

129
Q

How do glucocorticoids affect muscle mass

A

they lead to muscle atrophy

130
Q

What ate five risk factors for osteomalacia

A

malabsorption, Celiacs, intestinal bypass surgery (think Crohn’s), CKD< chronic liver disease

131
Q

chronic bladder condition characterized by bladder pain that is worst with filling and relieved by voiding, can also see dyspareunia, inc urinary frequency & urgency

A

interstitial cystitis (painful bladder syndrome)

132
Q

what are amiloride and triemterene

A

potassium sparing diuretics

133
Q

What is Bechet syndrome

A

painful pathos oral and genital ulcers along with uveitis and erythema nodosum

134
Q

what are symptoms of relative arthritis and what is first line tx

A

afebrile, urethritis, conjunctiviits, mucocutaneous lesions, knee pain

135
Q

patient with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and an erythematous rash, dx with

A

dermatomyositis

-dx muscle biopsy

136
Q

______ can occur in Paget’s disease of bone due to overgrowth of temporal bones on cochlea

A

Hearing loss

137
Q

how to tx patellofemoral syndrome and what are sx

A

strengthening exercises, compression of the patella tends to reproduce the pain

138
Q

pernicious anemia need to be monitored for dvpt of ______ cancer

139
Q

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is which 5 sx. Tx w/

A

thrombocytopenia, MAHA, renal insufficiency, neuro changes, fever
-plasma exchange (gets rids of pts autoantibodies)

140
Q

Use cryoprecipitate in _____

A

DIC b/c it contains clotting factors, fibrinogen, vWF